Respiratory III (COPD; Acute asthma) Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Define COPD [1]

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) involves a long-term, progressive condition involving airway obstruction, chronic bronchitis and emphysema. It is almost always the result of smoking and is largely preventable.While it is not reversible, it is treatable.

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3
Q

Define chronic bronchitis [1] and emphysema [1]

A

Chronic Bronchitis- the presence of chronic productive cough and sputum for at least 3 months in each of two successive years

Emphysema involves damage and dilatation of the alveolar sacs and alveoli,

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4
Q

Describe the typical presentation of a COPD patient

A

A typical presentation of COPD is a long-term smoker with persistent symptoms of:

  • Shortness of breath
  • Cough
  • Sputum production
  • Wheeze
  • Recurrent respiratory infections, particularly in winter
  • Barrel chested
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5
Q

Which symptoms does COPD not cause? [4]

A

Clubbing
Chest pain
Haemoptysis
Chest pain

If have these, investigate other diseases

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6
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of COPD [5]

A

Inflammation
- Inhalation of noxious particles or gases, such as cigarette smoke or occupational irritants, triggers an inflammatory response in the airways and lung parenchyma.
- Causes infiltration of neutrophils, macrophages, and lymphocytes, leading to the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines.

Protease-Antiprotease Imbalance
- Causes an imbalance between proteases (e.g., neutrophil elastase, matrix metalloproteinases) and antiproteases (e.g., alpha-1 antitrypsin, tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases)
- The excess protease activity degrades extracellular matrix components, leading to the destruction of lung parenchyma and the development of emphysema.

Oxidative Stress:
- Toxins induce ROS
- ROS causes direct cellular damage, impair antiprotease activity, and promote inflammation

Airway Remodeling
- thickening of the airway wall
- increased mucus production
- goblet cell hyperplasia

Alveolar Destruction
- destruction of alveolar walls, leading to the formation of larger, less efficient airspaces and a reduction in the surface area available for gas exchange.

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7
Q

Explain genetic disorder can lead to early onset COPD? [1]

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency:
- reduced inhibition of neutrophil elastase, leading to uncontrolled protease activity and lung tissue destruction

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8
Q

What are the 5 grades of the MRC dyspnoea scale? [5]

A
  • Grade 1: Breathless on strenuous exercise
  • Grade 2: Breathless on walking uphill
  • Grade 3:Breathlessness that slows walking on the flat
  • Grade 4: Breathlessness stops them from walking more than 100 meters on the flat
  • Grade 5: Unable to leave the house due to breathlessness

mMRC ≥2

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9
Q

What investigations would you conduct for COPD? [7]

A

Spirometry:
- FEV1/FVC < 70%

Pulse ox:
- low oxygen saturation
- In patients with chronic disease, an oxygen saturation of 88% to 90% may be acceptable.

CXR:
- hyperinflation
- bullae
- flat hemidiaphragm

COPD Assessment Test (CAT) or Modified British Medical Research Council (mMRC)
- mMRC ≥2 or CAT score ≥10 indicates higher symptoms burden

FBC
- polycythaemia (raised haemoglobin due to chronic hypoxia),
- anaemia
- infection & WBC count

BMI:
- weight loss occurs in severe disease

Serum alpha-1 antitrypsin
- look for alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

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10
Q

What are common ECG changes might you see in COPD patients? [4]

A
  • Rightward deviation of the P wave and QRS axis
  • Low voltage QRS complexes, especially in the left precordial leads (V4-6)
  • With development of cor pulmonale, right atrial enlargement (P pulmonale) and right ventricular hypertrophy
  • Arrhythmias including multifocal atrial tachycardia
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11
Q

State how the different severity scores for COPD are calculated [4]

A

The severity can be graded using the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1):

Stage 1 (mild):
- FEV1 more than 80% of predicted

Stage 2 (moderate):
- FEV1 50-79% of predicted

Stage 3 (severe):
- FEV1 30-49% of predicted

Stage 4 (very severe):
- FEV1 less than 30% of predicted

If the FEV1 is greater than 80% predicted but the post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC is < 0.7 then this is classified as Stage 1 - mild. Symptoms should be present to diagnose COPD in these patients

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12
Q

Describe the stepwise approach to treating COPD

A

First line treatment:
- SABA (salbutamol) or SAMA (e.g ipratropium bromide)

The next stage depends on whether the patient has asthmatic features / features suggesting steroid responsiveness

