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Equine FINAL > Review 2 > Flashcards

Review 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is normal HR in a horse?

A

28-44 bpm

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2
Q

Abdominocentesis with uniform red tinge, nucleated cell count of 3500 cells/mCL and protein 3 g/dL indicates…

A

indicates strangulating intestinal lesion

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3
Q

GI impaction occurs most often at the diaphragmatic flexure. T/F

A

False, occurs at the…. PELVIC FLEXTURE

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4
Q

What cannot be ID on rectal palpation of a horse?

A

R dorsal colon (above root of the mesentery)

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5
Q

Horse that is rolling, has fever, blue mm, skin tent, distended SI loops on rectal, foul-smelling orange to brown nasogastric reflux, slightly turbid yellow abdominal fluid with total protein on 3 g/dL and nucleated cell count of 2000=

A

Anterior enteritis

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6
Q

What part of the equine GI tract has 2 bands and sacculations?

A

Small aka descending Colon

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7
Q

Colic case with PCV > 50% and serum lactate > 6 prognosis …

A

likely to die

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8
Q

What is most likely the cause of rising PCV, declining TP, and neutropenia???

A

Colitis

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9
Q

Predilection sites for impaction that are palatable on rectal examination –>

A

pelvic flexure, cecum, descending colon (small colon)

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10
Q

What confirms that there is rupture of GI tract when plant material is present in the abdominal paracentesis sample???

A

Cytology revealing phagocytized bacteria, plant material ID in the sample from a different area of the stomach

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11
Q

What 3 issues cause extreme pain in horses?

A

severe thromboembolism, SI obstruction w strangulation, and large colon volvulus

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12
Q

What are two indications for sx in a horse with colic?

A

Severe intractable pain and/or peritoneal fluid indicating damaged bowel

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13
Q

What are indications for referral with colic?

A

Progressive colon distension even tho pain is responsive to banamine, moderate to severe SI distension with pain on palpation of affected loops

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14
Q

What to do with horse colic with serum lactate > 6 and PCV >50%

A

euthanize

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15
Q

Which type of cells are NOT part of the innate immune system?

A

B cells

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16
Q

What are some things that can trigger SIRS?

A

Hypoxia, endotoxemia, bacterial infection, surgery, trauma

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17
Q

Where is the inflammatory response to SIRS the greatest?

A

Laminae/ aka shock organ of the horse

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18
Q

SIRS bloodwork findings–

A

Leukopenia, hyperthermia, tachypnea

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19
Q

Adequate passive transfer in horses is ___ or more on SNAP test

A

800 mg/dL

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20
Q

What is a highly conserved part of an endotoxin and is highly conserved between species and is also responsible for most of the LPS toxicity?

A

Lipid A

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21
Q

___ is responsible for LPS toxicity and is bound to polymixin B

A

Lipid A

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22
Q

What is the most common lab abn in horses with endotoxemia?

A

Neutropenia

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23
Q

What is bound by polymixin B?

A

Lipid A

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24
Q

Lipid A is bound to ____

A

polymixin B

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25
Q

Gastric ulceration, right dorsal colitis, renal papillary necrosis are side effects to….

A

NSAID use

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26
Q

What is the most common cause of esophageal obstruction?

A

Intraluminal obstruction (food or FB)

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27
Q

What is NOT a tissue layer of the esophagus?

A

Serosa

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28
Q

What is the most common complication of esophageal obstruction?

A

Aspiration pneumonia

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29
Q

What grade rectal tear can be treated with epidural anesth and manual evacuation every 2 hours?

A

Grade 3

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30
Q

What substance can be used when performing a rectal examination to reduce rectal contractions (anticholinergic like atropine is)

A

Buscopan

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31
Q

Its is impt to palpate ___ ____

A

umbilical hernias

32
Q

What is the most common thing assoc. with surgical site infection?

A

Incisional hernias

33
Q

__ ____ is bounded by caudate liver lobe, gastropancreatic fold, and prortal vein

A

epiploic foramen

34
Q

what surrounds the epiploic foramen???

A

caudate liver lobe, gastropancreatic fold, and prortal vein

35
Q

What is the most common type of hernia?

A

umbilical

36
Q

Equine parvovirus is assoc. with administration of ?

