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Equine FINAL > New material > Flashcards

New material Flashcards

1
Q

Normal RR of horses (adults)? What about in neonates?

A

8-16 breaths/minute; neonates up to 60 and foals up to 30 breaths/minute

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2
Q

Unilateral discharge means issue Is ____ to the _____

A

Rostral to the larynx

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3
Q

What are vesicular sounds? What are bronchial sounds?

A

Vesicular sounds- quiet, heard over middle and diaphragmatic lung regions, represent segmental bronchial sounds
Bronchial sounds- louder sounds, best heard over the trachea and base of lungs

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4
Q

Do finds always correlate well with degree of abn?

A

No

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5
Q

What are adventitious sounds?

A

Crackles and wheezes, short, discontinuous sounds, can be n in foals, usually inspiratory
pressure equitization wen collapsed airway segment open

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6
Q

____ wheezes are hallmark of equine asthma and other obstructive lung disease

A

expiratory

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7
Q

When should we not use the rebreathing bag?

A

Do not use in horses in resp. distress at rest

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8
Q

Using a rebreathing bag- what is the result of an abn horse?

A

Will not regain resp. effort quickly, should not cough

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9
Q

Dynamic endoscopy is used for horses at rest or while exercising? are horses always sedated with standing endoscopy?

A

While exercising; not always sedated but may be when assessing anatomic details

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10
Q

CT is best for evaluation of ____ disorders

A

sinonasal

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11
Q

U/S will not penetrate _____ lung

A

aerated

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12
Q

What is the most sensitive indicator of respiratory function that is readily available?

A

Arterial blood gas analysis

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13
Q

Common abn in horses breathing room air=

A

hypocapnia, hypercapnia, hypoxemia

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14
Q

Thoracocentesis-

A

aerobic and anaerobic culture and cytology, mediastinal frenstrations clog: submit sample from both sides, place 1 way valve, if leaving tube in place- so fluid goes out and no air is in

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15
Q

Sinus trephination-

A

Caudal maxillary sinus often used from sampling, frontal sinus often used for flushing,

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16
Q

what does unilateral discharge from the nares suggest

A

Source of discharge is rostral to the larynx

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17
Q

what does bilateral discharge from the nares suggest

A

can be either upper or lower airway in origin

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18
Q

when does cyanosis become apparent

A
  • when 1/3 of the hemoglobin becomes desaturated
  • reflects profound decrease in oxygen saturation
  • suggests severe hypoxemia
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19
Q

percussion of the sinus cavities

A

listen for abn resonance or dullness, holding mouth open might help

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20
Q

why should we palpate the submandibular region, larynx, pharynx, and cervical regions on a horse

A
  • look for lymph node enlargement
  • masses,
  • muscular atrophy
  • normal horses will not cough with palpation of larynx or trachea
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21
Q

thoracic auscultation- hyperresonance is due to ____

A

pneumothorax

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22
Q

what are hallmark of expiratory wheezes?

A

Equine asthma and other obstructive lung dz

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23
Q

why do we increase the horses depth of breath and how is it done

A
  • we do it to make it easier to hear abnormal sounds
  • done by using a rebreathing bad
  • horse will take its deepest breath when the bag is removed at the end
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24
Q

rads of the thorax in horses detects ___ dz

A

diffuse

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25
Q

transtracheal wash/bronchoalveolar lavage–>

A

Transtracheal- -samples the entire lower respiratory tract

  • by passes contamination from upper airway
  • perform bacterial culture and cytology with sample

Bronchoalveolar lavage- used to obtain samples from terminal airways and alveolar region, perform cytology with sample

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26
Q

What is a common area for sampling?

A

Caudal maxillary sinus

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27
Q

what is the term for the epidermal inclusion cyst in false nostril? What is the CS?

A

Atheroma; circumscribed swelling near nostril

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28
Q

What is tx of atheroma?

A

Surgical resection, lance from within the nostril and cauterize lining with 7% iodine

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29
Q

Guttural pouch tympany

A
  • air in the guttural pouch (throatlatch region)

- excise caudal aspect of cartilage flap at guttural pouch opening to treat

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30
Q

What are two differentials for hemorrhage of the nose?

