Retirement Planning Quiz 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Parrish Products would like to implement a retirement plan for its employees. The company has over 2,000 employees and would like to help them save for their retirement. The company chairman, Roger Parrish, is concerned about the administrative costs of the plan. He was recently informed by one of his colleagues that certain types of retirement plans are required to provide annuities to the participants and their beneficiaries. Which of the following qualified plans must provide qualified joint and survivor annuities (QJSAs) and qualified preretirement survivor annuities (QPSAs)?

  1. SEP plans.
  2. Target benefit pension plan.
  3. Profit-sharing plan.
  4. Traditional defined benefit pension plan.
A

2 and 4

SEP plans and profit-sharing plans do not have to provide for preretirement or postretirement joint and survivor annuities because they are not pension plans. Profit-sharing plans pay nonforfeitable balances to surviving spouses as an alternative provision to preretirement and postretirement joint and survivor annuities.

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2
Q

Peak Inc., a C corporation, has three employees: Paul (age 50), Kristi (age 25), and Rachel (age 25). Paul owns 60% of the Peak stock, and Rachel and Kristi each own 20%. This is a new venture, but cash flows are expected to be relatively stable. The retirement planning objective of the company is to design a qualified retirement plan that provides the maximum contribution to Paul with minimum plan costs and some flexibility in terms of cash commitment. The total annual profit-sharing contributions will be $40,000. Annual salaries: Paul: $100,000; Rachel: $30,000; Kristi: $30,000; total: $160,000. Which of the following qualified plans best meets the above objective?

A)
Combined 10% money-purchase pension and an age-based 15% profit-sharing plan.
 B)
Traditional defined benefit pension plan.
 C)
Money purchase pension plan.
 D)
Age-based profit-sharing plan.
A

D

From the age-weighted profit-sharing plan, Paul will receive a greater share because of his income and age. Money purchase pension plans will not provide this advantage to Paul. Traditional defined benefit pension plans require annual mandatory funding.

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3
Q

John terminated his employment with ABC Manufacturing, Inc. As a result, he received a lump-sum distribution from the company’s employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) in the form of 2,500 shares of ABC stock. The market value at the time of distribution was $125,000. The cost basis of the stock when contributed to the plan on John’s behalf was $100,000. Two years later, John sold the stock for $150,000. What is the amount of capital gain on which John will be taxed because of the sale?

A)
$50,000.
 B)
$28,000.
 C)
$10,000.
 D)
$25,000.
A

A

At the time of the lump-sum distribution, John had ordinary income of $100,000 from the distribution, which becomes his basis in the stock. He has $25,000 of NUA at the time of the distribution, which is taxed as LTCG upon the sale. He has an additional $25,000 gain from the time of the lump-sum distribution to the time of the sale. This gain is also LTCG because he held the stock 2 years from the time of the lump-sum distribution. His total LTCG is $50,000.

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4
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of a Roth IRA?

  1. Qualified distributions are tax free.
  2. Contributions are not tax deductible.
  3. Maximum annual contributions are generally $11,000.
  4. Contributions are tax deductible.
A

1 and 2

Taxpayers may not deduct Roth IRA contributions from their current taxable income; however, qualified distributions are received tax free by the owner. The maximum annual contribution to a Roth IRA is $5,500 (2017) or $6,500 for taxpayers over age 50.

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5
Q

Bonnie, age 45, has a Roth IRA she established at age 35 and a qualified tuition plan (QTP) under Section 529. She has previously contributed $8,000 to the Roth IRA. Three years ago, she converted $20,000 from a traditional IRA to a Roth IRA. Her Roth IRAs have a combined balance of $35,000. There is another $35,000 in the QTP. If the entire $70,000 were distributed today to pay for her son’s college tuition, which of the following is CORRECT?
A)
The entire distribution of $70,000 will be tax free.
B)
The QTP distribution is taxable, but no penalty is applied.
C)
A portion of the Roth distribution is subject to regular income tax but the QTP distribution is tax free.
D)
A portion of the Roth distribution will incur a 10% early withdrawal penalty.

A

C

While Bonnie has satisfied the 5-year holding period requirement, the distribution is nonqualified because the distribution is not attributed to attainment of age 59½, death, disability, or first time home purchase. The portion of the distribution attributable to earnings is subject to regular income tax. None of the Roth distribution will incur a 10% penalty because the funds are being used to pay for higher education for her son. The QTP distribution is tax and penalty free.

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6
Q
Julian is an employee of The Specialty Shop in Boca where he has a salary of $30,000 in the current year. In addition, his ex-wife pays him alimony of $18,000 per year. Julian has contributed $6,000 to his Section 401(k) plan this year, and the employer has matched with a $1,500 contribution. Julian's checking account paid interest of $4,000, and he had capital gains of $5,000. A few years ago, Julian inherited a small apartment complex called The Fountains which he manages. The property generated a loss of $21,000. On the advice of one of his friends, Julian contributed $1,000 to a Roth IRA and $1,000 to a traditional IRA. How much of the IRA contribution can he deduct?
A)
$250.
 B)
$1,000.
 C)
$500.
 D)
$0.
A

B

Taxpayers who are active participants in an employer-sponsored retirement plan may still make deductible contributions to a traditional IRA as long as MAGI is below the phaseout limits (for 2017: $62,000−$72,000 for single, $99,000−$119,000 for MFJ).