A

equine derived biologic

37
Q

What is involved with the inability to convert ammonia to urea?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

38
Q

What drug is C/I for seizure control with horses with hepatic encephalopathy? Why?

A

Diazepam; Benzos are metabolized by the liver

39
Q

What is n serum bile acid, what does it mean if it is increased?

A

Normal is <15, if high could mean decreased hepatic function (hepatic mas?)

40
Q

Serum triglyceride concentration more than 500mg/dL is indicative of ?

A

Hyperlipemia

41
Q

Imidocarb dipropionate is used to tx…

A

equine piroplasmosis

42
Q

What is the most common cause of equine anemia?

A

Chronic inflammation (anemia of chronic disease)

43
Q

There is an imported stallion from Germany (6 weeks ago) and now has a fever, off feed, WBC is low, PCV is low, icteric. What is our best guess at what he may be sick with???

A

Piroplasmosis

44
Q

What does coggins test test for?

A

EIA (equine infectious anemia)

45
Q

What cells are most likely to contain Anaplasma phacocytophilum?

A

Neutrophils

46
Q

What can decrease incidence of disease from Rhodococcus equi when administered to neonatal foals?

A

Hyperimmune plasma

47
Q

What is the idea Blood Donor situation??

A

RBC lack type Aa and Qa antigens and lack antibody against Aa and Qa RBC antigens

48
Q

Equine plasma donors should be ____ negative for ?

A

PCR negative for Equine Parvovirus (causes severe fatal hepatitis)

49
Q

What causes severe, fatal hepatitis?

A

Equine Parvovirus

50
Q

What is the most abundant protein in blood of horses?

A

Albumin

51
Q

What breaks down hetastarch?

A

Amylase

52
Q

What is the focus of parasite control in horses younger than 2-3?

A

Target Parascarius equorium

53
Q

Most pathogenic parasite causing infections in horses involve what parasite?

A

Strongylus vulgaris

54
Q

Eggs/ ___ of feces= FEC

A

eggs/gram of feces

55
Q

What should you do if your horse has higher than ideal FEC?

A

deworm and repeat FEC in 14d

56
Q

___% reduction of parasites means anthelmintic is effective

A

90%

57
Q

is rotational deworming without testing recommended?

A

NOPE..

58
Q

Focus of parasite population in horses over 2-3 years is…

A

small strongyles

59
Q

Refugia should be small. T/F

A

False, should be LARGE

60
Q

Fecal egg count of 0 is perfect and ideal. T/F

A

FALSE, not expected/realistic

61
Q

___ hypertrophy in response to ____ loss

A

crypts; villi

62
Q

Inflammatory mediators and bacterial toxins disrupt what?

A

coordinated motility and decreased transit time

63
Q

What e’lytes are secreted into enterocytes from blood to cell and out of enterocytes (from cell to lumen)?

A

Na, Cl, K, HCO3- and water

64
Q

Na, Cl, K, HCO3-, and water move from enterocyte- (list this pathway)

A

blood- cell- out of enterocyte and from cell to lumen/interstitial to lumen via lateral chloride secretion

65
Q

What CS and diagnostic findings are consistent with diarrhea?

A

Tachycardia, hypovolemia, colic/abdominal pain, fever

66
Q

What is the hallmark of impending colitis?

A

Leukopenia and neutropenia

67
Q

What does the red line over teeth mean?

A

toxic line

68
Q

What’s the most common cause of acute or chronic diarrhea?

A

cyathostomiasis (small strongyles)

69
Q

Is a new horse on the property considered a risk for Salmonella?

A

Nope…….

70
Q

What is NOT a def. host for N. risticii???

A

Mosquitos

71
Q

Equine coronavirus has what transmission type?

A

fecal- oral

72
Q

Right dorsal colitis can be assoc. with what drug use? Why/How?

A

NSAID use; suppresses PGE2 and PGI2/prostaglandins (responsible for tight junction integrity)

73
Q

What is the MOST common cause of foal diarrhea?

A

Rotovirus

74
Q

Lawsonia intracellularis–

A

In a weanling, CS are hyperplasmic mucosal SI, crypts affected the most rather than villi tips

75
Q

What is the most impt tx plan for diarrhea???

A

FLUIDSSSSS

76
Q

What supplement is ideal when tx right dorsal colitis due to PGE2 analogs (like NSAID use)???

A

Misoprostol

Equine FINAL (3 decks)

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