Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 2 - Marc's Respiratory > Respiratory Conditions A > Flashcards

Respiratory Conditions A Flashcards

1
Q

Chronic Brochitis - Description

A

progressive irreversible airway obstruction due to mucus hypersecretion, type of COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Chronic Brochitis - Risk Factors (6)

A

1) smoking
2) age
3) genetics
4) air pollution (e.g. S2, NO2)
5) work pollution (e.g. mining)
6) Caucasian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Chronic Brochitis - Pathophysiology (7)

A

1) exposure to irritants and chemicals
2) inflammation
3) hypertrophy and hyperplasia of mucus secreting goblet cells
4) mucus hypersecretion
5) airway obstruction
6) alveoli hypoxia
7) decreased gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chronic Brochitis - Pathophysiology (Blue Bloater) (5)

A

1) alveoli hypoxia
2) renal hypoxia
3) increased EPO secretion —> polycythaemia
4) increased renin secretion —> fluid retention
5) cyanosed and bloated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chronic Brochitis - Symptoms (3)

A

1) productive cough (more than emphysema)
2) wheeze
3) cachexia (wasting syndrome: anorexia, weight loss, muscle atrophy, fatigue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chronic Brochitis - Signs (4)

A

1) cyanosis
2) coarse rales (abnormal crackling lung sounds)
3) high JVP
4) peripheral oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chronic Brochitis - Complications (5)

A

1) pulmonary hypertension —> cor pulmonale
2) type II respiratory failure
3) pneumonia
4) lung malignancy
5) polycythaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chronic Brochitis - Investigations (5/2)

A 
initial
1) spirometry (FEV1<0.8, FEV1/FVC<0.7)
2) pulse oximetry (low)
3) ABG (PaO2<8kPa ± PaCO2>6.7kPa)
4) FBC (high PCV)
5) ECG (RVH)
consider
1) chest x-ray (exclusion)
2) chest CT (bronchial wall fibrosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chronic Brochitis - Management (3/6/0)

A

conservative
1) smoking cessation
2) pulmonary rehabilitation (inc. exercise, education, breathing techniques)
3) vaccinations (annual influenza, pneumococcal)
medical
1) LAMA
2) SAβA (as required)
3) INH corticosteroid (severe)
4) long term domiciliary oxygen therapy (severe, non-smokers)
5) antimucolytic
6) diuretic (oedema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Emphysema - Description

A

progressive irreversible airway obstruction due to acinar elastin breakdown, type of COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Emphysema - Risk Factors (6)

A

1) smoking
2) age
3) genetics (e.g. alpha-1-antitrypsin-deficiency)
4) air pollution (e.g. S2, NO2)
5) work pollution (e.g. mining)
6) Caucasian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Emphysema - Pathophysiology (8)

A

1) exposure to irritants and chemicals
2) inflammation
3) neutrophil elastase breaks down airway elastin
4) decreased airway elasticity
5) airway expansion on inhalation —> decreased gas exchange surface
6) airway collapse on exhalation —> airway obstruction
7) alveoli trapping
8) decreased gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Emphysema - Pathophysiology (Alpha-1-Antitrypsin-Deficiency) (3)

A

1) decreased hepatic production of alpha-antitrypsin
2) decreased inhibition of neutrophil elastase
3) emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Emphysema - Pathophysiology (Pink Puffer) (5)

A

1) airway collapse on exhalation —> airway obstruction
2) exhale slowly through pursed lips
3) increased airway pressure
4) prevent airway collapse
5) flushing and puffing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Emphysema - Symptoms (3)

A

1) productive cough (less than chronic bronchitis)
2) dyspnoea
3) cachexia (wasting syndrome: anorexia, weight loss, muscle atrophy, fatigue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Emphysema - Signs (4)

A

1) pursed lips
2) barrel chest
3) use of accessory respiratory muscles
4) tachypnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Emphysema - Complications (4)

A

1) pneumothorax
2) type II respiratory failure
3) pneumonia
4) lung malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Emphysema - Investigations (5/2)

A 
initial
1) spirometry (FEV1<0.8, FEV1/FVC<0.7)
2) pulse oximetry (low)
3) ABG (PaO2<8kPa ± PaCO2>6.7kPa)
4) FBC (normal)
5) ECG (normal)
consider
1) chest x-ray (hyperinflation, bullae)
2) alpha-1-antitrypsin level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Emphysema - Management (3/5/0)