Salary	$30,000
Section 401(k) plan	−6,000
Alimony	18,000
Interest	4,000
Capital gain	5,000
Real estate	    −21,000
MAGI	$30,000
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7
Q

Ryan, age 38, earns a salary of $75,000 working for Gretna Co., an electrical contracting company. He has been working for Gretna Co. for 10 years and is a participant in the company’s Section 401(k) plan, which has an employer match. Which of the following statements is(are) CORRECT?

  1. ERISA rules do not allow loans from the Gretna Co. plan.
  2. A 5-year cliff vesting schedule is allowed for Gretna Co.’s matching contributions.
  3. The maximum amount that can be contributed by Ryan in 2017 is $18,000.
  4. Ryan’s contributions are subject to FICA and FUTA but not federal income tax.
A

3 and 4

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Section 72, loans are allowed from Section 401(k) plans. Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 401(k) plan employer-matching contributions must vest at least as rapidly as a 3-year cliff vesting or a 2-to-6-year graded vesting schedule. Statement 3 is correct. The maximum elective deferral Ryan may make in 2017 is $18,000. Statement 4 is correct for Ryan. The worker’s contribution is subject to FICA and FUTA.

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8
Q

In 2017, Benjamin, age 45, worked for both RST Company and XYZ Enterprises, which are not part of a controlled group. Both companies offer a profit-sharing plan. He earned $200,000 from RST Company and $250,000 from XYZ Enterprises in 2017. Forfeitures allocated to Benjamin under the XYZ Company plan were $4,000 for the year. What are the total additional employer contributions that can be made on behalf of Benjamin in 2017?

A)
$104,000.
 B)
$18,000.
 C)
$108,000.
 D)
$54,000.
A

A

For 2017, the maximum that RST can contribute for Benjamin is $54,000. XYZ can also contribute a maximum additional amount of $50,000 ($54,000 maximum − $4,000 forfeiture). Because the 2 companies are not part of a controlled group, each company can contribute the maximum annual additions limit. The total additional amount is $104,000. Benjamin, on the other hand, is limited to total retirement plan contributions of $18,000 of pre-tax or Roth elective deferrals with these two companies.

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9
Q

Michael Jones is 71 years old (life expectancy 26.5 years based on the uniform distribution table) and must now begin receiving IRA required minimum distributions. As of December 31st of the previous year, his IRA accounts were valued as follows:

IRA 1
$25,000

IRA 2
$14,000

IRA 3
$8,000

IRA 4
$46,000

IRA 5
$17,000

Calculate the amount Mr. Jones should receive as his first required minimum distribution (rounded to the nearest dollar).

A)
$11,000.
 B)
$4,151.
 C)
$7,593.
 D)
$7,190.
A

B

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10
Q

Al is a participant in the ANB Money Purchase Pension Plan. Under the plan’s integration formula, 5% is contributed for compensation below the integration level which is set at the Social Security taxable wage base and 10% for compensation above the integration level. What amount will ANB contribute for Al, if his salary is $95,000?

A)
$4,750.
 B)
$9,500.
 C)
$4,500.
 D)
$5,925.
A

A

Al’s compensation is below the Social Security taxable wage base of $127,200 (2017), so the contribution on his behalf is 5% x $95,000 = $4,750.

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11
Q

ABC Corporation is trying to set up a qualified retirement plan and has established the following criteria: simplicity, must be able to be integrated with Social Security, funding flexibility, ability to invest in company stock is unrestricted, employees can make in-service withdrawals, and distribution of benefits can be in the form of cash (ABC can deduct value of any stock contributed to plan.) Which of the following types of qualified plans would meet ABC’s criteria?

  1. ESOP.
  2. Stock bonus plan.
  3. Cash balance pension plan.
  4. Money purchase pension plan.
A

2 only

Stock bonus plan is correct. An ESOP cannot be integrated with Social Security. Money purchase and cash balance pension plans cannot invest an unrestricted amount in company stock and do not have funding flexibility.

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12
Q

Which of the following are benefits of profit-sharing plans over a simplified employee pension plan?

  1. Profit-sharing plans can allow loans.
  2. Profit-sharing plans allow the participant to elect 5-year averaging on qualifying lump sum distributions.
  3. A profit-sharing plan can be established after the close of the employer-sponsor’s tax year.
  4. Profit-sharing plans can invest in life insurance.
A

1 and 4

Profit-sharing plans can have loan provisions. SEP plans do not permit loans. Five-year averaging is not available. A profit-sharing plan must be established before the close of the tax year. Note that a SEP plan can be established by the tax return due date. Qualified plans can invest in life insurance. SEP plans do not permit life insurance.

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13
Q

Rob Smith is 54 years old and is the owner of Rob’s Famous Wings, a successful chicken wing restaurant with over 4,000 restaurants nationwide. Rob’s company is privately held and Rob owns 95% of the company’s stock. Rob wants to establish a retirement plan for his employees. His goals are to provide adequate retirement benefits to his employees, have some flexibility in the amount of contributions he makes each year and, if possible, sell some of the stock he owns. Which of the following retirement plans would you recommend for Rob’s company?

