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Term 3 Stanbridge > Respiratory Exam 1 > Flashcards

Respiratory Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Pneumothorax

A

The presence of air or gas in the pleural space that cause lung collapse.

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2
Q

Hemothorax

A

The accumulation of blood in the pleural space.

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3
Q

pleural effusion

A

A buildup of fluid between the tissues that line the lungs and the chest.

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4
Q

hypoxia

A

Decreased o2 in the tissues

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5
Q

hypoxemia

A

decreased 02 in the blood

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6
Q

partial airway obstruction

A

In partial airway obstruction the patient will be able to breathe and cough, although there may be a ‘crowing’ noise (stridor) as air passes through a narrowed space.

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7
Q

respiratory distress

A

Condition in which fluid collects in the lungs’ air sacs, depriving organs of oxygen.

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8
Q

Normal range of adult VS plus SA02 range

A

Sa02 95% - 100%

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9
Q

diaphragm

A

a dome-shaped muscle separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It contracts and flattens to increase both the chest (pleural) space and the pleural vacuum

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10
Q

oropharynx

A

part of the pharynx extending from the uvula to the epiglottis

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11
Q

surfactant

A

The walls of the alveoli are composed of a single layer of cells and are lined with a chemical called surfactant, which helps to prevent the alveolar walls from collapsing between breaths.

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12
Q

pleura in lungs

A

The lower respiratory tract contains a smooth double-layered sac of serous membrane called

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13
Q

nasal mucosa

A

The mucosa, or mucous membrane, is a type of tissue that lines the nasal cavity. Mucous membranes are usually moist tissues that are bathed by secretions such as in the nose.

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14
Q

larynx

A

From the pharynx, air passes into the larynx, a box-like structure made of cartilages held together by ligaments.

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15
Q

pharnx

A

Air travels from the nose to the pharynx, a tube-shaped passage for air and food.

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16
Q

epiglottis

A

A lid or cover of cartilage called the epiglottis (“trap door cartilage”) guards the entrance to the larynx.

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17
Q

nasopharnyx

A

It is a passageway for air only.

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18
Q

trachea

A

the windpipe

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19
Q

medulla and pons

A

Normal breathing occurs as a result of nervous stimulation of the respiratory center in the brain’s medulla. The medulla sends impulses to the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles.

The pons has centers that work with the medulla to produce a normal breathing rhythm.

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20
Q

Name the protective reflexes of the respiratory system.

A

sneezing. yawning.

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21
Q

trace the flow of air you breathe once it goes through the nose and mouth

A

through nose and nostrils. nasal cavity where air is warmed and moistened. hairs and sticky mucous trap particles. clean air entered trachea. trachea branches to to bronchi. branches to bronchioles. these end in air sacs called alveoli. surrounded by capillaries. enters blood stream.

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22
Q

the purpose of chest suction is to restore the negative pressure where and how

A

the depth of the water in the suction bottle determines the amount of negative pressure that can transmitted to the chest.

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23
Q

describe what exactly “aerosol therapy” is about

A

aerosol therapy use of an aerosol for respiratory care in the treatment of bronchopulmonary disease. The major purpose of this is the delivery of medications or humidity or both to the mucosa of the respiratory tract and pulmonary alveoli. Agents delivered by aerosol therapy may act in a number of ways: (1) to relieve spasm of the bronchial muscles and reduce edema of the mucous membranes, (2) to render bronchial secretions more liquid so that they are more easily removed, (3) to humidify the respiratory tract, and (4) to administer antibiotics locally by depositing them in the respiratory tract

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24
Q

what equipment would you need to do aerosol therapy

A

a metered dose inhaler

nebulizer. tubing, mask, medication

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25
Q

why is the purpose of having serous fluid between the lungs pleural membranes

A

The main function of pleural membranes is to hold the two lungs within their pleural cavity. These membranes do this while ensuring that the lungs remain expanded during out-breaths and can move along each other smoothly during the process of breathing.

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26
Q

when teaching patients about their oxygen use why do we need to stress the importance not smoking, candle use, ungrounded electrial

A

Oxygen tanks are extremely dangerous in a sense that it can combust

no smoking, no wool hoodies.

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27
Q

what is the use of accessory muscles indicate

A

in labored breathing, the use of muscles other than the diaphragm and intercostals. the sternocleidomastoid, spinal, neck, and abdominal muscles and even the platysma, may be used. their use is a sign of an abnormal or labored breathing pattern.

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28
Q

what exactly does the pulse oximetry tell us? how does it work?

