RESPIRATORY MEDICINE Flashcards

1
Q

high-risk characteristics are defined as follows:
For pneumothorax

A

haemodynamic compromise (suggesting a tension pneumothorax)
significant hypoxia
bilateral pneumothorax
underlying lung disease
≥ 50 years of age with significant smoking history
haemothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the lifetime risk of developing a pneumothorax in healthy smoking men is around 10% compared with around 0.1% in non-smoking men

A

Fitness to fly
absolute contraindication, the CAA suggest patients may travel 2 weeks after successful drainage if there is no residual air. The British Thoracic Society used to recommend not travelling by air for a period of 6 weeks but this has now been changed to 1 week post check x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Scuba diving post pneumothorax

A

Diving should be permanently avoided unless the patient has undergone bilateral surgical pleurectomy and has normal lung function and chest CT scan postoperatively.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lower lung zone fibrosis

A

Drug induced - amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Coal workers pneumoconiosis affect *** lung zones
Ankylosing spondylitis
Connective tissue disorders
Silicosis

A

Upper lung zones

Acronym for causes of upper zone fibrosis:

CHARTS
C - Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
H - Histiocytosis/ hypersensitivity pneumonitis
A - Ankylosing spondylitis
R - Radiation
T - Tuberculosis
S - Silicosis/sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fibrosis predominately affecting the lower zones

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
most connective tissue disorders (except ankylosing spondylitis) e.g. SLE
drug-induced: amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate
asbestosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dyspnoea, obstructive pattern on spirometry in patient with rheumatoid → ?

A

bronchiolitis obliterans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Restrictive pattern

A

Methotrexate pneumonitis
Pulmonary Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PEF Variability

A

with a >20% variation in PEF between morning and evening values, supports the diagnosis of asthma and highlights its dynamic, reversible nature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Diseases that restrict lung expansion like *** may reduce FVC

A

fibrosis or pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

neurological manifestations of sarcoidosis (neurosarcoidosis) require immediate management with steroids.

A

Both unilateral and bilateral facial nerve palsy are common manifestations of neurosarcoidosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

As per the Scadding criteria, perihilar lymphadenopathy on chest X-ray is stage 1 pulmonary sarcoidosis

A

Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

malt workers’ lung:

A

Aspergillus clavatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

farmers lung:

A

spores of Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula from wet hay , (formerly Micropolyspora faeni)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Causes of upper zone pulmonary fibrosis:
Coal workers pneumoconiosis
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis, histiocytosis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Radiation
Tuberculosis
Silicosis, sarcoidosis

A

Causes of lower zone pulmonary fibrosis:
Most connective tissue diseases (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis)
Asbestosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Drugs (e.g. methotrexate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The most common organism causing infective exacerbations of COPD is

A

Haemophilus influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

patients with a secondary spontaneous pneumothorax that is managed conservatively should be

A

monitored as an inpatient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

is a subset of sarcoidosis: a combination of parotid enlargement, fever, and anterior uveitis.

A

Heerfordt syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CF diet

A

High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal. Patients with cystic fibrosis (CF) have an increased energy requirement due to the chronic inflammation and infection associated with their disease. The UK Cystic Fibrosis Trust’s nutritional guidelines recommend a high-energy, high-fat diet to meet these needs. Additionally, CF patients often suffer from pancreatic insufficiency which leads to malabsorption of nutrients, especially fat. Therefore, they require pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy (PERT) with every meal and snack to aid digestion and absorption of nutrients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

chronic infection with *** is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation

A

Burkholderia cepacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chest x-ray: cavitating lung lesion

A

Differential
abscess (Staph aureus, Klebsiella and Pseudomonas)
squamous cell lung cancer
tuberculosis
Wegener’s granulomatosis
pulmonary embolism
rheumatoid arthritis
aspergillosis, histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

, characterised by clustered cystic air spaces with thickened walls, is indeed a classic sign of advanced IPF. However, this finding develops later in the disease process and thus would not be expected to present first.