A)
Cash balance pension plan.
 B)
ESOP.
 C)
Money purchase pension plan.
 D)
SIMPLE IRA.
A

B

An ESOP is a profit-sharing plan that allows for flexible contributions by the employer each year. A cash balance pension plan is a defined benefit plan, which does not give the employer any flexibility regarding making annual contributions. Likewise, a money purchase pension plan does not give the employer flexibility as to the annual contributions, because the contribution percentage is stated in the plan and is mandatory. Finally, a SIMPLE IRA will not allow Rob to sell shares to his retirement plan, unlike an ESOP where a market is created for the company’s stock.

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14
Q

Abby, owner of ARD Co., would like to provide her employees with a simplified employee pension (SEP) plan. ARD Co. also sponsors a SERP for its executives. Which of the following statements is(are) CORRECT?

  1. To implement a SEP plan, ARD Co. must be a C corporation.
  2. The SEP plan can limit coverage to all full-time employees who are at least 21 years of age.
  3. Contributions to the SEP are not subject to FICA and FUTA.
  4. Contributions to the SERP reduce the amount that can be deducted for contributions to the SEP plan.
A

3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect. SEP plans may be established by C corporations, S corporations, partnerships, and sole proprietorships. Statement 2 is incorrect. SEP plans must also cover all employees (including part time) who are at least 21 years of age, who have worked for the employer during 3 out of the preceding 5 calendar years, and who have had compensation of at least $600 (for 2017). Statement 3 is correct. Direct employer contributions are not subject to FICA and FUTA. Statement 4 is incorrect. Contributions to a SERP, which is a nonqualified plan, are not taken into account when calculating maximum deductible SEP plan contributions.

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15
Q

Jim and Jan, both age 34, are married and file a joint tax return. Jan has made a $5,500 contribution to her traditional IRA account and has made a contribution of $2,000 to their son’s Coverdell Education Savings Account for the same year. Ignoring AGI limitations, what is the most that can be contributed to a Roth IRA for Jim or Jan for 2017?

A)
$10,000.
 B)
$0.
 C)
$5,500.
 D)
$3,000.
A

C

The maximum combined contribution to traditional and Roth IRAs is $5,500 per person (who has not attained age 50) for 2017. Therefore, Jim and Jan have a total of $11,000 to allocate between traditional and Roth IRAs. Jan has already contributed the maximum amount to her IRA; however, Jim could still contribute $5,500 for himself. The Coverdell Education Savings Account is not included in the $5,500 IRA limit.

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16
Q

Which of the following statements describes a disadvantage of a target benefit pension plan, compared with a traditional defined benefit pension plan?

A)
Contributions to a target benefit pension plan are subject to the annual additions limit of the Internal Revenue Code.
B)
A target benefit pension plan will always have less stringent vesting requirements than does a traditional defined benefit pension plan.
C)
For a given compensation level, a target benefit pension plan requires the same contribution for all employees regardless of age.
D)
A target benefit pension plan must cover all eligible employees, whereas a traditional defined benefit pension plan can exclude certain nonhighly compensated employees.

A

A

Target benefit pension plans are defined contribution plans and are subject to the $54,000 (for 2017) annual additions limit per employee. Traditional defined benefit pension plans are not subject to this limit; employer contributions to traditional defined benefit pension plans can be much higher. Target benefit pension plans favor older participants. Employer contributions are weighted according a participant’s age. Both target benefit pension plans and traditional defined benefit pension plans are qualified plans. Under ERISA, employers can exclude a certain percentage of nonhighly compensated employees from coverage under both the traditional defined benefit pension and target benefit pension plans. Target benefit pension plans are a type of defined contribution pension plan and must use one of the accelerated vesting schedules for employer contributions while traditional defined benefit pension plans that are not top heavy may use either 5-year cliff or 3-to-7-year graded vesting schedules.

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17
Q

Benny, who is 51 and single, has $98,000 in modified adjusted gross income in 2017. What is the maximum amount that Benny can contribute to his Roth IRA for 2017?

A)
$5,000.
 B)
$4,500.
 C)
$6,500.
 D)
$0.
A

C

Benny’s modified AGI is below the phaseout limits for single taxpayers for 2017 ($118,000 - $133,000). Thus, the maximum regular contribution for 2017 to the Roth IRA is $5,500. However, the catch-up provision for individuals who have attained age 50 permits an additional contribution of $1,000 for 2017. Therefore, Benny’s maximum contribution for 2017 is $6,500 ($5,500 + $1,000).

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18
Q
Dixon, Inc. is interested in establishing a qualified retirement plan. The primary motivation is to reward long-time and key employees, encourage employee retention, and attract new employees. Dixon, Inc. has a total of 60 full-time nonkey employees ranging in age from 21 to 42, with an average of 3 years of service. There are 5 key employees ages 40 to 51, all of whom have been with the company over 10 years and have average salaries exceeding $75,000. The company is very profitable and has substantial cash flow, however, it would like some degree of flexibility and discretion with the contributions each year. Which of the following plans would be most appropriate?
A)
Money purchase pension plan.
 B)
Target benefit pension plan.
 C)
Profit-sharing plan.
 D)
Traditional defined benefit pension plan.
A

C

Because the company would like some flexibility and discretion with regard to annual contributions, a profit-sharing plan would be appropriate. All of the other plans require annual funding. In addition, they may want to consider integrating the plan with Social Security in order to benefit the key employees with higher salaries.