A

conservative
1) smoking cessation
2) pulmonary rehabilitation (exercise, education, breathing techniques)
3) vaccinations (annual influenza, pneumococcal)
medical
1) LAMA (+ LAβA in persistent dyspnoea)
2) SAβA (as required)
3) INH corticosteroid (severe)
4) long term domiciliary oxygen therapy (severe, non-smoker)
5) alpha-1-antitrypsin replacement (deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Asthma - Description

A

chronic airway inflammation characterised by airway obstruction and hyperresponsiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Asthma - Causes (7)

A

1) genetic (ADAMS-33)
2) atopy (eczema, atopic dermatitis, allergic rhinitis)
3) family history (inc. atopy)
4) clean childhood environment
5) smoking (inc. passive, e.g. maternal smoking)
6) obesity
7) gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Asthma - Risk Factors (9)

A

1) allergen
2) pollution
3) dust
4) occupation (e.g. wood dust, bleaches, dyes, latex)
5) cold air
6) exercise
7) emotion
8) NSAID
9) βB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Asthma - Pathophysiology (Acute Exacerbation) (14)

A

1) inhalation of allergen
2) allergen activates dendritic cells
3) dendritic cells attract and activate t helper 2 cells
4) t helper 2 cells activate plasma cells
5) plasma cells produce IgE
6) IgE bind to mast cells
7) allergen binds to IgE/mast cell complex
8) mast cell releases histamine
9) histamine causes 1st wave bronchoconstriction and inflammation (after minutes)
10) t helper 2 cells activate eosinophils
11) eosinophils release major basic protein
12) major basic protein induces mast cell histamine release
13) histamine causes 2nd wave of bronchoconstriction and inflammation (after hours)
14) re-inhalation of allergen recurs process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Asthma - Pathophysiology (Chronic Remodelling) (4)

A

1) goblet cell metaplasia —> increased mucus
2) mast cell hyperplasia —> increased histamine
3) smooth muscle hypertrophy —> airway narrowing
4) basement membrane thickening —> airway narrowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Asthma - Pathophysiology (Asthmatic Triad) (3)

A

1) airway obstruction
2) airway hyperresponsiveness
3) airway inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Asthma - Symptoms (4)

A

1) dyspnoea
2) wheeze
3) dry irritating cough
4) cachexia (wasting syndrome: anorexia, weight loss, muscle atrophy, fatigue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Asthma - Signs (4)

A

1) symptoms worse at night
2) use of accessory respiratory muscles
3) hyperinflated chest
4) hyperresonant percussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Asthma - Signs (Severe Attack) (3)

A

1) tachypnoea
2) tachycardia
3) inability to complete sentences in one breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Asthma - Signs (Life-Threatening Attack) (3)

A

1) cyanosis
2) bradycardia
3) silent chest (inability to generate enough airflow to wheeze due to fatigue/exhaustion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Asthma - Complications (4)

A

1) respiratory tract infection
2) pneumonia
3) pneumothorax
4) type II respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Asthma - Investigations (3/4)

A 
initial
1) peak expiratory flow (low) —> bronchodilator test peak expiratory flow (>15% improvement)
2) spirometry (FEV1<0.8, FEV1/FVC<0.7) —> bronchodilator test spirometry (>15% improvement)
3) pulse oximetry (attack)
consider
1) chest x-ray (exclusion)
2) specific IgE assay
3) skin prick test
4) ABG (attack)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Asthma - Management (3/6/0)

A 
conservative
1) avoid allergen
2) inhaler technique
3) vaccinations (influenza)
medical
1) SAβA (as required)
2) + LAβA
3) + INH corticosteroid (beclometasone) (increase dose as required)
4) PO corticosteroid (prednisolone) (severe)
5) montelukast (consider if severe)
6) theophylline (consider if severe)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Asthma - Management (Attack) (5)

A

1) NEB SAβA
2) PO corticosteroid (prednisolone)
3) oxygen therapy (severe)
4) anti-ACh (ipatropium) (severe)
5) magnesium (severe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Description

A

malignant proliferation of lung neuroendocrine cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Risk Factors (6)

A

1) 65-70 years old
2) family history
3) smoking (inc. passive)
4) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
5) occupational (asbestos, coal)
6) radon gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Symptoms (6)

A

1) cough
2) chest pain
3) haemoptysis
4) dyspnoea
5) weight loss
6) fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Complications (7)