A

Honeycombing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Erythromycin, and the macrolide class of antibiotics, are second-line options for treating ****. Doxycycline remains first-line.

A

psittacosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

*** is an uncommon and rather complex clinical condition which occurs due to endometrial tissues and is generally encountered in reproductive women. The mean ages are between 32-35 years old. In most of the cases, it involves the right side presenting with shortness of breath or difficulty breathing, fatigue, and dry cough. It can produce monthly episodes of chest pain which may radiate to the shoulder.

A

Catamenial pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

*** is stress-induced cardiomyopathy (either physical or emotional) which results in the weakening of the left ventricular muscle and characteristically produces an apical ballooning of the heart. It can give symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath

A

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Anti GBM

A

Good Pasteur’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Leukotriene receptor antagonists may trigger eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (

A

Churg-Strauss syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

IV Aminophyllin has narrow therapeutic index

A

Can Cause arrhythmia and seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency inherited in an

A

autosomal recessive / co-dominant fashion*

Investigations
A1AT concentrations
spirometry: obstructive picture

Management
no smoking
supportive: bronchodilators, physiotherapy
intravenous alpha1-antitrypsin protein concentrates
surgery: lung volume reduction surgery, lung transplantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

bluish-red nodules and plaques over the nose and cheeks which is lupus pernio+ Hypercalcaemia + bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

A

Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

While***** can cause bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on chest X-ray, it typically presents with a more characteristic pattern of upper lobe fibrosis with nodules

A

silicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A longer smoking history (typically 20+ pack-years) is a stronger risk factor for developing SCLC

A

Squamous cell lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

***** is a common pathogen in bronchiectasis and cystic fibrosis. It is a common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia, especially in those patients in the ITU on a ventilator., ‘ground-glass’ attenuation can often be noticed on a CT scan.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

***** causes flu-like symptoms such as a headache, arthralgia and myalgia followed by a dry cough which are not seen in this case. Chest X-ray often shows patchy consolidation of one lower lobe.

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

****. also causes flu-like symptoms such as fever, myalgia. It can also cause extra-pulmonary symptoms such as hepatitis, diarrhea and vomiting. Bi-basal consolidation can be seen on chest X-ray.

A

Legionella pneumophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is often seen in intravenous drug users (IVDU), young, elderly or people with an underlying disease such as leukemia or cystic fibrosis.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A pH less than*** likely represents carbon dioxide retention in a tiring patient and is an ominous sign in acute asthma.

A

7.35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

patients who manifest disease usually have PiZZ genotype

A

Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

42
Q

Aspergillus clavatus causes malt workers’ lung, a type of EAA

A

mushroom workers’ lung: thermophilic actinomycetes*

43
Q

Sarcoidosis steroid Rx ?

A

Indications for corticosteroid treatment for sarcoidosis are: parenchymal lung disease, uveitis, hypercalcaemia and neurological or cardiac involvement

patients with chest x-ray stage 2 or 3 disease who are symptomatic.

44
Q

2ndary pneumothorax

A

COPD patients, particularly those with advanced disease, may not present with overt signs of distress even when their secondary pneumothorax is worsening. Therefore, inpatient monitoring is warranted to detect any changes in clinical status that could require escalation of care, such as the need for a chest drain or even more invasive interventions.

45
Q

Primary spontaneous pneumothorax

A

Discharge with follow-up in 1-2 days would be appropriate for primary spontaneous pneumothorax in a young, otherwise healthy individual

46
Q

is a common cause of secondary bacterial pneumonia following influenza A infection.

A

Staphylococcus aureus

47
Q

COPD exacerbation admission guidelines

A

Admission is recommended if any of the following criteria are met
severe breathlessness
acute confusion or impaired consciousness
cyanosis
oxygen saturation less than 90% on pulse oximetry.
social reasons e.g. inability to cope at home (or living alone)
significant comorbidity (such as cardiac disease or insulin-dependent diabetes)

48
Q

Levels > 30g/L suggest an exudate. Protein

A

Pleural fluid protein

49
Q

A transudative pleural effusion is defined by a pleural fluid protein level < 30g/L.