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19
Q

Sabrio Financial Group sponsors a Section 401(k) plan in which the nonhighly compensated employee group defers an average of 5% of compensation. If Jay, age 48, is the only highly compensated employee and he earns $118,000, what is his maximum allowable elective deferral contribution in 2017 to this Section 401(k) plan assuming Jay’s contribution is equal to the maximum ADP allowable for the HCE group?

A)
$5,900.
 B)
$12,000.
 C)
$8,260.
 D)
$18,000.
A

C

Because the ADP for the nonhighly compensated employee group equals 5%, the maximum ADP for the highly compensated group cannot be more than 7% (5% + 2%). Therefore, Jay’s maximum elective deferral contribution is $8,260 ($118,000 × 7%) for 2017. Employees who have attained age 50 by the close of the tax year are eligible to make an additional elective deferral catch-up contribution. This catch-up contribution is not subject to the ADP test or annual additions limit.

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20
Q

XYZ Inc., a for-profit company, has 80 employees this year and is expected to employ the same number next year. The company is considering the adoption of a retirement plan next year. The company’s objectives are to use elective deferral contributions of employees and then contribute an appropriate employer match providing for immediate vesting. Which of the following plans would be appropriate for XYZ Inc.?

  1. SARSEP.
  2. Section 403(b) plan.
  3. SIMPLE 401(k).
  4. SIMPLE IRA.
A

3 and 4

New SARSEPs can no longer be established. Section 403(b) plans are for not-for-profit organization under Section 501(c)(3), and there is no indication that XYZ Inc. is a tax-exempt organization. Either a SIMPLE 401(k) or SIMPLE IRA is appropriate for the company.

21
Q

Bob turned age 70 in April of the current year. As of January 1 of the current year, Bob had a cumulative IRA balance of $450,000. According to the uniform distribution table, his distribution period for the current year is 27.4 years. If Bob receives a distribution of $15,000 from his IRA on December 31 of the current year, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A)
Bob will not have a penalty for the current year, but he will need to withdraw the balance of his minimum distribution for the current year by April 1 of next year.
B)
Bob is not subject to the minimum distribution rules.
C)
Bob will incur a penalty because he failed to take the full required minimum distribution by December 31 of the current year.
D)
Bob’s distribution of $15,000 is sufficient to meet the minimum distribution requirements.
Explanation

A

A

Bob turned age 70½ in the current year and is therefore required to begin minimum distributions. His required annual distribution for the current year is $16,423 ($450,000 ÷ 27.4). However, he is permitted to take the minimum distribution for this year by April 1 of the year following the year in which he turns age 70½. Therefore, regardless of the distribution that was made by December 31 of the current year, Bob is not subject to any penalties for the current year. Next year, he will effectively have two RMD amounts: the $1,423 needed to finish off this year must be taken by April 1 of next year and then he needs to also take next year’s full RMD by Dec 31 of next year.

22
Q
A nonowner employee of ABC Corporation turned age 70 on July 30 of Year 1. He continued to work until he retired on February 5 of Year 5. What is his required beginning date for minimum distributions from his qualified plan?
A)
April 1, Year 2.
 B)
April 1, Year 6.
 C)
April 1, Year 3.
 D)
April 1, Year 5.
A

B

Because the employee is not a greater than 5% owner of the corporation, he can delay his required beginning date to April 1 of the year following the later of the year in which he turned age 70½ or the year he retired, which in this case is April 1 of Year 6. This provision only applies to the plan of the employer with whom he remains employed.

23
Q

Naomi is self-employed. Which of the following restrictions would prohibit Naomi from borrowing against the firm’s retirement plan?

  1. Naomi is a sole proprietor.
  2. Naomi is a greater than 10% partner.
  3. Naomi is a greater than 5% S corporation owner.
  4. Naomi’s retirement plan is a SEP.
A

4 only

A SEP plan is funded through an IRA. IRAs do not permit loans.

24
Q

Dixon, Inc. is interested in establishing a qualified retirement plan. The primary motivation is to reward long-time and key employees, encourage employee retention, and attract new employees. Dixon, Inc. has a total of 60 full-time nonkey employees ranging in age from 21 to 42, with an average of three years of service. There are 5 key employees ages 40 to 51, all of whom have been with the company over 10 years and have salaries exceeding $95,000. The company is very profitable and has substantial cash flow; however, it would like some degree of flexibility and discretion with the contributions each year. Based on this information, what vesting schedule would be most advantageous to Dixon, Inc.?

A)
3-year cliff.
 B)
2-to-6-year graded vesting.
 C)
Immediate.
 D)
3-to-7-year graded vesting.
A

B

Two-to-six year vesting would be most appropriate for this situation because the key employees have over 10 years of service and the nonkey employees have an average service range of 3 years. This would allow the key employees to be immediately vested and will encourage the nonkey employees to remain with the company longer than three years. The retirement plan serves as an incentive to attract new employees in general, but a graded vesting schedule can also be seen as more attractive to new employees in the sense that they get vested in some of the retirement plan sooner. Next, because Dixon, Inc. wants flexibility and discretion with the contributions each year, the company is best served by a defined contribution plan. The longest a defined contributions plan can wait for full vesting is either three year cliff or two-six year graded vesting. In this case, the 2-to-6 year graded schedule is most advantageous to Dixon, Inc. because the average rank and file person stays there three years and thus would be fully vested. By extending the vesting schedule out to six years, the company can expect some forfeitures and the majority of the forfeitures would wind up in the retirement plans of the upper management or could be used to reduce the costs for the company.