A

1) metastasis (adrenal gland, liver, brain, bone)
2) pneumonia
3) pleural effusion
4) paraneoplastic syndrome (10%)
5) recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
6) phrenic nerve palsy
7) superior vena cava syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Complications (Paraneoplastic Syndrome) (4)

A

1) PTH —> hypercalcaemia
2) ADH —> SIADH
3) ACTH —> Cushing’s syndrome
4) VEGF —> hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Investigations (3/2)

A

initial
1) chest x-ray (central mass, pleural effusion, hilar lymphadenopathy)
2) chest CT
3) sputum cytology (malignant cells) (high false negatives)
consider
1) bronchoscopy + biopsy
2) adrenal, liver, brain, bone CT (metastasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Staging (TNM) (4/4/2)

A

tumour
T1) <3cm
T2) >3cm
T3) invades chest wall, pericardium, phrenic nerve
T4) invades mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, oesophagus, vertebrae, carina, recurrent laryngeal nerve
node
N0) no nodes
N1) ipsilateral hilar nodes
N2) ipsilateral mediastinal nodes, subcarinal nodes
N3) contralateral hilar or mediastinal nodes, supraclavicular nodes
metastasis
M0) no metastasis
M1) distant metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Management (0/3/1)

A 
medical
1) chemotherapy
2) radiotherapy
3) prophylactic cranial irradiation
surgery
1) surgical excision (e.g. lobectomy) (rare due to late presentation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Description

A

malignant proliferation of lung cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Risk Factors (6)

A

1) 65-70 years old
2) family history
3) smoking (inc. passive)
4) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
5) occupational (e.g. asbestos, coal)
6) radon gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Symptoms (6)

A

1) cough
2) chest pain
3) haemoptysis
4) dyspnoea
5) weight loss
6) fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Complications (7)

A

1) metastasis (adrenal gland, liver, brain, bone)
2) pneumonia
3) pleural effusion
4) paraneoplastic syndrome (10%)
5) recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
6) phrenic nerve palsy
7) superior vena cava syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Complications (Paraneoplastic Syndrome) (4)

A

1) PHT —> hypercalcaemia
2) ADH —> SIADH
3) ACTH —> Cushing’s syndrome
4) VEGF —> hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Investigations (3/2)

A

1) chest x-ray (central mass, pleural effusion, hilar lymphadenopathy)
2) chest CT
3) sputum cytology (malignant cells) (high false negatives)
consider
1) bronchoscopy + biopsy
2) liver, adrenal, brain, bone CT (metastasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Staging (TNM) (4/4/2)

A

tumour
T1) <3cm
T2) >3cm
T3) invades chest wall, pericardium, phrenic nerve
T4) invades mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, oesophagus, vertebrae, carina, recurrent laryngeal nerve
node
N0) no nodes
N1) ipsilateral hilar nodes
N2) ipsilateral mediastinal nodes, subcarinal nodes
N3) contralateral hilar or mediastinal nodes, supraclavicular nodes
metastasis
M0) no metastasis
M1) distant metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma - Management (0/2/1)

A 
medical
1) chemotherapy
2) radiotherapy
surgery
1) surgical excision (e.g. lobectomy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Pulmonary Embolism - Description

A

embolus blocks pulmonary arterial circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Pulmonary Embolism - Cause (6)

A 
1) deep vein thrombosis
rare
2) right ventricular thrombosis (post MI)
3) septic emboli (right IE)
4) fat emboli (fracture)
5) air emboli
6) amniotic fluid emboli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Pulmonary Embolism - Risk Factors (Change in Blood Flow) (4)

A

1) surgery
2) leg fracture —> plaster of Paris
3) long haul flights
4) obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pulmonary Embolism - Risk Factors (Change in Blood Vessel) (2)

A

1) smoking

2) hypertension

54
Q

Pulmonary Embolism - Risk Factors (Change in Blood Constituents) (6)

A

1) pregnancy
2) oral contraceptive
3) hormone replacement therapy
4) dehydration
5) polycythaemia
6) inherited thrombophilia

55
Q

Pulmonary Embolism - Pathophysiology (3)

A

1) deep vein thrombosis (esp. pelvis, legs)
2) thromboembolus blocks pulmonary artery
3) v/q mismatch

56
Q

Pulmonary Embolism - Symptoms (8)

A

1) asymptomatic (small)
2) chest pain (sudden severe)
3) dyspnoea
4) fatigue
5) presyncope—>syncope
6) fever
7) pleuritic chest pain (pulmonary infarction)
8) haemoptysis (pulmonary infarction)

