respiratory unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

which drugs should be avoided in asthmatic patients?

A

Beta-blockers, NSAIDs, aspirin

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2
Q

why is aspirin contraindicated in asthma?

A

aspirin inhibit cylclo-oxygenase which contributes to the conversion of arachidonic acid to bronchodilatory PGs

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3
Q

when does intrinsic asthma develop and what are symptoms triggered by?

A

adulthood and triggered by non-allergic factors such as viral infection, irritants and exercise

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4
Q

what causes mucosal oedema?

A

Platelet activating factor released by macrophages sustains bronchial hyperactivity causing respiratory capillaries to leak plasma leading to oedema

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5
Q

what contributes to airway remodelling?

A

PAF causing accumulation of eosinophils which release inflammatory mediators causing epithelial damage and hypertrophy and hyperplasia of bronchial smooth muscle

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6
Q

what does the hx of an asthma pt include?

A

presence of atopy and allergic rhinitis in the close family

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7
Q

what is the pulse rate in acute severe asthma?

A

> 110 beats/min in adults

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8
Q

what is breathing like in acute severe asthma?

A

shallow and rapid breathing = >30 breaths/min and low O2 saturation (<92%)

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9
Q

what is the most useful test for abnormalities in airway function?

A

FEV - inhale deeply as possible and exhale completely into a mouth piece

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10
Q

how much can normal individuals usually exhale?

A

70% of their total capacity in 1 second

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11
Q

what does a peak flow meter measure?

A

peak expiratory flow rate (PEF) - maximum flow rate that can be forced during expiration

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12
Q

what diurnal availability is suggestive of asthma?

A

more than 60L/min (or more than 20%)

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13
Q

when can adrenal suppression occur with inhaled corticosteroids?

A

belcometasone >1500ncg or budesonide >400ncg in children

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14
Q

how many weeks trial is recommended for LT antagonists?

A

4-6 week trial then STOP if no improvement

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15
Q

what therapeutic range should theophylline be maintained in?

A

10-20mg/L

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16
Q

what range can theophylline cause nausea and vomiting in?

A

common in over 20mg/L but can be seen in as low as 13mg/L

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17
Q

when should an acute asthma attack result in hospital admission?

A

PEF <50% OR pts has trouble completing sentences in one breath, life threatening features present, pt is too breathless to talk

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18
Q

how would you manage acute asthma?

A

short course of oral steroid at high dose e.g. prednisolone 40-50mg OD for 7 days, increase B2 agonist dose if deteriorates further then oxygen administration to reach >92%, IV HC if pt cannot take oral medication

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19
Q

what is the main disadvantage of MDIs?

A

they require good technique

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20
Q

what should pregnant women receiving steroid dose exceeding 7.5mg/day for >2 weeks recieve prior to delivery?

A

parental HC 100mg 6-8/hr during labour

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21
Q

what is step 3 of the asthma management ladder?

A

addition of LABA AND assess control of asthma

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22
Q

when would you add 400ncg of an ICs in the asthma managment ladder?

A

step 2 when SABA is inadaquate

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23
Q

what is the minimum volume that should be nebulised in a nebuliser?

A

3-4ml

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24
Q

side effects of corticosteroids

A

oral candidiasis, sore throat, croaky voice

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25
Q

how would you minimise oro-pharyngeal side effects?

A

brush teeth after inhalation, using a large volume spacer, rinsing mouth with water

26
Q

what suggests asthma is partly controlled?

A

day time symptoms more than twice a week, need for reliever more than twice a week, PEF <80%

27
Q

what does symbicort contain?

A

formaterol and budesonide

28
Q

what does seretide contain?

A

salmeterol and fluticasone

29
Q

fostair?

A

formetarol and beclametasone

30
Q

relvar?

A

fluticasone and vilanterol

31
Q

what is pneumonia?

A

inflammation of small airway sacs (alveoli) at the end of the branched airways which become solid and filled with puss hindering oxygenation

32
Q

what is the CURB65 score?

