Book 5 Page 1 - 53 Flashcards
the most common model used for retirement needs analysis
Pure Annuity Model
true or false?
the pure annuity model determines needs on a pre-tax basis
true
Margie, age 41, currently earns $80k. Her wage replacement ratio is determined to be 80%. She expects inflation to average 3% for her entire life expectancy. Margie expects to earn 10% on her investments and retire at age 62, living possibly until age 90. Her Social Security benefit statement indicates her social security retirement benefit in today’s dollars for early retirement is $12,000 per year. She will make retirement savings contributions at the end of each month.
How much will Margie need by age 62 and how much will she have to save per month from now until retirement (62)?
Step 1:
n = 62 - 41 = 21 I = 3% PV = (80k x 80% - 12k) = $52k PMT = 0 FV = $96,735.32 (first year income needed at retirement)
Step 2: Set to beginning mode n = 90 - 62 = 28 i = (1.1 / 1.03) - 1 x 100% = 6.7961 FV = 0 PMT = $96,735.32 PV = $1,278,954.46 (amount needed by age 62)
Step 3: set back to end mode FV = $1,278,954.46 n = 21 x 12 = 252 i = 10/12 = .833% PV = 0 PMT = $1,502.09 (monthly retirement savings from now until age 62)
maintains the original balance needed at retirement under the pure annuity model for the entire retirement life expectancy
Capital preservation model
maintains the purchasing power of the original pure annuity capital balance at retirement
purchasing power preservation model
what is the biggest difference between the capital preservation model and the purchasing power preservation model?
the purchasing power preservation model uses an inflation adjusted interest rate but the capital preservation model does not
true or false?
a contingent deferred sales charge is considered a commission
true
carries out the administrative duties of the qualified plan system and to lesser extent, the nonqualified plan system
Internal Revenue Service (IRS)
the federal legislation that governs the non tax aspects of retirement plans and other employee benefits
ERISA ( Employee Retirement Income Security Act)
____ is intended to protect retirement interests of plan participants
ERISA
___ established equitable standards and curtailed potential plan participants
ERISA
protects the employees’ right to collect benefits and imposes nondiscrimination and funding requirements
Title I of ERISA
establishes plan qualification requirements for special treatment under the internal revenue code
Title II of ERISA
creates the regulatory and administrative framework for ongoing ERISA implementation
Title III of ERISA
establishes the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation to insure defined benefit plan benefits
Title IV of ERISA
what entities does ERISA require reporting and disclosure of plan information be sent to?
- IRS
- DOL
- PBGC
- Plan Particpants
___ is involved in retirement plans through its Office of Pension and Welfare Benefit Plans
DOL
the ___ ensures compliance with the plan reporting and disclosure rules
DOL
true or false?
a summary plan descriptions is the most significant disclosure requirement under the DOL
true
what is the goal of prohibited transaction rules?
to keep the interest of the plan separate from the sponsoring entity
a federal corporation created by ERISA to insure plan participants against loss of benefit due to the termination of a pension plan
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC)
true or false?
defined benefit and defined contribution plans are both insured by the PBGC
false, only defined benefit plans are insured
what is the maximum amount that PBGC will insure for 2017?
$64,428 (per year)
Professional service employers with ___ or fewer active participants are exempt from PBGC insurance requirements
25
for what reasons can the PBGC terminate a defined benefit plan?
- minimum funding standards are not met
- benefits cannot be paid when due
- the long run liability of the company to the PBGC is expected to increase unreasonably
transactions that are contrary to the interest of plan participants
prohibited transactions
give some examples of prohibited transactions
- sale/exchange/lease of property between the plan and a party in interest
- loan between the plan and any party in interest
- transfer of plan assets to or use of plan assets for the benefit of a party in interest
- acquisition of employer securities or real property in excess of legal limits
- self-dealing
qualified plans must satisfy reporting and disclosure requirements of ___
ERISA
an ERISA report that includes detailed financial information and actuarial information
form 5500
form 5500 is filed with ____
EBSA (employee benefits security administration)
similar to form 5500 but is used for plans that have fewer than 25 participants, are eligible for the small plan audit waiver, hold no employer securities, and have 100% of assets in investments that have a readily determinable FMV
form 5500 - SF
true of false?
form 5500 - EZ covers a business for which leased employees perform services
false
true of false?
form 5500 - EZ covers a business that is part of a controlled group
false
similar to form 5500 and 5500-SF but is used for plans that consist of an individual and their spouse or partners and their spouses
form 5500 - EZ
explains how the plan works, what benefits are available, and how to get the benefits
summary plan description
true or false?