57
Q

Pulmonary Embolism - Signs (4)

A

1) tachypnoea (shock)
2) tachycardia (shock)
3) hypotension (shock)
4) high JVP (cor pulmonale)

58
Q

Pulmonary Embolism - Complications (7)

A

1) cardiac arrest (pulmonary saddle)
2) cardiogenic shock
3) multiple pulmonary embolisms —> pulmonary hypertension —> cor pulmonale
4) pulmonary infarction
5) respiratory alkalosis
6) pleural effusion
7) heparin induced thrombocytopenia

59
Q

Pulmonary Embolism - Investigations (4/0)

A

1) pulmonary CT angiogram*
2) D-dimer (negative excludes)
3) ventilation/perfusion scan
4) LFT (normal)

60
Q

Pulmonary Embolism - Diagnosis (Well’s Score) (9)

A

≥5 PE likely, <2 PE unlikely

1) active cancer
2) differential calf swelling (>3cm)
3) swelling of entire leg
4) pitting oedema
5) prominent superficial veins
6) localised deep venous system pain
7) paralysis, paresis, recent cast immobility
8) recent bed rest >3 days or major surgery with 12 weeks
9) previous DVT

61
Q

Pulmonary Embolism - Management (0/5/2)

A

medical
1) IV fluids
2) adrenaline
3) oxygen (high flow, 60-100%)
4) anticoagulant (LMW heparin + warfarin)
5) thrombolysis (IV alteplase)
surgery
1) pulmonary thrombectomy (thrombolysis contraindicated)
2) vena caval filter (thrombolysis contraindicated) (can be long term)

62
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia - Description

A

infection of lungs acquired in the community

63
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia - Causes (6)

A 
typical
1) Streptococcus pneumoniae (30-35%)
2) Haemophilus influenzae
3) Morexalla catarrhalis 
atypical (22%)
4) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
5) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
6) Legionella pneumophilia
64
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia - Risk Factors (11)

A

1) >65 years old
2) <16 years old
3) healthcare residence
4) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
5) chronic liver disease
6) chronic kidney disease
7) diabetes mellitus
8) smoking
9) alcohol
10) poor oral hygiene
11) acid-reducing drugs (e.g. PPI)

65
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia - Symptoms (4)

A

1) productive cough (rusty in Strep. pneumoniae)
2) dyspnoea
3) pleuritic pain
4) fever (inc. rigors)

66
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia - Symptoms (Atypical) (4)

A

1) dry cough
2) odynophagia
3) headache
4) diarrhoea

67
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia - Signs (6)

A

1) pyrexia
2) cyanosis
3) tachypnoea
4) tachycardia
5) hypotension
6) confusion (may be only sign in elderly)

68
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia - Signs (Consolidation) (5)

A

1) reduced expansion
2) bronchial breathing
3) dull percussion
4) coarse rales (abnormal crackling lung sounds)
5) increased tactile vocal fremitus (increased vibrations felt during low frequency vocalisation)

69
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia - Complications (9)

A

1) parapneumonic effusion (pleural effusion)
2) lung abscess
3) empyema
4) acute respiratory distress syndrome
5) type I respiratory failure
6) sepsis —> septic shock
7) pericarditis
8) myocarditis
9) atrial fibrillation (esp. elderly)

70
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia - Investigations (5/6)

A 
initial
1) chest x-ray* (consolidation)
2) FBC (leucocytosis)
3) high CRP + ESR
4) pulse oximetry (prognostic)
5) U+E (prognostic)
consider
1) ABG (SaO2<92% or severe)
2) sputum MS+C (common)
3) blood MS+C (severe)
4) diagnostic thoracentesis + pleural fluid MS+C (pleural effusion)
5) bronchoscopy + brush sample MS+C (severe, refractory)
6) urinary Legionella antigen (Leg. pneumophilia)
71
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia - Score (CURB-65) (8)

A

C) confusion (abbr. mental test≥8)
U) urea>7mM
R) respiratory rate≥30/min
B) blood pressure SBP<90 and/or DBP<60
65) >65 years old
1) 0-1 —> home treatment + PO antibiotics
2) 2 —> hospital treatment + PO antibiotics
3) 3-5 —> hospital treatment + IV antibiotics

72
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia - Management (4/4/2)

