AF and stroke Flashcards

1
Q

who is AF common in?

A

age >55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the symptoms of AF?

A

breathlessness, palpitations, chest discomfort, fatigue, reduced exercise tolerance, dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is paroxysmal AF?

A

self-limiting episodes lasting no more than 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the underlying causes of AF?

A

high BP, hyperthyroidism, heart valve disease, ischemic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is suggestive of poor coagulation?

A

2 INR levels higher than 5 OR 1 INR level higher than 8 in the past 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

emergency treatment for acute AF life threatening headmodynamic disability?

A

emergency electrical cardioversion to achieve anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

emergency treatment for acute AF NOT life threatening?

A

give rate or rhythm control if onset is less than 48hr but if onset is more than 48hours or uncertain give rate control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is pharmacological cardio version?

A

IV amiodarone or flecainide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

rate control is preferred first line treatment except when…..

A
  • AF is new onset
  • Atrial flutter suitable for ablation strategy
  • AF with reversible cause
  • Rhythm control is more suitable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what drugs are used in the pill in the pocket strategy?

A

flecainide and propafenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what 2 processes are involved in destruction of neuronal cells?

A

apoptosis - occurs within 1 hour

necrosis - occurs within 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

initial management of stroke?

A

alteplase - within 4.5hrs
aspirin - 300mg for 14 days (start within 24hrs)
assess swallowing ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

long term anti-platelet management for stroke?

A

ischaemic stroke -clopidogrel 75md OD

TIA - MR dipyridamole 200mg BD AND aspirin 75mg OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when is anticoagulant treatment given for stroke and TIA pts?

A

stroke - delay treatment for 2 weeks

TIA - start immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the 4 common underlying causes of AF?

A

high BP, ischaemic heart disease, heart valve disease, hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does the LVEF have to be before giving dabigatran and when can you give it to above 65+?

A

less than 40% and 65 or older with one of the following; DM, coronary artery disease, HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what can contribute to poor anti-coagulation control?

A

illness, interacting drugs, lifestyle factors, cognitive function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when would you consider left appendage atrial occlusion (LAAO)?

A

consider this if anti-coagulation is contraindicated or not tolerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

why would you not consider digoxin?

A

only if patient is sedentary as it doesnt work on exertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what would be initial rate control monotherapy?

A

BB (other than sotalol) or CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

who should you NOT offer flecainide and propafenone?

A

to people with known ischaemic or structural heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

who should the pill in the pocket strategy be considered for?

A

those who have no history of LVD, or valvular or ischaemic heart disease and have a hx of infrequent symptomatic episodes of paroxysmal AF and have a systolic blood pressure greater than 100 mmHg and a resting heart rate above 70 bpm and are able to understand how to, and when to, take the medication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how would you reduce risk of postoperative AF?

A

amiodarone, standard beta blocker (not sotalol) and rate-limiting CCB

24
Q

advantages of NOAC?

A
  • efficacy and safety appear similar to warfarin
  • rapid onset of action
  • does NOT require INR monitoring
  • fewer drug interactions
25
Q

what is an embolic stroke?

A

blood clot that blocks the cerebral artery and originates outside the brain

26
Q

what can TIA be defined as?

A

temporary episodes of cerebral ischaemia

27
Q

what are the major symptoms of stroke?

28
Q

how can some patients recover from the sensory deficits caused by stroke?

A

undamaged neurones sprout new branches into the damaged area and aid in the recovering lost function

29
Q

how does hypoxia affection overreaction of glutamate and aspartate receptors?

A

hypoxia - over reaction of glutamate and asparate receptors, result in opening of certain receptors including NMDA - subsequent membrane depolarisation causes influx of Ca, Na and Cl ions and efflux of potassium ions. - Intracellular Ca increases proteases, lipases and endonucleases which causes destruction of cell structures.

30
Q

the region affected by severe ischaemia is called?

31
Q

the patient may find difficulties in speaking and understanding speech and may get confused between left and right. - which area of the brain is affected?

A

wernicke’s area of the cerebrum

32
Q

how would you diagnose stroke/TIA?

A

Computerized tomography (CT), MRI (can detect changes within minutes)

33
Q

what tool is used to commonly distinguish between ischaemic and hemorrhagic strokes?

34
Q

for initial management what should be considered for patients being transferred home before 14 days?

A

Patents who are transferred home before 14 days should switch from: asprin 300mg to clopidogrel 75mg

35
Q

when should anticoagulation not be given for long term management of stroke?

A

in uncontrolled HTN or until brain imaging hasnt ruled out haemorrhagic stroke

36
Q

what should be given to patients if pts have prev dyspepsia associated with aspirin

A

aspirin + PPI

37
Q

in apoptosis what process occurs later?

A

breakdown of integrity of plasma and mitochondrial membrane

38
Q

major causes of IDA?

A

inadaquate iron absorption, increased physiological demand, GI bleeding

39
Q

treatment of IDA

A

ferrous sulphate 200mg BD/TDS - takes between 1-2 weeks for Hb level to rise - continue up to 3 months after levels return to normal to replenish stores

40
Q

what should you give if ferrous sulphate is not tolerated?

A

ferrous gluconate, ferrous fumarate

41
Q

parenteral iron options

A

IRON DEXTRAN,
IRON SUCROSE,
FERRIC CARBOXYMALTOSE,
IRON ISOMALTOSIDE

42
Q

what serum ferritin levels confirms diagnosis?

A

less than 15mcg/L

43
Q

why is the onset of b12 deficiency delayed?

A

Onset of anaemia is delayed because the body has 2-3mg of stores which is sufficient for 2-3 years

44
Q

treatment for vitamin b12 defiency?

A

IM hydroxycobalamin 1mg 3 times a week for 2 weeks then 1mg every 3 months
where there is neurological involvement give 1mg on alternate days for 2 weeks then 1mg every 2 months

45
Q

what is the cell size and cell colour in iron deficiency anaemia?

A

SMALL cell size and PALE colour

46
Q

mechanism of bile acid sequestrants

A

hepatic conversion of cholesterol to bile acids

47
Q

example of a fibrate

A

gemfibrozil

48
Q

symptoms of b12 deficiency

A

Mild thrombocytopenia, spleen slightly enlarged, mild jaundice, slow insidious onset, progressive neuropathy affective legs – tingling in feet and loss of vibration sense (feature separating it from other anaemias)

49
Q

what should you consider if pharmacological cardioversion is agreed?

A

A choice of flecainide or amiodarone to people with no evidence of structural or ischaemic heart disease or

amiodarone to people with evidence of structural heart disease.

50
Q

In people with atrial fibrillation in whom the duration of the arrhythmia is greater than 48 hours or uncertain and considered for long‑term rhythm control, delay cardioversion until what?

A

they have been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for a minimum of 3 weeks. During this period offer rate control as appropriate.

51
Q

when is dronedarone recommended?

A

option for the maintenance of sinus rhythm after successful cardioversion in people with paroxysmal or persistent atrial fibrillation

52
Q

if drug treatment for long term rhythm control is needed what is recommended as first line?

A

beta blocker other than sotalol

53
Q

if monotherapy with a standard beta blocker is not successful as a rate control strategy what would you recommend?

A

combination therapy with digoxin, diltiazem, beta blocker

54
Q

which drug should you avoid in heart failure and LV dysfunction?

A

CCB and dronedarone

55
Q

with anticoagulant for stroke prevention would you give if left ventricular ejection fraction below 40%?

A

dabigatran