A

Exercise induced pulm. hemorrhage or gluttural pouch mycosis with erosion of carotid artery

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31
Q

what is the tx of small ethmoid hematoma?

A

Formalin injection, do sinus flap and sx excision if large

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32
Q

what predisposes to a dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A
  • hypoplastic (short epiglottis) or flaccid epiglottis

- may be secondary to pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia or gutteral pouch infection

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33
Q

treatment of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Tongue tie, sternothyroideus myotomy, soft palete notching

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34
Q

what is the n epiglottic length in horses?

A

8-10cm

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35
Q

Subepiglottic or Pharyngeal Cysts

A
  • persistent embryologic structure
  • mass effect in nasopharynx
  • snare excision (will return if lining is not removed)
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36
Q

Idiopathic laryngeal hemiplegia-

A
  • disorder of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve

- causes paresis of CAD muscle with failure to abduct the left arytenoid

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37
Q

Tx arytenoid chondritis with what medication? What is the prognosis?

A

NSAIDs (might also have to do sx too)

poor prognosis for heavy exercise but good prognosis for low impact riding

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38
Q

Retropharyngeal abscess

A
  • most commonly secondary to strep equi infection
  • followed by a history of strangles
  • hot pack until the abscess ruptures externally
  • can also drain
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39
Q

Viral resp. dz-

A

most common in horses that travel or interact with other horses at many locations, may be an issue if new horses are brought in

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40
Q

Clinical signs that are the same among all resp. dz include which (4)

A

fever, anorexia, depression, can predispose to bacterial infections

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41
Q

What is the hallmark of tx for viral resp. diseases?

A

Support, NSAIDs, abx if secondary infection is a concern

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42
Q

t/f after recovering from a viral respiratory tract disease, the horse should not be rushed back to work

A

t- can lead to prolonged recovery, nonseptic inflammation airway dz, or secondary bacterial dz

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43
Q

equine influenza clinical signs

A
  • serous to mucopurulent nasal discharge
  • coughing
  • URT signs
  • submandibular lymph node enlargement
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44
Q

definitive diagnosis of equine influenza

A

viral ID on nasal swabs

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45
Q

Which strain of equine flu is most predominant???

A

H3N8

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46
Q

pathogenesis of equine influenza

A
  • infection of epithelium of URT and LRT leads to destruction of ciliated respiratory cells
  • causes disruption of the mucociliary apparatus
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47
Q

Equine herpes virus 4 is largely restricted to the _____ ____ and does not cause viremia

A

resp. tract

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48
Q

Equine herpes ___ causes ____ and neuro and reproductive diseases as well as resp.

A

1;viremia

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49
Q

Does past infection with equine herpes protect against abortion or neuro diseases?

A

nahhhh..

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50
Q

definitive diagnosis of equine herpes

A

identify virus, viral nucleic acid, or viral proteins on nasal swab or blood for EHV 1

51
Q

Where does equine herpes virus become latent???

A

in neurons and lymphocytes

52
Q

pathogenesis of equine herpes virus

A

infect and cause lysis of airway epith. cells

53
Q

equine herpes virus vaccine

A
  • none for neuro disease

- will decrease shedding and severity of respiratory disease

54
Q

What is the main CS of equine arteritis?

A

Peripheral edema

55
Q

differential diagnosis for equine arteritis virus

A
  • influenza
  • equine herpes
  • equine rhinits
56
Q

diagnosis of equine arteritis virus

A

virus isolation or PCR, reportable

57
Q

most important source of equine arteritis virus

A
  • persistently infected carrier stallions
  • carried in reproductive tract
  • clear if castrated
58
Q

pathogenesis of equine arteritis virus

A

infects epith. of genital tract and resp. tract, spreads via macrophages and lymphocytes

59
Q

Equine Rhinitis A Virus vs Equine Rhinitis B virus–>

A

A- aphthovirus, viremia occurs, looks like foot and mouth disease
Hosts are rabbits, guinea pigs, monkeys, humans

B- erbovirus, no viremia, host is resp. tract of horse only

60
Q

Equine adenovirus 1 is _____ dz whereas equine adenovirus 2 is ____ dz

A

resp; GI dz

61
Q

what can cause nonspecific respiratory disease in foals and can be fatal in severe combined immunodeficiency foals

A

Adenovirus

62
Q

What are the CS of strangles?