A 
conservative
1) smoking cessation 
2) rest
3) fluids (IV if dehydrated or shock)
4) vaccination (influenzae, pneumococcal)
medical
1) hospital guideline empirical antibiotics (e.g. amoxicillin, clarithromycin)
2) specific antibiotics (severe)
3) oxygen (aim for SaO2>94% or SaO2>88% in COPD)
4) analgesia (pleuritic pain)
surgery
1) thoracentesis (pleural effusion)
2) surgical drainage (lung abscess)
73
Q

Hospital Acquired Pneumonia - Description

A

infection of lungs acquired >48 hours after hospital admission

74
Q

Hospital Acquired Pneumonia - Definition

A

new onset cough with purulent sputum along with x-ray showing consolidation in patients who were admitted to hospital more than 48 hours ago

75
Q

Hospital Acquired Pneumonia - Causes (4)

A 
1) Staphylococcus aureus (inc. MRSA)
gram negative bacilli*
2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3) Escherichia coli
4) Klebsiella pneumoniae
76
Q

Hospital Acquired Pneumonia - Risk Factors (4)

A

1) poor hand hygiene
2) poor oral hygiene
3) intubation (inc. prolonged sedation)
4) acid-reducing drugs (e.g. PPI)

77
Q

Hospital Acquired Pneumonia - Symptoms (4)

A

1) productive cough
2) dyspnoea
3) pleuritic pain
4) fever (inc. rigors)

78
Q

Hospital Acquired Pneumonia - Signs (6)

A

1) pyrexia
2) cyanosis
3) tachypnoea
4) tachycardia
5) hypotension
6) confusion (may be only sign in elderly)

79
Q

Hospital Acquired Pneumonia - Signs (Consolidation) (5)

A

1) reduced expansion
2) bronchial breathing
3) dull percussion
4) coarse rales (abnormal crackling lung sounds)
5) increased tactile vocal fremitus (increased vibrations felt during low frequency vocalisation)

80
Q

Hospital Acquired Pneumonia - Complications (9)

A

1) parapneumonic effusion (pleural effusion)
2) lung abscess
3) empyema
4) acute respiratory distress syndrome
5) type I respiratory failure
6) sepsis —> septic shock
7) pericarditis
8) myocarditis
9) atrial fibrillation (esp. elderly)

81
Q

Hospital Acquired Pneumonia - Investigations (5/3)

A 
initial
1) chest x-ray* (consolidation)
2) FBC (leucocytosis)
3) high CRP + ESR
4) pulse oximetry
5) bronchoscopy + brush border sample MS+C
consider
1) ABG (SaO2<92% or severe)
2) diagnostic thoracentesis + pleural fluid MS+C (pleural effusion)
3) procalcitonin (antibiotic choice)
82
Q

Hospital Acquired Pneumonia - Management (4/4/2)

A

conservative
1) smoking cessation
2) rest
3) fluids (IV if dehydrated or shock)
4) vaccinations (influenzae, pneumococcal)
medical
1) hospital guideline empirical antibiotics (e.g. amoxicillin, clarithromycin) (before culture results)
2) specific antibiotics (after culture results)
3) oxygen (aim for SaO2>94%, SaO2>88% in COPD)
4) analgesia (pleuritic pain)
surgery
1) thoracentesis (pleural effusion)
2) surgical drainage (lung abscess)

83
Q

Immunocompromised Pneumonia - Description

A

infection of lungs in an immunocompromised patient

84
Q

Immunocompromised Pneumonia - Causes (3)

A

1) Pneumocystic jirovecii
2) opportunistic pathogens
3) normal causes

85
Q

Immunocompromised Pneumonia - Risk Factors (3)

A

1) immunocompromised (e.g. chronic steroids)
2) HIV (CD4+ count < 200 cells/μL)
3) genetics

86
Q

Immunocompromised Pneumonia - Symptoms (5)

A

1) oropharyngeal candiasis (oral thrush)
2) productive cough
3) dyspnoea
4) pleuritic pain
5) fever (inc. rigors)

87
Q

Immunocompromised Pneumonia - Signs (7)

A

1) pyrexia
2) cyanosis
3) tachypnoea
4) tachycardia
5) hypotension
6) confusion (may be only sign in elderly)
7) long duration of symptoms (HIV)

88
Q

Immunocompromised Pneumonia - Signs (Consolidation) (5)

A

1) reduced expansion
2) bronchial breathing
3) dull percussion
4) coarse rales (abnormal crackling lung sounds)
5) increased tactile vocal fremitus (increased vibrations felt during low frequency vocalisation)

