rest of paper 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Alterations to tumour suppressor genes can lead to the development of tumours:

A
  • increased methylation of tumour suppressor genes
  • tumour suppressor genes are not transcribed
  • results in uncontrollable division
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2
Q

What is meant by epigenetics:

A
  • heritable changes in gene function
  • without changes to the base sequence of DNA
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3
Q

Oestrogen binds with…
Methyl groups bind with…
Acetyl groups bind with…

A

protein
DNA
Protein

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4
Q

How increased methylation can lead to cancer:

A
  • methyl groups added to a tumour suppressor gene
  • transcription of tumour suppressor genes is inhibited
  • leading to uncontrolled cell division
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5
Q

one way benign tumours differ from malignant:

A
  • cells of benign tumours cannot spread to other parts of the body
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6
Q

How methylation of tumour suppressor genes can lead to cancer:

A
  • methylation prevents transcription
  • protein not produced that prevents cell division
  • no control of mitosis
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7
Q

How could you stimulate gene expression:

A
  • transcription factor
  • binds to DNA
  • stimulates RNA polymerase
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8
Q

How recombinant DNA is inserted into plasmids:

A
  • restriction endonuclease cuts plasmids
  • ligase joins sticky ends
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9
Q

Two features of data that helps to ensure validity of conclusions:

A
  • large sample size
  • control present for comparison
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10
Q

Describe the role of two names types of enzymes used to insert DNA fragments into plasmids:

A
  • restriction endonuclease: cuts plasmids
  • ligase: joins DNA to plasmid
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11
Q

Suggest two features of the structure of different proteins that enable them to be separated by electrophoresis:

A
  • mass of amino acids
  • charge
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12
Q

Explain the role of reverse transcriptase in RT-PCR:

A
  • produces cDNA using mRNA
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13
Q

Role of DNA ploymerase in RT-PCR:

A
  • joins nucleotides to produce DNA
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14
Q

Why use gene machine:

A
  • faster to use gene machine than all the enzyme-catalysed reactions
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15
Q

How to insert copies of gene into plasmids:

A
  • cut the plasmid with restriction endonuclease
  • so both have sticky ends
  • add ligase to join sticky ends
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16
Q

Process of genetic testing using DNA sample:

A
  • use of PCR to amplify
  • cut using restriction endonuclease
  • separate using electrophoresis
  • addition of DNA probes and binding
  • mutations identified by fluorescence
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17
Q

Suggest how transcription factors can reprogramme cells to form iPS cells:

A
  • attach to promoter region
  • stimulate RNA polymerase
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18
Q

Equation to find the frequency of an allele, if the frequency of the other is already known:

A
  • p +q = 1
    p = dominant
    q = recessive
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19
Q

Hard-Weinberg equation:

A

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1
p^2 = the frequency of the homozygous dominant
2pq = the frequency of the heterozygous genotype
q^2 = the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotypes

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20
Q

How digesting insects can be beneficial in low nutrient soil:

A
  • digestion of proteins
  • provides amino acids
  • Breakdown of DNA
  • provides nucleotides
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21
Q

how would you estimate the size of a population in a small marsh:

A
  • use a grid
  • random number generator to obtain co ordinates
  • count number in section
  • large sample and calculate average
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22
Q

reasons why sterilised soil is needed for practicals:

A
  • kills pathogens
  • kills competitors
  • kills pests
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23
Q

why soil contained recommended conc, of fertiliser for practicals:

A
  • fertiliser is a controlled variable
  • affects crop growth
  • may affect water potential of soil
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24
Q

How is a colour seen at different wavelengths:

A
  • colour vision involves cones
  • each photoreceptor absorbs different wavelengths
25
Q

Three features of the PCT that allows rapid absorption:

A
  • microvilli provides a large surface area
  • many channel proteins for facilitated diffusion
  • many carrier proteins for active transport
26
Q

Two parts of a nephron where receptors are found:

A
  • collecting duct
  • distal convoluted tubule
27
Q

receptors may bind to specific hormone because:

A
  • specific tertiary structure
  • structures are complementary
28
Q

Location of receptors that detect a decrease in blood pressure:

A
  • aorta
29
Q

How release of ADH will affect blood pressure:

A
  • ADH increases reabsorption of water
  • increases volume of blood and pressure increases
30
Q

Community definition:

A
  • population of different species
31
Q

Carrying capacity:

A
  • ecosystem supports a certain size of population of a species
32
Q

Two reasons for conserving rain forests:

A
  • for biodiversity
  • source of medicine
  • reduces climate change
33
Q

Reasons for low efficiency of energy transfer from secondary consumers to tertiary consumers:

A
  • heat loss from respiration
  • not all food eaten
  • excretion
34
Q

Describe how short tandem repeats could be removed from a sample of DNA:

A
  • restriction endonuclease
  • cuts DNA at restriction/recognition sites
35
Q

Importance of knowing the short base sequence either side of STRs during PCR:

A
  • for primers
  • produces a complementary base sequence
36
Q

two features of STRs which enable them to be separated by electrophoresis:

A
  • mass
  • charge
37
Q

role of ATP in muscle contraction:

A
  • to break actinomyosin bridges
  • to bend myosin heads
  • for active transport of calcium ions
38
Q

How delayed insertion of a gene can lead to offspring who are not transgenic:

A
  • cell division has occurred before gene added
  • gametes do not receive gene
39
Q

Why different primers are required when detecting different RNA viruses:

A
  • base sequences differ
  • different complementary primers required
40
Q

Use of a radioactive labelled DNA probe to identify a gene:

A
  • extract DNA and using restriction endonuclease
  • separate fragments using electrophoresis
  • treat DNA to form single strands
  • the probe will bind to the gene
41
Q

Suggest how the production of ‘antisense’ SUT1 mRNA in type A plants
would reduce the expression of the SUT1 gene:

A
  • antisense mRNA is complementary to sense mRNA
  • antisense mRNA would bind to sense mRNA
  • ribosomes would not be able to bind
  • preventing translation
42
Q

DNA probe:

A
  • short single strand of DNA
  • with bases complementary with DNA
43
Q

how DNA is separated into smaller fragments:

A
  • restriction endonuclease
  • breaks phosphodoester bonds
  • at recognition sites
44
Q

PCR

A
  • in vitro
45
Q

Why the number of people expressing an allele would rapidly increase in the population once selection for this condition had been established:

A
  • dominant allele
  • expressed when only one allele is present
46
Q

glycogen role in skeletal msucles:

A
  • to be hydrolysed to glucose
  • to provide ATP
47
Q

effect of low pH on muscle contractions:

A
  • low pH changes shape of calcium ion receptors
  • fewer calcium ions binds to tropomyosin
  • fewer tropomyosin molecules move away
  • fewer binding sites on actin revealed
  • fewer myosin heads can bind
48
Q

role of ATP in myofibril contraction:

A
  • allows binding of myosin to actin
  • provides energy to move myosin head
49
Q

Longer loop of Henle:

A
  • increase in sodium concentration in medulla
  • therefore water potential gradient maintained, so more water reabsorbed
50
Q

effect in collecting duct of ADH:

A
  • concentration rises because duct loses water by osmosis
  • ADH increases permeability to water by osmosis
51
Q

plants producing more chlorophyll would grow faster because

A
  • have faster production of ATP and reduced NADP
  • faster light independent reaction
  • so more energy for growth
52
Q

Two features of a calorimeter that would enable a valid measurement of the total heat energy released:

A
  • stirrer distributes heat
  • insulation reduces loss of heat
53
Q

Why some falling light in natural ecosystems is not used in photosynthesis:

A
  • light is reflected
  • light misses chlorophyll
  • light is wrong wavelength
54
Q

Why a respirometer is left for 10 minutes at the end of the experiment:

A
  • equilibrium reached
  • allow for expansion in apparatus
  • allow respiration rate of seeds to stabilise
55
Q

how to maintain a unidirectional flow of blood:

A
  • pressure in left atrium is higher than in ventricle, causing valve to open
  • pressure in left ventricle is higher than in atrium, causing valve to open
56
Q

How hydrophobic molecules can pass through cell membrane:

A
  • lipid soluble
  • diffuse through phospholipid bilayer
57
Q

when you use a calorimeter you need to:

A
  • use a known volume of solution
  • record absorbance using a calorimeter
  • plot concentration of solution against absorbance
58
Q

how inhibiting adenylate cyclase may help to lower the blood glucose
concentration:

A
  • less ATP converted to cAMP
  • less kinase activated
  • less glycogen converted to glucose