If NONE: use a combination:
- Add LABA AND LAMA regularly

If ASTHMATIC features:
- Add LABA & ICS regularly

Next stage for both:
- Use LABA AND LAMA AND ICS

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13
Q

What are the determinants that decide if COPD is asthmatic or steroid responsive? [4]

A
  • Previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy
  • Variation in FEV1 of more than 400mls
  • Diurnal variability in peak flow of more than 20%
  • Raised blood eosinophil count
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14
Q

Label A-E

A
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15
Q

When is oral theophylline indicated for COPD treatment? [1]

A

NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot used inhaled therapy

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16
Q

Polypharmacy of which drug classes with oral theophylline would cause the dose of theophylline to decrease [2]

A

the dose should be reduced if macrolide or fluoroquinolone antibiotics are co-prescribed

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17
Q

Which antibiotic is given as oral prophylactic antibiotic therapy in some COPD patients? [1]

A

azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients

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18
Q

Explain which further tests would you need to conduct if giving azithromycin prophylaxis? [4]

A

ECG:
- can cause QT prolongation

LFTs:
- Can cause liver injury

CT scan:
- to exclude bronchiectasis

Sputum culture:
- exclude atypical infections and tuberculosis

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19
Q

Name a long-term risk of azithromycin use [1]

A

Long-term azithromycin use is associated with clinically significant hearing loss

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20
Q

What need to consider before prescribig azithromycin in COPD patients? [1]

A

. Little evidence of treatment benefit is seen in
current smokers

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21
Q

When are mucolytics indicated in COPD patients? [1]

A

Consider if have a chronic productive cough

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22
Q

Name an example and describe the MoA of phosphodiesterase-4 (PDE-4) inhibitors in COPD

A

roflumilast:
- antiinflammatory and immunomodulatory effects in the pulmonary system due to increased levels of intracellular cyclic AMP

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23
Q

When are roflumilast / PDE-4 inhibitors indicated in COPD treatment? [2]

A

FEV1 < 50%
AND
Ptx has two or more exacerbations in previous twelve months despitre triple therapy (LAMA; LABA & ICS)

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24
Q

A 62-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with symptoms of exertional breathlessness, wheeze and cough. He has a 30 pack-year smoking history.

As part of the patient’s work-up, spirometry is requested:

FEV1/FVC ratio 0.61

Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following would be an appropriate first-line treatment?

Ipratropium

Formoterol

Salmeterol

Tiotropium

Beclometasone

A

Ipratropium

SAMA or SABA is first line COPD

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25
Q

Describe what is meant by the term cor pulmonale [2]

A

RIght-sided heart failure caused by respiratory disease:

  • The increased pressure and resistance in the pulmonary arteries (pulmonary hypertension) limits the right ventricle pumping blood into the pulmonary arteries.
  • This causes back-pressure into the right atrium, vena cava and systemic venous system.
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26
Q

What are the most common causes of cor pulmonale? [5]

A

COPD (the most common cause)
Pulmonary embolism
Interstitial lung disease
Cystic fibrosis
Primary pulmonary hypertension

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27
Q

State 6 examination findings of cor pulmonale [6]

A
  • Hypoxia
  • Cyanosis
  • Raised JVP
  • Peripheral oedema
  • Loud second heart sound
  • systolic parasternal heave
  • Hepatomegaly due to back pressure in the hepatic vein (pulsatile in tricuspid regurgitation)
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28
Q

Describe how you treat cor pulmonale? [2]

Which drugs are not recommended? [3]

A

Loop diuretics for oedema
LTOT

ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers and alpha blockers are not recommended by NICE

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29
Q

Explain the physiological reasons of what can happen to CO2 levels when treated with oxygen in COPD patients? [2]

A

Many patients retain CO2 when treated with oxygen (oxygen induced hypercapnia)

Due to:

Increased V/Q mismatch (most important)
- COPD ptx optimise gas exchange by hypoxic vasoconstriction leading to altered Va/Q ratios
- Excessive oxygen administration overcomes this, leading to increased blood flow to poorly ventilated alveoli, and thus increased Va/Q mismatch and increased physiological deadspace

The Haldane effect:
- deoxygenated Hb binds CO2 with greater affinity than oxygenated Hb
- Thus: oxygen induces a rightward shift of the CO2 dissociation curve (Haldane effect)

30
Q

When should you assess patients for LTOT in COPD patients? [5]

How often do you assess ABGs when deciding LTOT? [2]

A
  • very severe airflow obstruction: FEV1 < 30% predicted
  • cyanosis
  • polycythaemia
  • peripheral oedema
  • raised jugular venous pressure
  • oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air

Assessment is done by measuring arterial blood gases on 2 occasions at least 3 weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management.