25
Q

Gina, age 40, works for Best Place, Inc. She enjoys traveling, and as a result, her cash flow is such that she is living paycheck to paycheck. Twelve years ago, she rolled over a Section 401(k) plan (from a former employer) to a traditional IRA. The IRA balance has grown to $80,000, which represents her only savings. In 2017, she incurred some unexpected medical expenses and was forced to take a $10,000 distribution from her traditional IRA to pay for the expenses. Gina’s adjusted gross income was $100,000, and she has never been an active participant in her current employer’s qualified plan. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A)
The entire $10,000 distribution will be income tax free and not subject to the penalty tax.
B)
The entire $10,000 distribution will be taxed at ordinary income tax rates, but none of the distribution will be subject to the 10% early withdrawal penalty.
C)
The entire $10,000 distribution will be taxed at ordinary income tax rates and will also be subject to a 10% penalty, because Gina is younger than 59½.
D)
A portion of the distribution will be taxed at ordinary income tax rates, and $2,500 of the distribution will also be subject to the 10% early withdrawal penalty.

A

C

The entire distribution is subject to ordinary income tax and the 10% early withdrawal penalty tax because Gina is under age 59½ and her medical expenses do not exceed 10% of her AGI.

26
Q

Tom, age 30, earns $285,000 annually as an employee for Waste Distributors. His employer sponsors a SIMPLE, and provides nonelective contributions to the plan. Tom has participated in the SIMPLE for 2 years. He has a portion of the SIMPLE invested in a CD, with an interest rate of 5%, and the remainder of the plan invested in a large-cap growth mutual fund. What is the maximum contribution (employer and employee) that can be made to Tom’s SIMPLE account in 2017?

A)
$18,000.
 B)
$54,000.
 C)
$17,900.
 D)
$12,500.
A

C

The maximum total contribution is $17,900 ($12,500 employee + $5,400 employer). The maximum employee contribution for 2017 is $12,500. Tom’s employer has chosen to make a nonelective contribution. If his employer chooses a nonelective contribution to the SIMPLE, its required contribution is 2% of annual compensation up to a cap of $270,000 (2017). Therefore, the employer must make a contribution of $5,400 ($270,000 compensation × 2%). The compensation limit that applies to SEP plans and qualified plans also applies to SIMPLE nonelective contributions. However, this compensation limit does not apply to SIMPLE IRA matching contributions. However, the limit does apply to SIMPLE 401(k) matching contributions.

27
Q

On January 15, Derek, age 40, withdrew $50,000 from his traditional IRA. The balance in the IRA was $500,000 before the distribution. Derek made contributions to the IRA of $30,000 over the last 18 years, of which $10,000 were deductible. What is the amount of any early distribution penalty?

A)
$4,800.
 B)
$0.
 C)
$25,000.
 D)
$2,000.
A

A

Before determining the early withdrawal penalty, the taxable portion of the distribution must be determined. Derek made $20,000 of after-tax contributions to the traditional IRA, calculated as follows:

Total contributions to IRA $30,000
Deductible contributions − 10,000
After-tax contributions (basis) $20,000
After-tax contributions into a traditional IRA are recovered pro rata when a distribution occurs. Because Derek distributed 10% of his IRA balance ($50,000 distribution divided by $500,000), 10% of the basis is recovered.

Distribution from IRA $50,000
Basis recovery ($20,000 × 10%) − 2,000
Taxable portion of distribution $48,000
The early withdrawal penalty is $4,800 ($48,000 × 10%).

28
Q

Jacob’s new business has been so successful that he has hired 6 full-time employees. Jacob would like to establish a retirement plan that would allow him to save for his retirement. In addition, he would like for his employees to be able to contribute to the plan on a pretax basis. Jacob is willing to contribute company funds to the employees’ retirement plans but would like to minimize the administrative costs of establishing and maintaining the plan. Which plan would be the most appropriate for Jacob’s business?

A)
Traditional defined benefit pension plan.
 B)
SIMPLE IRA.
 C)
Money purchase pension plan.
 D)
Section 401(k) plan.
A

B

A money purchase pension plan has higher administrative costs because it is a qualified plan. Also the money purchase plan is funded by employer contributions. A defined benefit plan is funded exclusively with employer contributions and has higher administrative costs because it requires an actuary and is a qualified plan. A SIMPLE IRA would allow the employees to make salary reduction contributions to their own accounts and also would allow for matching or nonelective contributions by the company. Of the choices provided, the SIMPLE IRA is the least expensive plan to establish and maintain. A Section 401(k) plan, even one meeting the safe harbor rules, requires significant administrative costs.

29
Q

Which of the following could be classified as a highly compensated employee for 2017? Assume no special elections were made by the employer-sponsor for their retirement plans.