A
  • fever occurs 2-3 days before shedding
  • submandibular lymphadenopathy leading to abscessation
  • may also have infection of parotid or retropharyngeal lymph nodes
63
Q

What are bastard strangles?

A

-abscessation of lymph nodes or organs not on the head

64
Q

clinical signs associated with complicated cases of strangles

A
  • type 3 hypersensitivity leading to vasculitis
  • causes edema of periphery
  • petechial hemorrhage
  • infarctive myopathy
65
Q

Effective vax of strep equi equi (strangles) must include __ ____

A

M protein

66
Q

Diagnosis of strangles.

Tx of strangles

A

PCR and culture; tx is abx BUT ONLY FOR COMPLICATED CASES!!

67
Q

What is the tx of gluttural pouch emphysema in complicated cases of strangles???

A
  • flush pouch with isotonic fluids
  • sedate to keep head down as much as possible
  • instill K pen or Na
68
Q

treatment of purpura hemorrhagic and myositis in complicated cases of strangles

A

Steroids and abx

Dex

69
Q

most common ANaerobes in bacterial pneumonia

A
  • bacteroides fragilis
  • peptostreptococcus
  • clostridium
  • fusobacterium
  • eubacterium

Babies play, coo, fuss, eat

70
Q

pathogenesis of aerogenous bacterial pneumonia

A
  • bacteria from nasopharynx or oropharynx advance to lower airways and into alveoli
  • happens when other factors impair URT defenses
  • leads to bronchopneumonia
71
Q

Where is bronchopneumonia distribution?

A

Cranial ventral areas

72
Q

Pathogenesis of hematogenous bacterial pneumonia–

A

bacteria that enter bloodstream lodge and establish in the lung

73
Q

Embolic vs interstitial infections–

A

embolic is from IV catheter; interstitial is bacteremia from invasive bacteria

74
Q

diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia

A
  • ultrasound to look for abnormalities on pleural surface

- thoracocentesis (stab incision off front of rib)

75
Q

what will we see on cytology with bacterial pneumonia

A

Neutrophils and intracellular and extracellular bacteria

76
Q

What will we see on cytology with fungal pneumonia?

A
  • activated macrophages with lymphocytes

- fungal organisms inside macrophages

77
Q

What is the likely hx for rhodococcus equi pneumonia

A

-foals 1-5 months old
-leading cause of pneumonia in foals
persists in the soil and is shed in horse poop

78
Q

What is the tx of rhodococcus???

A

Erythromycin, azithromycin, or clarithromycin combined with rifampin (all of them)

79
Q

why should be be careful using macrolides in foals

A

can cause hyperthermia (high body temps)

80
Q

Dictyocaulus arnfieldi

A
  • equine lungworm
  • does not mature to egg laying adults in horses so horses will not shed eggs
  • will shed in donkeys
81
Q

diagnosis of lungworms in horses is…

TX is…

A

transtracheal wash and will see eosinophils

Tx with ivermectin or moxidectin

82
Q

clinical signs of equine asthma

A
  • decreased exercise tolerance

- intermittent episodes of coughing

83
Q

This horse has bronchial inflammation due to reaction of inhaled allergens. What is this condition called?

A

Equine asthma

84
Q

What cells predominate with equine asthma?

A

Neutrophils

85
Q

mold on hay that can contribute to equine asthma

A
  • faenia rectivirgula
  • aspergillus fumigatus
  • thermoactinomyces vulgaris

Don’t bed on straw

86
Q

Diagnosis of equine asthma

A
  • nonspecific lower airway inflammation in horses with typical clinical signs
  • use BAL!!!!
87
Q

tx of equine asthma

A
  • environmental management
  • minimize exposure to airborne allergens
  • feed soaking hay
  • keep indoors
  • dont bed on straw
88
Q

what anticholinergic bronchodilators are used for equine asthma

A

Atropine is first choice for ER, otherwise use ipratropium (inhaled)

89
Q

what b2 agonists are used for equine asthma

A
  • used long term
  • clenbuterol oral
  • albuterol inhaled
90
Q

clinical signs of exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage

A

Seen in racing horses, decreased performance relative to expected, epistaxis post race

91
Q

how to reduce bacteremia and sepsis in foals

A
  • move mare to where she is foaling at least 30 days before
  • wash and dry mare after foaling
  • ensure intake of colostrum
  • good manure removal practices
  • ensure adequate IgG concentrations
92
Q

Treatment of exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage

A

Furosemide immediately before racing decreases pulmonary capillary blood pressure by decreasing blood volume through diuretic effects

93
Q

What is the tx for contractual deformities?