A

Heart failure, hypoalbuminemia, nephrotic syndrome

53
Q

Unmasking of Churg-Strauss syndrome:

A

Montelukast

54
Q

asthma, eosinophilia, presence of mono-/polyneuropathy, flitting pulmonary infiltrates, paranasal sinus abnormalities and histological evidence of extravascular eosinophils

55
Q

** is a small vessel vasculitis that also affects the lungs and kidneys. Its presentation can often be with constitutional symptoms such as weight loss, lethargy and low-grade fever, though in advanced disease it can progress to haemoptysis and renal failure. Perinuclear anti-cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA) is often positive and renal biopsy will reveal focal segmental glomerulonephritis.

A

Microscopic polyangiitis

56
Q

The triad of asthma, nasal polyposis and salicylate sensitivity is eponymously known as

A

Samter’s triad

57
Q

LTRA s/e

A

Hepatic impairment
Church Strauss syndrome unmasking
Depression, suicidal ideation

58
Q

Organisms which may colonise CF patients

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Burkholderia cepacia*
Aspergillus

59
Q

results from an allergy to Aspergillus spores. In the exam questions often give a history of BRONCHIECTASIS and EOSINOPHILIA .

A

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

60
Q

Loeffler syndrome is associated with evidence of tropical infections

A

history of foreign travel here

61
Q

syndrome is associated with eosinophilia but tends to cause a rash and systemic upset such as a fever.

62
Q

Common indications for lung transplantation referral for patients with CF include

A

life-threatening exacerbation requiring ICU admission,
pulmonary hypertension,
FEV1 less than 30% of predicted,
recurrent exacerbations requiring antibiotic therapy,
recurrent and/or refractory pneumothorax, and recurrent haemoptysis not controlled by embolisation.

63
Q

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

A

honeycombing, reticular opacities, traction bronchiectasis, and architectural distortion on the base of lung
GGO not usually found,

64
Q

Respiratory alkalosis causes

A

Common causes
anxiety leading to hyperventilation
pulmonary embolism
salicylate poisoning*
CNS disorders: stroke, subarachnoid haemorrhage, encephalitis
altitude
pregnancy

65
Q

Salicylate overdose

A

Early respiratory alkalosis, and then metabolic acidosis

66
Q

Asbestosis CT FINDINGS

A

Intralobular, small, rounded and branching opacities; thickened interlobular septa; pleural plaques

67
Q

High urate levels in pneumonia

A

This is because elevated blood urea nitrogen levels indicate dehydration or reduced renal perfusion, both of which can lead to increased mortality

68
Q

severe hyponatraemia can be associated with poor outcomes in CAP due to its link with ****infection

A

Legionella pneumophila

69
Q

Confusion AMT score ?

70
Q

Rectal prolapse in CF

A

Rectal prolapse, where part or all of the wall of the rectum slides out of place, sometimes sticking out of the anus, can occur in children with cystic fibrosis due to frequent coughing and high stool burden secondary to pancreatic insufficiency causing increased intra-abdominal pressure.

71
Q

Drug induced lupus

A

Drug-induced lupus erythematosus (DILE) is a rare adverse reaction seen more commonly with certain classes of medications such as hydralazine, procainamide, and isoniazid

72
Q

varenicline or bupropion

A

Smoking cessation

73
Q

Smoking and pregnancy

A

All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services.

74
Q

Despite a normal chest x-ray an ex-smoker with shortness of breath, weight loss and hyponatraemia should be investigated on an urgent basis for lung cancer.

75
Q

is a cause of lung disease and lung fibrosis but pathology is found throughout the lung fields.

76
Q

**** is incorrect as this condition is characterised by transient pulmonary infiltrates associated with peripheral eosinophilia, typically occurring in response to parasitic infections. While it can cause respiratory symptoms,

A

Loffler’s syndrome

77
Q

Exercised induced asthma

A

Exercise-Induced Bronchoconstriction: LTRAs are also used in patients with exercise-induced bronchoconstriction (EIB), reducing symptoms by preventing the leukotriene-mediated bronchoconstriction.