  1. John, a 1% owner, who earned $150,000 in the previous year.
  2. Bill, a 6% owner, who earned $28,000 in the previous year.
  3. Mary, an officer who earned $130,000 in the previous year, and who is the 25th highest paid employee of 100 employees.
  4. Maria, who earned $70,000 in the previous year, and is in the top 20% of paid employees.
  5. Anna, who earned $84,000 in the previous year, and is in the top 20% of paid employees.
A

1, 2, and 3

Employees 1, 2, and 3 are highly compensated. For 2017, an HCE is anyone who is a greater than 5% owner or anyone who received in excess of $120,000 in compensation during the previous year (2016). Because the law includes a look-back provision, employees who earned more than $120,000 in 2016 are generally considered HCEs for 2017 plan year testing.

30
Q

Janice has owned her own company for 25 years. She is now 54 and wishes to retire at 64. She currently employs 5 people, all between the ages of 24 and 33. If Janice wanted to establish a retirement plan with the highest benefit for her, assuming the company has adequate cash flow, what is the most appropriate plan?

A)
Traditional defined benefit pension plan.
 B)
Money purchase pension plan.
 C)
Age-based profit-sharing plan.
 D)
Cash balance pension plan.
A

A

A defined benefit pension plan is the best choice because a traditional defined benefit pension plan favors older participants and would allow the maximum contribution for Janice. This plan is especially appropriate because the company has adequate cash flow.

The other plans are incorrect because:

A cash balance pension plan does not favor older participants. Janice is age 54 and wants to retire in 10 years.
Money purchase pension plans do not favor older participants with larger annual contributions than a similarly compensated younger participant.
Although an age-based profit-sharing plan will favor older participants, it is still a defined contribution plan and would be subject to annual additions limits. A traditional defined benefit pension plan will allow for a larger contribution for Janice. An age-based profit-sharing plan would only be appropriate if the company had unstable cash flows.

31
Q

Jonathan, now age 42, established a Roth IRA in October 2010 with an initial $2,000 contribution. He also contributed $2,000 in May 2011. His account balance is currently $6,000. If he makes a withdrawal of $5,000 from the Roth IRA, how will the distribution be taxed?

A)
$1,000 as ordinary income.
 B)
$1,000 as capital gains.
 C)
$4,000 as ordinary income.
 D)
$5,000 as ordinary income.
A

A

First, determine if this is a qualified withdrawal. The first contribution was for 2010. Thus, any withdrawal after 2014 (taken in 2015 or later) meets the five year rule. Next, is he 59 1/2 or older? No. Is he dead or disabled? No. Is this for up to $10,000 for buying, building, or rebuilding a first time home? No. Thus, this is not a qualified distribution. A nonqualified distribution from a Roth IRA that is comprised of annual contributions is taxed on a FIFO (first in, first out) basis. That is, a distribution is treated first as a return of basis (tax free), until the total basis amount has been exceeded. In this case, Jonathan contributed $4,000 thus the first $4,000 of his distribution is considered a return of basis, or contributions, and the $1,000 is considered earnings. The earnings are subject to ordinary income tax. Although not asked for in this question, Jonathan will also have to pay a 10% penalty on the $1,000 taxable withdrawal because none of the exceptions to the 10% early withdrawal penalty is mentioned and he is under age 59½.

32
Q

James and Donna are married and file a joint return. Their AGI in 2017 is $170,000, and James is covered by his employer’s pension plan. James and Donna earned interest of $5,000 in 2017 on their joint savings account. Donna is not employed, and the couple has no other income. On April 15, 2018, James contributes $5,500 to a traditional IRA for himself and $5,500 to a traditional IRA for Donna for 2017. The maximum allowable IRA deduction on their 2017 joint return is:

A)
$11,000.
 B)
$5,500.
 C)
$0.
 D)
$5,000.
A

B

When one MFJ spouse is an active participant and one is not an active participant, two separate phase-out limits apply for IRA deductibility. The non-active participant phaseout is $186,000 - $196,000 (2017) and the active participant phaseout is $99,000 - $119,000 (2017). Because their AGI is less than the lower end of the phaseout range for the non-active participant spouse, Donna’s IRA contribution is deductible but James’ contribution is not deductible. While Donna does not have earned income, a spousal IRA may be established based on James’ income.

33
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the 10% penalty tax for early withdrawal (age 59½) from an IRA is(are) CORRECT?

  1. Termination of employment at age 55 or older will exempt distributions from the penalty tax.
  2. Distributions used to pay medical expenses in excess of the 10% AGI threshold for a tax filer, age 50, are not exempt from the penalty.
  3. Distributions that are part of a series of equal periodic payments paid over the life or life expectancy of the participant are exempt from the penalty, provided the participant has separated from service with the employer.
  4. Distributions that are part of a series of equal periodic payments paid over the life or life expectancy of the participant are exempt, regardless of the participant’s employment status.
A

4 only

Only statement 4 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. The separation from service after attaining age 55 exception is available only for qualified plans and Section 403(b) plans, not IRAs. Statement 2 is incorrect. The portion of a distribution from an IRA to pay for medical expenses over the 10% of AGI floor for a taxpayer, age 50, is not subject to the 10%. Statement 3 is incorrect. Separation from service is not required.