A

Oxytetracycline

94
Q

foal heat diarrhea

A

Around the time the mare returns to estrus, not caused by increased maternal estrogens in milk but rather dye to changes to foals enteric flora

95
Q

what does rotavirus do

A
  • decreases digestibility due to damage to the villi

- undigested milk sugars hold water and will contribute to diarrhea

96
Q

Normal blood lactate in adult horses is ___ what about in foals???

A

adults is < 2

Foals is < 2.5

97
Q

What is the most common reason for low calcium?

A

Anorexia

98
Q

When is bicarb used?

A

If pH lower than 7.2

99
Q

calculation of bicarb deficit

A

Body weight x 0.3 x (24- measured bicarb)

100
Q

when is cyanosis noticed?

A

When at least 1/3 of the hgb is compromised/desaturated

101
Q

What is the number one differential for horse coughing? What is the second differential?

A

Equine Influenza; equine asthma is the second differential

102
Q

stridor or stertor is more common in horses with resp. issues???

A

Stertor

103
Q

H3N8 Type 2 is also “____ ___” and can jump from what species to horses???

A

Canine influenza; dogs

104
Q

How often should you booster high risk horses from equine flu?

A

Every 6 months
We start flu vaccines in foals at 6 months (and booster 3-4 weeks) AND THEN 3-4 MONTHS after that and then its every 6 months for their life
Bc maternal antibodies may interfere

105
Q

_____ causes viremia and SPREADS from the resp. tract to other organs but ______ DOES NOT cause viremia (restricted to the resp. tract)

A

EHV- 1 ; EHV-4

106
Q

low dose vs high dose inactivated vax for EHV

A

Low dose is against resp. dz
High dose is against resp. dz and abortions
“dose” is the antigen load, usually high dose/antigen load is better at reducing shedding as well

107
Q

____ is REPORTABLE and one seropositive test means..

A

Equine arteritis virus; recent infection

108
Q

T/F some stallions with infected vas deferens of equine arteritis can spont. clear the infection? Can mares get it from repro. AND resp. secretions?

A

T; YES

109
Q

How do we prevent equine arteritis infections?

A

MLV vaccine and castration- vax only protects against dz NOT infection, will limit abortion outbreak

110
Q

Equine rhinitis ___ has no viremia

A

B

111
Q

What is the MOST IMPT RESP DISEASE OF FOALS

A

Equine adenovirus

  • no vaccine
  • diag. with PCR nasal swabs
  • TX is supportive
  • fatal if combined with SCID foal
112
Q

What is gold standard for strep equi? What do we use instead because its quicker?

A

Culture; PCR

113
Q

Should we vax horses for strangles when other horses in the barn def. have it?

A

NOOOO could cause purpura hemorrhagica bc high antibodies

114
Q

When do horses stop shedding Strangles?

A

More than 2 weeks after CS

115
Q

_____ CAN cause laminitis

A

pleuropneumonia

116
Q

Common aerobes-

A

strep equi, actinobacillus, pasteurella, klebsiella, E. coli

117
Q

If p has evidence of resp. distress, DO NOT DO ____

A

BAL

118
Q

Rhodococcus equi= ___ _____ causes infection

A

virulence associated protein A (VAPA)

119
Q

Is rhodococcus equi infective if it does not have virulence assoc. protein A?

A

NOT LIKELY

120
Q

What are the two biweekly screening tests we need for Strep equi?

A

Biweekly WBC count and U/S

121
Q

Equine asthma aka ___

A

heaves

122
Q

Curcshmann spirals and mucus on ✌️BAL✌️ is what condition?

A

Asthma

123
Q

IgG less than 400 means

A

needs plasma transfusion and abx

124
Q

Use _____ for umbilical stump

A

Chlorhexidine

Equine FINAL (3 decks)

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