review? Flashcards

1
Q

what separates the spine in halfs

A

ant med fissure
post med sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what gray horn is present only in the thoracic and upper lumber spine

A

Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

spinothalamic tract is ascending or descending?

A

ascending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

corticospinal is ascending or descending?

A

descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what nerve innervates the diaphragm

A

phrenic C3,4,5 keeps pt alive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what spinal nerves are called the intercostal nerves?

A

T2-T11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how long does it take to damage brain cells without O2

A

4 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What supplies the circle of wilis with blood

A

internal carotids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where is the CSF produced

A

Corriod plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where is CSF reabsorbed

A

Arachniod vili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

where is the hypothalamus, thalamus and the pineal gland located

A

diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where in the brainstem is CN 3 and 4 located

A

midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

loss of this neuron can lead to Parkinson’s

A

substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what part of the brain does proprioception and equilibrium

A

cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what connects the right and left spheres of the brain

A

corpus callosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what a re the layers of the cerebrum

A

Cortex
basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

folds in the cerebeum are called

A

gyri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the grooves are called

A

sulci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

promary somato sensory area

A

postce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What specialized area controls speech

A

broachas speech area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is known as the emotional part of the brain

A

limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the name of CN 8

A

vestibulocochlear or acoustic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what CN covers taste

A

7 and 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what CN controlls movement of the tongue

A

12 hypoglossal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what spinothalamic tract
1) Light touch sensation
2) Deep pressure sensation

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What Spinothalamic tract?
1) Pain Sensation
2) Temperature (hot vs cold) sensation

A

Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

That regulates Temp

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what neurotransmitter does the sympathetic division release

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what neurotransmitters does the ANS release

A

acetylcholine (ACh) or norepinephrine (NE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Sympathetic division extends from that spinal cord segments

A

T1-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Axons in the S division synapse with post ganglionic neurons at what

A

a sympathetic trunk ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

graphethesia is part of what sensory

A

cortical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what special tests are done durring a neuro exam

A

brudzinski
kernig
nuchal rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what presents as a thunderclap headache

A

subarachnoid bleed

35
Q

1) Most prevalent headache
2) Bilateral headaches
3) Often occurs daily
4) Characterized as “vice-like” in nature
5) Often exacerbated by emotional stress, fatigue, noise, glare
6) May be associated with hypertonicity of neck muscles.

A

Tension Headaches

36
Q

What is it if pt presents with this
Ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis

A

Horner syndrome

37
Q

what headache
1) Usually affects middle aged men but can also affect women
2) Intense unilateral pain that starts around the temple or eye
3) Patients is often restless and agitated due to the pain
4) Episodes often occur 15 minutes to 3 hours
5) Usually occur seasonally and attacks are grouped together

A

cluster

38
Q

Mainline tx for cluster headache

A

Inhaled 100% oxygen for 15 minutes is initial treatment of choice

39
Q

what dose of Sumatriptan can you give for cluster

A

Dose: SubQ Initial: 6 mg; may repeat if needed ≥1 hour after initial dose
(maximum: 6 mg per dose; two 6 mg injections per 24-hour period)

40
Q

for your migraine opt if nsiads didn’t work what would you give your pt

A

sumatriptan or zolmitriptan

41
Q

what type of headache is experienced a few days after injury

A

post traumatic headache

42
Q

pt reports with chronic headaches but has always been using nsaids

A

med overuse headache

43
Q

what type is formerly known as complex partial seizure

A

Focal seizure with impaired awareness

44
Q

what type is formerly known as simple partial seizure

A

Focal seizure with retained awareness

45
Q

What sezure is the most common type of generalized seizure and lasts 1-2 min

A

tonic clonic grandmal

46
Q

what is also known as Absence seizure

A

petit mal

47
Q

Treatment for active seizure

A

Diazepam 5 mg IV/IM Q5-10 minutes; do not exceed 30 mg

48
Q

Definition: Single seizure lasting more than or equal to 5 minutes or 2 or more seizure between which there is an incomplete recovery of consciousness