A

it tells us the amount of oxygen circulating in the blood. It’s a red light

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29
Q

what do ABG’s tell us

A

An arterial blood gas (ABG) test measures the acidity (pH) and the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood from an artery

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30
Q

what age related changes happen to the respiratory system

A
  • lung capacity decreases
  • ability to cough is less effective
  • SOB on exertion
  • airway size decreases
  • kyphosis
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31
Q

define dyspnea

A

difficult breathing

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32
Q

define valsalva maneuvers

A

the action of attempting to exhale with the nostrils and mouth, or the glottis, closed. This increases pressure in the middle ear and the chest, as when bracing to lift heavy objects, and is used as a means of equalizing pressure in the ears.

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33
Q

define ventilation

A

Ventilation (breathing) is the mechanical process of respiration that moves air to and from the alveoli.

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34
Q

define perfusion

A

oxygenation. the passage of fluid through the circulatory system or lymphatic system to an organ or a tissue, usually referring to the delivery of blood to a capillary bed in tissue.

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35
Q

define inspiration

A

Breathing air in is called inhalation or inspiration

36
Q

define vasovagal response

A

A sudden drop in heart rate and blood pressure leading to fainting, often in reaction to a stressful trigger.
bradycardia

37
Q

define eupnea

A

Normal respiration

38
Q

define orthopnea

A

Difficulty breathing while lying down, relieved by sitting upright (orthopneic position)

39
Q

define hyperpnea

A

Increase in depth of breaths; maybe increase in rate (no feeling of increased respiratory effort

40
Q

define productive cough vs non productive cough

A

A cough is considered productive when it brings up and removes secretions, such as sputum and mucus, as well as exudates from a lung infection. A cough is considered nonproductive when it is dry and irritating and no secretions are produced.

41
Q

define TCDB

A

Turning, Coughing, and Deep Breathing

42
Q

define pulmonary function test (PFT)

A

The pulmonary function test (PFT) measures how much air a client inhales (inspiration) and exhales (expiration) in one breath and assesses the client’s general respiratory status.

43
Q

define postural drainage

A

Postural drainage uses position and gravity to drain secretions and mucus from the individual’s lungs

44
Q

define adventitious breath sounds

A

an abnormal lung sound

45
Q

define respiratory excursion

A

excursion is when the diaphragm is moved up and the lungs can’t get full expansion

46
Q

define IPPB

A

intermittent positive pressure breathing (IPPB). IPPB is used almost exclusively for children with cystic fibrosis

47
Q

define thoracentesis

A

removal of fluid from the thoracic cavity

48
Q

define bronchoscopy

A

Bronchoscopy is an invasive procedure in which a bronchoscope (a lighted endoscope) is advanced through the pharynx into the trachea and bronchi. The purpose of this test may be to observe lung tissue, obtain a biopsy or bronchial washings, remove mucous plugs or foreign objects, or determine the location and extent of a mass (tumor).

49
Q

define purse lip breathing

A

Pursed lip breathing (PLB) is a breathing technique that consists of exhaling through tightly pressed (pursed lips) and inhaling through the nose with the mouth closed.

helps control respiratory rate

50
Q

unless ordered, how much oxygen are we allowed to give to the patient and why

A

2L/min. standing order.

51
Q

where does gas exchange take place, through what process

A

in the lungs between the alveoli and a network of tiny blood vessels called capillaries, which are located in the walls of the alveoli

52
Q

describe exactly why we do the Airway, Breathing, and Circulation, disability and safety (ABCDE’s)m in this order

A

Airway, breathing, and circulation, therefore work in a cascade; if the patient’s airway is blocked, breathing will not be possible, and oxygen cannot reach the lungs and be transported around the body in the blood, which will result in hypoxia and cardiac arrest. Ensuring a clear airway is therefore the first step in treating any patient; once it is established that a patient’s airway is clear, rescuers must evaluate a patient’s breathing, as many other things besides a blockage of the airway could lead to an absence of breathing.

53
Q

why is it so very important to make sure to give patients their ordered pain medication prior to starting any therapy such as ambulating

A

patients will ultimately be in some sort of pain following any movement post surgery.

54
Q

How are PFT’s done

A

LUNG FUNCTION TEST.

Using a spirometer, client takes in maximal inhalation and then exhales forcefully and as rapidly as possible. Room air, helium, or 100% oxygen may be used.

Peak flow: blowing outward hard

55
Q

why is it so very important to stress the importance of NOT smoking at least 6-8 hours prior to its doing their pFT

A

Smoking before will alter the test results

56
Q

describe what would you hear with each lung:

coarse crackles
stridor
wheezing

A

crackles: sounds like a loud velcro being torn apart
stridor: Stridor is a high-pitched wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow
wheezing: a sort of continuous sound, with a buzzing quality to it

57
Q

describe what normal respirations would look like in your patient

A

Normal respirations is a count between 12-20 RPM. Note no distress while inhaling. The stomach should not be moving

58
Q

what is the appropriate technique and supplies used to obtain a throat culture

A

cotton-tipped applicator and applied to a slide or culture medium

59
Q

describe what a pt with a partial airway obstruction would be doing

A

The signs of partial airway obstruction includeunusual breath sounds, skin discoloration(cyanosis), or changes in breathing pattern. Theconscious patient will usually make clutching mo-tions toward the neck, even when the obstructiondews not prevent speech. For the conscious pa-tient with an apparent partial obstruction, en-courage him or her to cough

60
Q

what types of oxygen masks are available for all types of patients

A 
nasal cannula
simple face mask
partial facial mask
nonrebreather
venturi mask
face tent
61
Q

describe reasons why we might use a venturi mask vs a regular disposable mask

A

for the highest o2 quality.