31
Q

What pO2 level is LTOT therapy given to COPD without any other factors? [1]

What pO2 levels [1] and other conditions [3] mean that LTOT is given to COPD factors?

A

Offer LTOT to patients with a pO2 of < 7.3 kPa
OR
To those with a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following:
* secondary polycythaemia
* peripheral oedema
* pulmonary hypertension

32
Q

What’s the rule with LTOT and smoking in COPD patients? [1]

A

do not offer LTOT to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services (fire risks)

33
Q

Which of the following is not an indication for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in patients with stable chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

PaO2 = 7.3-8.0 kPa with secondary polycythaemia
PaO2 = 7.3-8.0 kPa with anaemia
PaO2 = 7.3-8.0 kPa with pulmonary hypertension
PaO2 < 7.3 kPa
PaO2 = 7.3-8.0 kPa with peripheral oedema

A

PaO2 = 7.3-8.0 kPa with anaemia

NICE recommends that LTOT should be considered in patients with stable COPD who do not smoke and are on optimal medical therapy in the following circumstances:

PaO2 < 7.3 kPa
PaO2 7.3-8.0 kPa with secondary polycythaemia
PaO2 7.3-8.0 kPa with peripheral oedema
PaO2 7.3-8.0 kPa with pulmonary hypertension (eg. loud P2, RVH on ECG)

34
Q

What indicates COPD patients to start LTOT? [1]

A

LTOT if 2 measurements of pO2 < 7.3 kPa

35
Q

A patient presents with COPD. They are currently on a SAMA but are having worsening symptoms. They show no signs of asthmatic involvement / eosinophilic involvement.

What is the next step in their treatment? [1]

A

COPD: Discontinue SAMA (switch to SABA) if commencing LAMA

36
Q

What are three most common symptoms of worsening / acute exacerbation of COPD? [3]

A

Most commonly increasing dyspnoea, sputum volume and sputum purulence.

37
Q

Which bacterial [3] and viral infections [3] most commonly cause acute exacerbations of COPD?

A

Bacterial infections:
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Moraxella catarrhalis,
- Streptococcus pneumoniae

Viral infections:
* Rhinovirus
* influenzae
* respiratory syncytial virus

38
Q

Describe the pathophysiological changes that occur in acute exacerbations of COPD [5]

A
  • Increased inflammation, mucosal oedema and bronchospasm further limit expiratory flow
  • Gas trapping worsens, increasing ventilation-perfusion mismatch
  • The resulting hypoxia and hypercapnia trigger the neural drive to increase ventilation
  • Respiratory muscles fatigue, leading to a ‘neuromechanical decoupling’ that reduces the ventilatory drive
  • Existing cardiac dysfunction worsens due to increasing pulmonary vascular resistance
39
Q

Describe in detail the signs of acute exacerbations of COPD? [4]

A

Increased respiratory effort:
- tachypnoea
- nasal flaring
- use of accessory muscles
- paradoxical chest wall movement

Tachycardia (anxiety; hypoxia; increased resp effort)

Worsening airway obstruction on ascultation
- Reduced breath sounds
- Prolongation of the expiratory phase with wheezing
- Crackles which could indicate an infective component

Indicators of hypoxia:
- New or worsening central cyanosis
- Asterixis
- Altered mentation e.g. confusion, drowsiness

40
Q

Describe which investigations do NICE recommend for all patients admitted with COPD acute exacerbations of COPD? [5]

A

Blood tests to establish a baseline:
* Full blood count
* Urea and electrolytes
* Theophylline levels if the patient is on it

Serial arterial blood gases (ABGs) to monitor for the development of Type 2 respiratory failure
* A PaO2 of < 7 kPa and a pH level of < 7.35 are indications that the patient should continue to be managed in hospital

Chest X-ray
* overt changes such as opacification and oedema should prompt a reconsideration of the diagnosis

ECG
* helps to exclude acute ischaemia and/or comorbid cardiac dysfunction

Microbiological investigations:
* Sputum sample for microscopy and culture if sputum purulent
* Blood cultures if pyrexia present

41
Q

What are the three key differential diagnoses for acute exacerbations of COPD? [3]

Describe the findings that would indicate the differentials as opposed to COPD

A

Pneumonia:
- Bronchial breathing
- Increased VR
- Opacification on CXR

PE
- Dysopnea and hypoxia predominate
- Lower limb VTE

Pulmonary oedema (due to MI or acute-on-chronic HF)
- Frothy sputum
- CXR: alveolar and intersitial oedema