a summary plan description must be provided to all plan participants
true
a new SPD must be issued at least every ___ years
10
a summary of the information on the annual report
summary annual report
true or false?
a summary annual report must be provided to plan participants each year
true
explains changes that occurred to the SPD within the last year
summary of material modification
true or false?
a summary of material modification must be provided to the plan participants each year
false, only as changes happen
defined contribution plans must provide benefit statements at least ____ to participants who direct their own investments and ____ to those who cannot
quarterly ; annually
true or false?
under a qualified plan the employer receives immediate deductibility of all contributions made to the plan
true
true or false?
nonqualified plans are subject to the same ERISA rules as qualified plans
false
true or false?
nonqualified plans are usually discriminatory in favor of highly compensated employees
true
benefits under a nonqualified plan are not taxable as long as there is a _____
substantial risk of forfeiture
true or false?
benefit payments are not deductible by the employer until they are paid
true
pension plans promise either a ____ or ____
benefit or contributions
true or false?
annual funding is not mandatory under a pension plan
false, it is mandatory
true or false?
profit sharing plans require annual funding
false, they do not
defined benefit plans and target benefit plans are tested for discrimination on the basis of ____ as opposed to ____
benefits ; contributions
provide salary continuation through excess benefits or contributions that exceed qualified plan annual addition limits
excess benefit plans
an accounting entry without actual stock ownership
phantom stock plans
gives the right to the monetary equivalent of the increase in the value of shares of stock over a specified period
stock appreciation rights
may be used to provide contributions and benefits in excess of IRC limits for key executives
SERP (supplemental executive retirement plan)
true or false?
employer contributions to qualified plans are subject to payroll taxes
false, they are not
true or false?
if loans are permitted under a qualified plan then the loan is considered a taxable distribution
false
qualified plans are protected from creditors by ____
ERISA
certain small employers are eligible for a tax credit of up to $___ in start-up costs or employee education expenses incurred in connection with the adoption of a qualified plan
$500
a favorable ruling requested from the IRS that the proposed qualified retirement plan provisions meet tax code requirements
Advance determination letter
what is the difference between a master plan and a prototype plan in regards to qualified plans?
a master plan uses only a single financial institution for funding where as a prototype plan usually allows for more funding possibilities
true or false?
a qualified plan is either a pension plan or profit sharing plan
true
true or false?
in service withdrawals from certain pension plans are permitted for employees age 62 or over
true
true or false?
a 401k plan is an example of a profit sharing plan
true
true or false?
an ESOP is an example of a profit sharing plan
true
true or false?
a stock bonus plan is an example of a profit sharing plan
true
pension plans may only hold ___% of the employer’s securities
10%
profit sharing plans may only hold ___% of the employer’s securities
100%
what is the deductible contribution limit for the employer for profit sharing plans?
25% of covered compensation
what is the deductible contribution limit for the employer for defined contribution plans?
25% of covered compensation
what is the deductible contribution limit for the employer for defined benefit plans?
the actual amount determined needed to fund the future promised benefit
under a defined contribution plan the investment risk shifts to the ____
employee
under a defined benefit plan the investment risk shifts to the ____
employer
pension plans that provide a specific benefit to the employee
defined benefit plans
true or false?
defined benefit plans may be costly to administer
true
true or false?
defined contribution plans use an individual account for each employee
true
true or false?
defined benefit plans use an individual account for each employee
false, the funds are commingled in a single account
what type of qualified plans meet the following objective:
to provide a savings medium that employees perceive as valuable
ESOP stock bonus plan profit sharing Thrift plan 401k SEP plan Target Benefit Pension Plan
what type of qualified plans meet the following objective:
to provide adequate replacement income for each employee’s retirement
defined benefit plan
reasons why:
it can provide a benefit based on final average compensation regardless of the employee’s years of service
no investment risk for employee
employer funding for benefit is mandatory
what type of qualified plans meet the following objective:
to weight the allocation of plan contributions to older employees
defined benefit plan
age based profit sharing plan
target benefit pension plans
what type of qualified plans meet the following objective:
to create an incentive for employees to maximize performance for the company
profit sharing plan
ESOP
stock bonus
what type of qualified plans meet the following objective:
to minimize turnover
defined benefit plans that use a graduated vesting schedule
what type of qualified plans meet the following objective:
to encourage early retirement
defined benefit plans
what type of qualified plans meet the following objective:
to provide the employer with maximum contribution flexibility
traditional profit sharing plans
SEP plans
true or false?
a qualified plan must be in writing
true
true or false?
the plan document provides the terms and benefit amounts provided by the plan
true