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Retina > Retina 3 > Flashcards

Retina 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Uveal effusion syndrome

A

reduced transsceral aqueous outflow in posterior chamber resulting in effusions causing ERD. Causes include abnormal scleral composition/thickness, scleritis, idiopathic. Hyperopia is associated as is nanophthalmos.

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2
Q

If BDUMB (bilateral diffuse uveal melanocytic proliferation) is suspected, what is the most likely underlying cause?

A

Systemic cancer of some sort (ovaries, uterus, lung, etc)

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3
Q

Does MCP (multi-focal choroiditis and panuveitis) affect women or men more?

A

women

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4
Q

Chronic scars in MCP may appear like what other ocular condition?

A

OHS

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5
Q

PIC usually occurs in what type of person?

A

Young women with myopia

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6
Q

Acute idiopathic maculopathy

A

-sudden central vision loss proceeded by flu like symptoms-ERD-Bull’s eye pattern RPE atrophy-Nearly complete recovery of vision-idiopathic

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7
Q

What is the initial management of CMV retinitis?

A

IV ganciclovir or foscarnet

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8
Q

Within 1 year of diagnosis of CMV retinitis, how many patients will have an RD?

A

50%

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9
Q

What is a common complication of immune recovery with CMV retinitis?

A

uveitis

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10
Q

Amphotericin B does not penetrate the vitreous well. What would be a suitable alternative for yeast endophthalmitis?

A

Fluconazole penetrates well and would work

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11
Q

What is the most frequent cause of endogenous endophthalmitis in patients who have had a liver transplant?

A

Aspergillus

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12
Q

Acute onset inflammation contiguous with a previous chorioretinal scar is considered pathognomonic with what?

A

Toxoplasmosis

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13
Q

An alternative to triple therapy for toxoplasmosis is what?

A

Bactrim

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14
Q

What is the underlying etiology of DUSN (diffuse unilateral subacute neuroretinitis)

A

subretinal nematode

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15
Q

What is the most common form of color vision deficit?

A

Deuteranomalous affecting 5% of males

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16
Q

What is the most common form of acquired (thus affecting males and females equally) color deficiency?

A

tritanomalous (yellow-blue)

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17
Q

CSNB

A

NAME?

18
Q

In Fundus albipunctatus, is there normal recovery of rhodopsin levels?

A

yes, but it takes hours longer than normal so they are functionally night blind

19
Q

What is a distinguishing ERG finding that differentiates fundus albipunctatus from similar clinical pictures seen with retinitis punctata labescens?

A

Fundus albipunctatus will recover rhodopsin levels eventually but retinitis punctata albescens will not

20
Q

What type of treatment is reasonable to suggest in a patient with RP in a sectoral fashion?

A

UV light protection and anti-oxidant vitamin supplementation; not a bad idea for all RP patients really

21
Q

The infantile or early forms of RP is called what?

A

Leber congenital amaurosis

22
Q

What is key for making a diagnosis of leber congenital amaurosis?

A

ERG (will be markely abnormal or unrecordable)

23
Q

Does hearing loss occur at birth or progress in patients with Usher syndrome?

A

At birth

24
Q

Development of bilateal subfoveal choroidal neovascularization evolving to GA at the age of 40 is characteristic of what? TIMP3 is the mutated gene.

A

Sorsby Macular dystrophy

25
Q

Choroidemia causes atrophy of what part of the eye?

A

RPE and choriocapillaris

26
Q

What is the proposed treatment for Gyrate atrophy?

A

Arginine restriction (very difficult) and Vit b6 supplementation

27
Q

Nystagmus and visual acuity 20/100-200 is more characteristic of true albinism or albinoidism?

A

True albinism, this is because of retinal hypoplasia

28
Q

What two systemic syndromes should be thought of in a child with ocular albinism?

A
  1. Chediak Higashi2. Hermansky-Pudlak
29
Q

Zellweger syndrome is what category of metabolic disease?

A

Peroxisomal disease

30
Q

What is a stage 1A macular hole? Stage 1B?

A

Stage 1A is pseudocyst formation with split within the inner retinal layer and 1B is progression to involve the outer retina. Neither are full thickness.

31
Q

What are associated ocular findings in an eye with anterior PFV?

A

Microophthalmos, elongated ciliary processes, shallow AC

32
Q

Of the 2 main groups of hereditary hyaloideoretinopathies (those with only ocular findings and those with systemic in addition) what are the representative syndromes?

A
  1. Wagner syndrome (only ocular findings of optically empty vitreous2. Stickler Syndrome (has associated systemic findings)
33
Q

What retinal sequelae should warrant consideration for prophylaxis in Stickler syndrome?

A

RD’s, Wagner syndrome does not have increased risk of RD’s

34
Q

What is FEVR similar to clinically? What is different in the history from this similar disease?

A

ROP; normally full term with normal respiratory status

35
Q

Scleroetaria involves rupture of what to layers?

A

retina and choroid

36
Q

Adult onset foveomacular vitelliform dystrophy is often associated with what genetic mutations?

A

RDS/Perpherin

37
Q

Was high BMI found to be a risk factor for CRVO or BRVO in their respective major studies?

A

BRVO; DM was found to be a risk factor for CRVO, no BRVO

38
Q

When should infants meeting criteria for ROP screening (i.e. premature, small birth weight) first be screened?

A

4-6 weeks from birth or between 31st and 33rd week gestation, whichever is LATEST. Most hospitals have these babies screened before they are discharged.

39
Q

What was the major outcome of the TAP (treatment of age-related macular degneration with photodynamic therapy trial)?

A

PDT is better than laser for predominately classic subfoveal CNV.

40
Q

What was the major outcome of the VIP (Verteporfin in PTD therapy)?

A

PDT is recommended for occult (but not classic) CNV with lesion size smaller that 4 MPS DA or baseline VA <20/50

41
Q

The VISION (VEGF inhibition study in ocular vascular neovascularization) was in relation to what anti-VEGF?

A

Macugen

Retina (4 decks)

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