A

Status eplilepticus (EMERGENCY)

49
Q

what are the two major branches of the internal carotid

A

1) Anterior cerebral artery (ACA)
2) Middle cerebral artery (MCA)

50
Q

pt comes to you with stroke like symptoms that disapear when they see you

A

TIA

51
Q

3 subtypes of Ischemic Stroke

A

Systemic hypoperfusion
Embolic
Thrombotic

52
Q

way to determine the difference between TIA or CVA

A

MRI

53
Q

UNLESS pressure is above systolic of ___ and/or diastolic of in which case you should lower the pressure by 15%

A

220
120

54
Q

what do you use to lower BP

A

Labetalol

55
Q

how would you treat a TIA

A

aspirin after talking to MO

56
Q

Initial interventions for ischemic stroke

A

Maintain oxygenation > 94%
Elevate head of bed to ~30 degree

57
Q

DDX for RLS

A

Volitional movements
Akathisia:
Nocturnal leg cramps

58
Q

if Glasgow score Less than 8,

A

intubate

59
Q

(in which episodes of deep breathing alternate with
periods of apnea) may occur with bi-hemispheric or diencephalic disease or in
metabolic disorders.

A

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

60
Q

______hyperventilation occurs with lesions of the brainstem tegmentum.

A

Central neurogenic

61
Q

_______ breathing (in which there are prominent end-inspiratory pauses) suggests damage at the pontine level

A

Apneustic breathing

62
Q

breathing (a completely irregular pattern of breathing with deep and shallow breaths occurring randomly) is associated with lesions of the lower
pontine tegmentum and medulla.

A

Atactic breathing

63
Q

What is it called when injury will be present at site of impact as well as opposite side from rebound
motion

A

Coup-contrecoup

64
Q

Bleed between dura mater and skull

A

Epidural hematoma

65
Q

bleed between dura mater and arachnoid mater

A

Subdural hematoma

66
Q

Middle meningeal artery commonly causes this bleed

A

Epidermal Hemorrhage

67
Q

Most common Intercrainial bleed at 20%

A

Subdural hemorrhage

68
Q

__________ subdural hematoma presents 1-2 days after onset

A

accute

69
Q

_______subdural hematoma presents 15 days or more after onset

A

Chronic

70
Q

if pt complains of perianal numbness what should you expect

A

cauda equina

71
Q

is first muscle relaxants first line tx for spinal injury

A

no

72
Q

First-line treatments for radiculopathy include:

A

modified activities; NSAIDs and other analgesics

73
Q

When would you refer a pt for carpal tunnel

A

If symptoms persist more than 3 months despite conservative treatment, including the use of a wrist splint OR if thenar muscle weakness or atrophy develops.

74
Q

Bells palsy vs stroke
In a stroke, there is NO

A

paralysis of the forehead

75
Q

traid for meningitis

A

(a) Fever
(b) Nuchal rigidity
(c) Change in mental status

76
Q

Meningitis vs encephalitis
In meningitis cerebral function usually____

A

remains normal

77
Q

____ is characterized by what we traditionally recognize as a pain that is caused by a noxious stimuli

A

Nociceptive pain

78
Q

____ pain is most commonly described as tingling, pins and needles, burning, shooting electric like shocks

A

Neuropathic pain

79
Q

Medications that inhibit pain transmission

A

1) Tylenol
2) NSAID
3) Capsaicin

80
Q

Medications that inhibit descending pain modulation

A

1) Gabapentin
2) Tricyclic antidepressants
3) SNRIs

81
Q

Tx short term insomnia

A

Educate and reassurance may be all that is needed

82
Q

What type of vertigo
Onset is gradual; no associated auditory symptoms; often presents with other neurologic signs and symptoms like ataxia, dysarthria, dysphagia, focal or
lateralized weakness

A

Central:

83
Q

What type of vertigo
Onset is sudden; often associated with tinnitus and hearing loss; horizontal nystagmus may be present.

A

Peripheral

84
Q

For evaluating vertigo what PE test is used

A

Dix-Hallpike testing