62
Q

what is the initial set up for 02 therapy via mask or nasal cannula

A

2L/min

63
Q

your patient is receiving IPPB what are we constantly monitoring for during procedure and why?

A

ability to breath better

64
Q

post bronchoscopy: what are you monitoring for and why

A

gag reflex. we use numbing ointment in the throat and patients can aspirate on food or water if they don’t have it.

lung sounds and respirations

65
Q

What is the equipment and prep for insertion of a chest tube, as well as pt teaching we do?

A 
insertion tray
tube
local anesthetic 
suturing supplies
sterile gloves
sterile water
gauze
suction setup and tubing
chest tube collection system
vaseline gauze
silk tape
66
Q

What is the chest tube care after insertion?

A

xray for placement, vitals, keep below chest level, cough and deep breath q2h, loc, lay on unaffected side

67
Q

Why would a PCP request a chest X-Ray before and after placement of the chest tube?

A

to check and make sure the tube is in the right spot.

68
Q

What type of mask would be used if your pt had pulmonary TB?

A

N95

69
Q

What mask is used to deliver the highest concentration of oxygen?

A

venturi mask

70
Q

Why encourage TCDB if you hear fine crackles during your pts assessment. Why?

A

will help loosen up phlegm in the lungs. could just be stagnant.

71
Q

What does a Mediastinal shift have to do with a Thoracentesis?

A

The lung on the affected side collapses, and pressure on the mediastinum shifts the thoracic organs to the unaffected side of the chest, placing pressure on the opposite lung as well. Ventilation is severely compromised, and venous return to the heart is impaired. Hypotension and distended neck veins are evident as tension pneumothorax affects venous return and cardiac output. The mediastinal shift also displaces the trachea toward the unaffected side.

72
Q

What supplies and equipment would be needed for a Thoracentesis?

A 
insertion tray
tube
local anesthetic 
suturing supplies
sterile gloves
sterile water
gauze
suction setup and tubing
chest tube collection system
vaseline gauze
silk tape
73
Q

When removing a chest tube what do we instruct the pt to do PRIOR to removing and why?

A

they will take pain medication half hour prior to procedure.

instruct client to take a deep breath, exhale, and bear down. valsalva maneuver.

apply airtight petroleum jelly gauze dressing

74
Q

If the tubing comes undone from the chest tube collection system what action do we do immediately and why?

A

If a chest tube is completely dislodged, cover the site immediately with a sterile gauze dressing. If you can hear air leaking out of the site, make sure the dressing is not occlusive. If it is, it can cause a tension pneumothorax.

75
Q

How does the skin feel on a pt whose chest tube is leaking into his tissues?

A

subq emphysema

crepitus. like bubble wrap

76
Q

Airway suctioning for ADULTS is no longer than ————- why?

A

10 seconds at a time followed by 1 minute intervals 3 times only.

77
Q

What would you expect to see happen in the pt with a vasovagal experience?

A

BP and HR increase
Abrupt fall of BP and HR
Supine on floor

78
Q

Why should pts cough deeply a AFTER postural drainage?

A

allows for air to fully expand the lungs

79
Q

When is the best time to perform postural drainage

A

before eating to prevent vomiting up food.

80
Q

How do we know that postural drainage is actually effective?

A

when patients can breath effectively and or cough up loose phlegm.

81
Q

If your pt is unconscious what position should you place him/her in to facilitate drainage and avoid aspiration? Why?

A

semi fowlers on their side. allows fluid to leave the mouth

so they don’t aspirate

82
Q

Explain pulmonary circulation.

A

Pulmonary circulation is the portion of the cardiovascular system which carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart, to the lungs, and returns oxygenated (oxygen-rich) blood back to the heart.

83
Q

What are the respiratory centers of the brain?

A

medulla and pons

84
Q

Respiratory disorders using a CT scan.

A

allows you to see exactly where a problem is at

85
Q

What is respiratory excursion?

A

Diaphragmatic excursion is the movement of the thoracic diaphragm during breathing

86
Q

Difference between ventilation and respiration

A

respiration is an automatic process that allows for oxygen to be gained into red blood cells, through diffusion via either passive or active transport. … The physical movement of pulling/pushing air throughout the body is breathing/ventilation

87
Q

diffusion

A

gas exchange. alveoli

Term 3 Stanbridge (9 decks)

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