34
Q

How is an age-weighted profit-sharing plan similar to a traditional defined benefit pension plan?
A)
Employer contributions are flexible from one year to another and, if resources are not available, the employer may choose not to contribute to the plan.
B)
Minimum vesting schedules are more liberal than in other types of plans.
C)
Contribution allocations to older participants may be maximized, while allocations to younger participants may be minimized.
D)
Retirement benefits are determined by the participant’s final account balance.

A

C

Contribution formulas for both age-weighted profit-sharing plans and defined benefit pension plans favor older employees. Retirement benefits are determined by the participant’s final account balance in defined contribution plans. Employer contributions can be flexible in an age-weighted profit-sharing plan, but not in a defined benefit pension plan. Vesting is not more liberal in these plans than in other types of plans.

35
Q

Which of the following statements regarding loans from qualified plans are CORRECT?

  1. Loans must bear reasonable rates of interest.
  2. Generally, loans are repayable within 5 years.
  3. Loans used to acquire a personal residence may exceed 5 years.
  4. Absent any other applicable restrictions, a loan of up to $10,000 may be made, even if it is greater than one-half of the participant’s vested plan balance.
A

all are correct

All of these statements regarding loans are correct. A participant who has an account balance of between $10,000 and $20,000, may borrow up to $10,000 even if the $10,000 exceeds 50% of the participant’s plan balance. In fact, when the vested balance is below $10,000, the entire vested balance is available for a loan (assuming this is the first loan).

36
Q

Which of the following statements regarding in-service withdrawals is NOT correct?
A)
Pension plans generally prohibit in-service withdrawals (except for participants age 62 and older).
B)
An in-service withdrawal is not subject to current taxation.
C)
Profit-sharing, stock bonus, and employee stock ownership plans may be designed to permit employees to make in-service withdrawals after funds have been in the client’s account for two years or after five years of participation.
D)
Section 401(k) and Section 403(b) plans may be designed to allow in-service withdrawals if the employee has a financial hardship.

A

B

An in-service withdrawal is subject to current taxation and, possibly, an additional 10% penalty. All other statements are correct. Additionally, IRAs, Roth IRAs, SEP plans and SIMPLEs allow withdrawals with no plan restrictions.

37
Q

Defined benefit pension plans:

  1. Provide less retirement income than defined contribution plans.
  2. Place the burden of investment risk on the employer.
  3. Provide guaranteed benefit levels.
  4. Can be used with defined contribution plans to significantly increase the employee’s maximum annual contributions.
A

2 and 3

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Defined benefit pension plans usually provide more retirement income than defined contribution plans because defined benefit pension plans can fund for past service. Employee contributions are not typically affected by defined benefit pension plans, as the employer makes the contributions to the plan. Retirement benefits, on the other hand, may be enhanced for participants of defined benefit pension plans and defined contribution plans.

38
Q

Under a profit-sharing plan:
A)
the company has flexibility as to annual funding.
B)
the company must make annual contributions.
C)
up to 25% of the plan’s assets can be invested in the employer’s stock.
D)
the employer bears investment risk.

A

A

The company has funding flexibility. Pension plans can invest only up to 10% of plan assets in employer stock. Profit-sharing plans have no restrictions regarding investment in employer stock. The employer may deduct a contribution limited to only 25% of participating employees’ covered compensation. They must make substantial and recurring employer contributions, or the IRS will remove the plan’s qualified status. The employee bears investment risk.

39
Q

Which of the following retirement plans can a sole proprietorship implement?

  1. Tax sheltered annuity (TSA).
  2. Defined benefit pension plan.
  3. Money purchase pension plan.
  4. Profit-sharing plan.
A

2, 3, and 4

Only plan 1 is not available to sole proprietorships. A sole proprietorship cannot set up a TSA plan because a TSA plan is designed for nonprofit organizations. In addition to these plans, SIMPLEs, SEP, nonqualified deferred compensation, and target benefit pension plans can be adopted by sole proprietorships.

40
Q
Ross, age 75, works for Financial Strategies, Inc. The company has a long-established retirement plan. The plan does not require an actuary or PBGC insurance, but the employer is required to make annual mandatory contributions to each employee's account. What type of retirement plan was established by Financial Strategies?
A)
Traditional defined benefit pension plan.
 B)
Target benefit pension plan.
 C)
Cash balance pension plan.
 D)
Money purchase pension plan.
A

D

A money purchase pension plan requires annual mandatory employer contributions to each employee’s account, does not require an actuary, and does not require PBGC insurance.

The other choices are incorrect:
A cash balance pension plan requires an actuary and PBGC insurance.
A target benefit pension plan requires an actuary at the inception of the plan.
A traditional defined benefit pension plan requires the services of an actuary annually and PBGC insurance.

41
Q

In all defined contribution plans:

The employer’s plan establishes and maintains an individual account for each plan particpiant.
Annual additions to each employee’s account are limited to the lesser of 100% of compensation or $54,000 (2017).
Older employees will always receive greater benefits.
The retirement benefit is not predetermined.

A

1, 2, and 4

Only statement 3 is incorrect. Benefits in a defined contribution plan are determined by the amounts contributed and the performance of the investments chosen by the plan participant.

42
Q

Which of the following plans allow the excess method of permitted disparity?