78
Q

Serum ACE is used in diagnosis of

A

Sarcoidosis

79
Q

Mucosal oedema and mucus plugging

A

Chronic bronchitis and asthma

80
Q

Emphysema pathogenesis

A

destruction of alveolar walls secondary to proteinases. This is the fundamental pathophysiological mechanism underlying emphysema. The condition primarily results from an imbalance between proteases (particularly neutrophil elastase) and antiproteases (mainly alpha-1 antitrypsin) in the lung tissue. This imbalance leads to the breakdown of elastin and other structural proteins in the alveolar walls, causing permanent destruction of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles. The result is decreased elastic recoil, air trapping, and reduced gas exchange surface area.

81
Q

**** are commonly used in various industries, including automotive, paint manufacturing, and furniture production. They are known to be potent respiratory sensitizers and have been identified as one of the most common causes of occupational asthma.

A

Isocyanates

82
Q

Most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis:

A

Haemophilus influenzae (most common)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella spp.
Streptococcus pneumoniae

83
Q

Calcification is seen with******* as well as metastases from papillary thyroid carcinoma.

A

osteosarcomas and chondrosarcomas

84
Q

Adenocarcinoma is seen as

A

Consolidation in chest x ray

85
Q

Cavitation in chest x ray is associated with ***** cancer

A

Squamous cell ca

86
Q

occur with choriocarcinoma and angiosarcoma.

A

Haemorrhagic pulmonary metastases

87
Q

A miliary pattern of metastases is visualised with

A

renal cell carcinoma and malignant melanoma.

88
Q

Contra indications to CF Lung transplant

A

absolute contraindications include systemic sepsis and failure to identify an appropriate antibiotic regimen for treatment.

Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation

89
Q

Kartagners syndrome is not associated with

A

Malabsorption, as ciliary dyskinesia is restricted to respiratory endothelium rather than gut

90
Q

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

A

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

The most common causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy are sarcoidosis and tuberculosis.

Other causes include:
lymphoma/other malignancy
pneumoconiosis e.g. berylliosis
fungi e.g. histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis

91
Q

Silica exposure has been found to be causing increased risk of

92
Q

Crocidolite (blue) asbestos is the most dangerous form

93
Q

A normal FEV1/FVC ratio and total lung capacity with low diffusing capacity are indicative of conditions that compromise effective gas exchange while ventilation remains preserved. These include disorders affecting pulmonary perfusion like chronic pulmonary embolism and alveolar gas exchange issues such as thickening alveolar walls seen in pulmonary fibrosis.

94
Q

LTOT should be offered to patients with

A

a pO2 of < 7.3 kPa or to those with a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following:
secondary polycythaemia
nocturnal hypoxaemia
peripheral oedema
pulmonary hypertension

95
Q

Patients typically present with a cough, shortness of breath, fever and malaise. Symptoms can be present for weeks or months. There is often a history of non-response to antibiotics. Haemoptysis is rare. Clinical examination is often normal but inspiratory crackles can be heard. Wheeze and clubbing are rare.

Bloods show a leukocytosis and an elevated ESR and CRP. Imaging typically shows bilateral patchy or diffuse consolidative or ground glass opacities. Lung function tests are most commonly restrictive but can be obstructive or normal. The transfer factor is reduced.

Treatment is watch and wait if mild or high dose oral steroids if severe.

A

COP

Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (COP) is a diffuse interstitial lung disease that affects the distal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveolar walls

96
Q

Adenocarcinoma lung

A

Non smoker
Either mets from other adenocarcinoma

97
Q

Alveolar cell carcinomas are rare and usually present with a productive cough with copious sputum and fluffy infiltrates on chest x-ray.

99
Q

Vital capacity normal range

A

Vital capacity - 4,500ml in males, 3,500 mls in females