A

1 point for each;
confusion, raised respiratory rate (>30 breaths/min) , low BP (diastolic 60mmhg or less OR systolic less than 90), over 65 years

33
Q

what should you not routinely offer patients with low severity CAP?

A

dual A/B therapy OR a fluoroquinolone

34
Q

treatment for LS-CAP?

A

5 days amoxicillin OR macrolide/tetracycline

35
Q

treatment for severe CAP

A

5-7 days dual therapy with beta lactamase and a macrolide

36
Q

how long should the hospital acquired antibiotic course of pneumonia be?

37
Q

for CAP when would chest pain and cough resolve by?

A

4 weeks for chest pain and 6 weeks for cough and 6 months to feel back to normal

38
Q

what is the classification of haemophyllis influenza?

A

Anaerobic coccobacillary, pathogenic bacterium, Gram-negative, belongs to the Pasteurellaceae family

39
Q

what is the name of the bacteria which is Gram-negative bacterium of the genus Legionella, a thin, aerobic, pleomorphic, flagellated, nonspore-forming.

A

Legionella pneumophilia

40
Q

what is the classification for Streptococcus pneumoniae accounting for 36% of CAP incidence?

A

Alpha haemolytic, gram positive, encapsulated, aerobic dipplococcus

41
Q

if FEV1 is >80% can diagnosis of COPD be made?

A

only in the presence in the cough

42
Q

what are the 4 major pathological changes in COPD?

A

central airway hypertrophy, peripheral airways, pulmonary vasculature, lung parenchyma

43
Q

what factors within smoking are predictive of COPD mortality?

A

number of cigarettes smoked, total pack years and number of years smoking

44
Q

how do genetic influence risk of COPD?

A

a1-antitrypsin deficient individuals are at increased risk of emphysema

45
Q

what cytokines do inflammatory mediators cause the release of?

A

TNF-a, LT-B4, IL-8

46
Q

what is a main proteinase and what is it released by?

A

neutrophil elastin released by macrophages OR neutrophils

47
Q

what is the main anti-proteinase and how does smoking effect it?

A

a1-antitrypsin and smoking is known to inactivate this protein

48
Q

why is the responsiveness to corticosteroids reduced in COPD?

A

corticosteroids recruit histone deacetylase to switch off inflammatory genes but in COPD histone deacetylase is IMPAIRED

49
Q

name 3 common bacterial pathogens

A

haemophillis influenzae, streptococcus pneumonaie and moraxella catarrhalis

50
Q

what is bronchiectasis?

A

bronchi become permenantly dilated and mucus can accumulate

51
Q

when does pulmonary hypertension develop in COPD?

A

late in COPD after gas exchange abnormalities have developed

52
Q

how do chest radiographs differ in emphysema and chronic bronchitis?

A

emphysema = flattened diaphragm with loss of peripheral markings and appearance of bullae
chronic bronchitis = bronchovascular markings and cardiomegaly due to RV dysfunction and failure

53
Q

what is mepolizumab?

A

MAB, used in severe refractory eosinophilic asthma. It is anti-IL-5 reducing the production and survival of eosinophils.

54
Q

what is a benefit of mepolizumab?

A

The benefit of mepolizumab is that it is a standard dosing regime of 100mg every 4 weeks.

55
Q

when can mepolizumab only be used?

A

Can only be used as addition to standard therapy and when a patient’s blood eosinophil count is 300 cells/microlitre or more in the previous 12 months.

56
Q

what is the major drawbacks of monoclonal antibodies?

A

proteins so have to be given subcutaneously

57
Q

what is type 2 respiratory failure?

A

Hypoxaemia (low levels of oxygen) with a high Pa CO2. Most commonly seen in COPD patients.

58
Q

what is type 2 respiratory failure?

A

Hypoxaemia with a high Pa CO2. Most commonly seen in COPD patients.

59
Q

what is referred to as blue bloater?

A

chronic bronchitis patients - in which hypercapnia and hypoxia are common

60
Q

what are symptoms of emphysema?

A

referred to as pink puffer which is hyperventilating to compensate for hypoxia, dyspnoea even at rest, thin pursed lips, sputum is mucoid