42
Q

Treatment of acute exacerbations of COPD:

A

1 Supplemental oxygen titrated to achieve target saturations of 88-92%

2 Repeat ABG measurements every 30-60 mins

3 Pharmacological managment:
- SABA &/or SAMA initially via inhaler or nebuliser
- LABA, LAMA & ICS continued
- 5-day course of oral prednisolone
- IV theophylline if response inadequate
- Abx (if evidence of infection)

4 Patients with persistent hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis despite optimal medical management need to be started on NIV

5 Escalate to invasive mechanical ventilation

43
Q

State three ways in which supplemental oxygen can be given in treatment of acute excaerbation of COPD [3]

A

A 24% Venturi mask at 2-3 L/min
A 28% Venturi mask at 4 L/min
Nasal cannulae at 1-2 L/min

44
Q

BTS recommends that NIV is indicated if WHICH features are present 60 minutes after optimal supplemental oxygen and bronchodilation have been given in COPD? [3]

A

BTS recommends that NIV is indicated if the following features are present 60 minutes after optimal supplemental oxygen and bronchodilation have been given:

Acidosis - pH < 7.35
Hypercapnia - pCO2 > 6.5
Respiratory rate > 23

45
Q

Which Abx [3] are commonly used in treating acute exacerbations of COPD and why [2]?

A

penicillin e.g. amoxicillin
macrolides e.g. clarithromycin
tetracyclines e.g. doxycyclin

Due to their effectiveness against Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae

46
Q

Acute exacerbation of COPD

Which features of a decompensating a patient would indicate moivng to invasive mechanical ventilation? [5]

A
  • Imminent respiratory arrest
  • Severe respiratory distress
  • Failure of NIV - persistent acidosis (pH < 7.25) and tachypnoea (RR > 35)
  • Persistent or worsening acidosis (pH < 7.15)
  • Depressed consciousness (GCS < 8)
47
Q

A 73-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of increased dyspnoea and cough. He has a past medical history of severe COPD and uses a Trimbow inhaler daily.

He is admitted and treated for an acute exacerbation with prednisolone 30 mg daily for 5 days and nebulisers. This is his fourth exacerbation in the past 3 months.

What option is most appropriate to reduce the risk of future exacerbations?

Amoxicillin
Carbocisteine
Doxycycline
Long-term oxygen therapy
Roflumilast

A

Roflumilast

Oral PDE-4 inhibitors such as roflumilast reduce the risk of COPD exacerbations in patients with severe COPD and a history of frequent COPD exacerbations

48
Q

When is NIV indicated in acute exacerbations of COPD? [1]

A

NIV should be considered in all patients with an acute exacerbation of COPD in whom a respiratory acidosis (PaCO2>6kPa, pH < 7.35 ≥7.26) persists despite immediate maximum standard medical treatment

49
Q

When are O2 sats targets in COPD patients:

88-92% and 94-98%? [2]

A

pCO2 is known to be normal the target oxygen saturations should be 94-98%.

pCO2 is known to be high the target oxygen saturations should be 88-92%.

50
Q

What are the presenting features of an acute exacerbation of asthma? [5]

A
  • Progressively shortness of breath
  • Use of accessory muscles
  • Raised respiratory rate (tachypnoea)
  • Symmetrical expiratory wheeze on auscultation
  • The chest can sound “tight” on auscultation, with reduced air entry throughout
51
Q

Describe what is meant by brittle asthma [2]

A

*Type 1:
- wide PEF variability (>40% diurnal variation for >50% of the time over a period >150 days) despite intense
therapy

*Type 2:
- sudden severe attacks on a background of apparentlywell-controlled asthma

52
Q

Describe what is meant by moderate exacerbation of asthma [6]

A
  • Increasing symptoms
  • Speech normal
  • PEF >50-75% best or predicted
  • No features of acute severe asthma
  • RR < 25 / min
  • Pulse < 110 bpm
53
Q

What is a pneumonic for life-threatening exacerbation of asthma?

A

33-92 CHEST:

  • PEF < 33%
  • sats < 92%
  • Cyanosis or confusion
  • Hypotension
  • Exhaustion
  • Silent chest
  • Tachy or bradychardia
54
Q

Describe what is meant by an acute severe exacerbation of asthma [4]

A

Any one of:
* PEF 33-50% best or predicted
* respiratory rate >25/min
* HR > 110bpm
* inability to complete sentences in one breath

Admit – if persisting symptoms

55
Q

Describe what is meant by a near fatal exacerbation of asthma [1]

A

Raised PaCO₂ (>6kPa) and/or need for mechanical ventilation.