  1. Money purchase pension plans.
  2. Defined benefit pension plans.
  3. Employee stock ownership plan (ESOP).
  4. Simplified employee pension (SEP).
A

1, 2, and 4

All plans are allowed to integrate with Social Security except ESOPs, SIMPLEs, and SARSEPs. The excess method is allowed for all plans allowing integration, whereas the offset method is only allowed for defined benefit pension plans.

43
Q

Which of the following statements regarding SEP employee coverage and contribution requirements are CORRECT?

  1. Contributions must be made for all employees who have attained age 21, assuming all other applicable requirements have been met.
  2. Contributions must be made for all employees who received a minimum of $600 of compensation for the year, assuming all other applicable requirements have been met.
  3. All employer contributions to a SEP are immediately 100% vested to the participants.
  4. The plan can exclude employees who are members of collective bargaining units if retirement benefits have been the subject of good faith bargaining.
A

all are correct

44
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the use of the percentage test as a way to determine whether life insurance is an incidental benefit provided by a retirement plan is(are) CORRECT?

  1. Under the percentage test, the maximum percentage of total contributions used to pay for life insurance cannot exceed 25%, regardless of the type of life insurance protection is involved.
  2. Under the percentage test, if term insurance or universal life is involved, the aggregate premiums paid for the policy cannot exceed 25% of the plan contributions for the participant. If a whole life policy is used, however, the aggregate premiums paid for the whole life policy cannot exceed 50% of the plan contributions for the participant.
A

2 only

Statement I is incorrect because the 25% limit applies when term life insurance or universal life insurance is used, while the limit is 50% when whole life insurance is used.

45
Q

The incidental benefit rule provides that term life insurance in a defined benefit pension plan is generally limited to:

A)
a face value equal to 100 times the monthly retirement benefit.
B)
A face value equal to the lesser of 100% of the participant’s covered compensation or $54,000 (2017).
C)
A face value no greater than $270,000 (2017).
D)
A face value no greater than 100 times the annual employer contribution on behalf of the participant.

A

A

The incidental benefit rule for term life insurance in a defined benefit pension plan relates to the death benefit or face value and not to the amount of contribution on the participant’s behalf. The maximum limit is 100 times the monthly retirement benefit. Therefore, if the participant’s monthly retirement benefit is $1,200, the term life insurance death benefit cannot exceed $120,000, without any restriction on premium.

46
Q

John is married to Billie. They have been married for the past 30 years and have 2 minor children. John has recently received an offer from his employer for an early retirement package. One of the plan payout options is a single life annuity. Which of the following statements regarding John’s distribution options is(are) CORRECT?

  1. John can elect a single life annuity without spousal consent.
  2. A single life annuity would provide the largest monthly amount of payout.
  3. To accept a single life annuity, John must inform Billie but does not have to obtain her consent.
  4. To accept a single life annuity, John must obtain a signed, written waiver from Billie witnessed by a notary or plan official.
A

2 and 4

47
Q

A client earns $75,000 as a full-time employee of State University and also earns $100,000 as an independent contractor (consultant) for several local area businesses. The client is covered under the university’s 403(b) plan and makes the maximum salary reduction permissible. If the client would like to shelter from taxation as much consulting income as possible, which of the following would be the most appropriate? (CFP® Certification Examination, released 08/04)
A)
Contributing the maximum allowable amount to a Section 457 plan.
B)
Making the maximum possible contributions permitted each year to a SEP for the consulting business.
C)
Investing up to 20% of the consulting income in tax-free municipal bonds.
D)
Making annual deductible contributions to a SIMPLE IRA.

A

B

A SEP would allow the client to contribute up to 20% (self-employed maximum) of the consulting income to the plan and receive an immediate income tax deduction. The SEP will also provide tax-deferred growth of the investments. Because the client is making the maximum salary reduction permissible to the Section 403(b) plan, he will be precluded from making salary reduction contributions to a SIMPLE IRA. If the client purchased tax-free municipal bonds, the income from the bonds would be tax free, but the client would not receive an income tax deduction when the bonds are purchased. A SEP would provide an immediate income tax deduction. A Section 457 plan is a deferred compensation plan, sponsored by a tax-exempt organization (usually a government organization). The client’s consulting business would not be eligible to establish a Section 457 plan.

48
Q

Joe, age 46, has owned his company for 18 years and wishes to retire at age 70. All of Joe’s employees are older than he is and have an average length of service with the company of 8 years. Joe would like to adopt a qualified retirement plan that would favor him and reward employees who have rendered long service. Joe has selected a traditional defined benefit pension plan with a unit benefit formula. Which of the following statements regarding Joe’s traditional defined benefit pension plan is(are) CORRECT?

  1. Increased profitability would increase both Joe’s and his employees’ pension contributions.
  2. A unit benefit plan formula allows for higher levels of integration than other defined benefit pension plans.
  3. A unit benefit plan formula rewards older employees hired in their 50s or 60s.
  4. A traditional defined benefit pension plan will maximize Joe’s benefits and reward long-term employees based on length of service.
A

4 only

Statement 1 is incorrect. Contributions to traditional defined benefit pension plans are not dependent on the profitability of a company. Statement 2 is incorrect, because a unit benefit plan formula will not allow higher integration levels. Statement 3 is incorrect because a flat percentage formula favors workers with longevity.