It typically correlates with an FEV1 around 20% of predicted or less.

56
Q

What PEF can you discharge if other needs are met? [1]

State some reasons why might not be discharged [5]

A

> 75% after 1hr

57
Q

D

Describe the treament algorithm / management plan for acute asthma

A

ABC
Oxygen:
- High flow
- Aim sats >92

IV fluids

Reassess
- Every 15mins with PEFR

Therapys:
Oxygen
Salbutamol
Hydrocortisone/Prednisolone
Ipratropium bromide
Theophylline
! Magnesium sulphate

58
Q

What dose salbutamol would you give? [1]
How is it delivered? [1]
How often? [1]

A

2.5-5mg every 10 minutes
Nebulised with oxygen

59
Q

Which ICS would you give in acute asthma? [2]
What dose? [2]
How is it delivered? [1]
How often? [1]

A

Hydrocortisone
-IV 100-200mg QDS

prednisolone
- PO 40mg OD

60
Q

Acute asthma

What dose ipratropium bromide would you give? [1]
What is the MoA? [1]
How is it delivered? [1]
How often? [1]

A

Ipratropium bromide
- Nebulised with oxygen
- Muscarinic antagonist: Bronchodilator
- 500 micrograms every 4-6 hours

61
Q

Acute asthma

What dose Magnesium sulphate would you give? [1]
What is the MoA? [1]
How is it delivered? [1]
How often? [1]

A

Magnesium sulphate
1.2 – 2 grams over 20 minutes IV
Bronchodilator

62
Q

What dose theophylline would you give? [1]
What is the MoA? [1]
How is it delivered? [1]
How often? [1]

A

Theophylline
Inhibit phosphodiesterase and increase cAMP – smooth muscle dilation
Life-threatening
Senior guidance

63
Q

What is the treatment plan for Mild asthma attacks? [5]

A
  • Inhaled beta-2 agonists (e.g., salbutamol) via a spacer
  • Quadrupled dose of their inhaled corticosteroid (for up to 2 weeks)
  • Oral steroids (prednisolone) if the higher ICS is inadequate
  • Antibiotics only if there is convincing evidence of bacterial infection
  • Follow-up within 48 hours
64
Q

What is the treatment plan for moderate asthma attacks? [3]

A
  • Consider hospital admission
  • Nebulised beta-2 agonists (e.g., salbutamol)
  • Steroids (e.g., oral prednisolone or IV hydrocortisone)
65
Q

What indications would be for intubation in life-threatening asthma? [5]

A

There are few indications apart from coma and arrest.

However, findings such as severe fatigue, cardiovascular compromise and pneumothorax may be useful in decision making about mechanical ventilation

66
Q

Describe side effects of salbutamol tx [3]

A

Serum potassium needs monitoring with salbutamol treatment, which causes potassium to be absorbed from the blood into the cells, resulting in hypokalaemia

  • tachycardia (fast heart rate)
  • lactic acidosis.
67
Q

What might an ECG reveal when treating acute asthma? [1]

A

Sinus tachycardia (from Mg2+ and K)

68
Q

What is the follow up plan when discharing acute asthma exacerbations? [3]

A

o Follow up within 48 hrs
o < 30 days post discharge by GP/nurse specialist
o under specialist supervision indefinitely for near-fatal asthma and
at least 1 yeat for severe asthma attack

69
Q

When a patient is presenting at hospital with acute asthma, how do you decide what ICS might be prescribed? [2]

A

All patients with acute asthma should receive oral prednisolone

Only if vomiting: give IV hydrocortisone

70
Q

A 35-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency Department with an acute asthma attack. She has previously been admitted to the intensive therapy unit (ITU) with the same problem. Treatment is commenced with high-flow oxygen and regular nebulisers.

Which of the following is a feature of life-threatening asthma?

Normal PaCO2
Peak expiratory flow rate < 50% of predicted or best
Pulse rate 105 bpm
Respiratory alkalosis
Unable to complete full sentences

A

Normal PaCO2

71
Q

What indicates life-threatening asthma? [1]
Why? [1]

A

A normal PaCO2 in an acute asthma attack indicates exhaustion and should, therefore, be classified as life-threatening

72
Q

Explain why in acute asthma, a pH of < 7.35 is particularly alarming [1]

A

A pH less than 7.35 likely represents carbon dioxide retention in a tiring patient and is an ominous sign in acute asthma.