89
Q

Immunocompromised Pneumonia - Complications (9)

A

1) parapneumonic effusion (pleural effusion)
2) lung abscess
3) empyema
4) acute respiratory distress syndrome
5) type I respiratory failure
6) sepsis —> septic shock
7) pericarditis
8) myocarditis
9) atrial fibrillation (esp. elderly)

90
Q

Immunocompromised Pneumonia - Investigations (5/3)

A 
initial
1) chest x-ray* (consolidation)
2) FBC (leucocytosis)
3) high CRP + ESR + LDH
4) pulse oximetry
5) sputum MS+C
consider
1) ABG (SaO2<92% or severe)
2) bronchoscopy + brush sample MS+C
3) diagnostic thoracentesis + pleural fluid MS+C (pleural effusion)
91
Q

Immunocompromised Pneumonia - Management (4/4/2)

A

conservative
1) smoking cessation
2) rest
3) fluids (IV if dehydrated or shock)
4) vaccinations (influenzae, pneumococcal)
medical
1) hospital guideline empirical antibiotics (amoxicillin, clarithromycin) (before culture results)
2) specific antibiotics (after culture results)
3) oxygen (aim for SaO2>94%, SaO2>88% in COPD)
4) analgesia (pleuritic pain)
surgery
1) thoracocentesis (pleural effusion)
2) surgical drainage (lung abscess)

92
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia - Description

A

infection of lungs due to inhalation or oropharyngeal contents

93
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia - Risk Factors (7)

A

1) swallowing dysfunction (e.g. stroke, myasthenia gravis, bulbar palsy)
2) gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
3) achalasia
4) intubation
5) feeding tube
6) poor oral hygiene
7) acid-reducing drugs (e.g. PPI)

94
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia - Symptoms (4)

A

1) productive cough
2) dyspnoea
3) pleuritic pain
4) fever (inc. rigors)

95
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia - Signs (8)

A

1) purulent sputum
2) foul smelling breath
3) pyrexia
4) cyanosis
5) tachypnoea
6) tachycardia
7) hypotension
8) confusion (may be only sign in elderly)

96
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia - Signs (Consolidation) (5)

A

1) reduced expansion
2) bronchial breathing
3) dull percussion
4) coarse rales (abnormal crackling lung sounds)
5) increased tactile vocal fremitus (increased vibrations felt during low frequency vocalisation)

97
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia - Complications (9)

A

1) parapneumonic efffusion (pleural effusion)
2) lung abscess
3) empyema
4) acute respiratory distress syndrome
5) type I respiratory failure
6) sepsis —> septic shock
7) pericarditis
8) myocarditis
9) atrial fibrillation (esp. elderly)

98
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia - Investigations (5/3)

A 
initial
1) chest x-ray* (consolidation)
2) FBC (leucocytosis)
3) high CRP + ESR
4) pulse oximetry
5) sputum MS+C
consider
1) ABG (if SaO2<92% or severe)
2) bronchoscopy + brush sample MS+C
3) diagnostic thoracentesis + pleural fluid MS+C (pleural effusion)
99
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia - Management (4/4/2)

A

conservative
1) smoking cessation
2) rest
3) fluids (IV if dehydrated or shock)
4) vaccinations (influenzae, pneumococcal)
medical
1) hospital guideline empirical antibiotics (e.g. amoxicillin, clarithromycin) (before culture results)
2) specific antibiotics (after culture results)
3) oxygen (aim for SaO2>94%, SaO2>88% in COPD)
4) analgesia (pleuritic pain)
surgery
1) thoracentesis (pleural effusion)
2) surgical drainage (lung abscess)

100
Q

Tuberculosis - Description

A

infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis

101
Q

Tuberculosis - Risk Factors (8)

A

1) origin from endemic region (India, China, Sub-Saharan Africa)
2) immunocompromised (e.g. HIV)
3) immunosuppressed (e.g chronic steroids)
4) extremes of age
5) diabetes mellitus
6) IV drug abuse
7) alcohol
8) smoking

102
Q

Tuberculosis - Pathophysiology (Primary) (5)

A

1) airborne exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis via respiratory droplets
2) alveolar macrophages ingest M. tuberculosis
3) M. tuberculosis survive and proliferate within alveolar macrophages
4) alveolar macrophages die and release M. tuberculosis
5) asymptomatic —> flu-like symptoms

103
Q

Tuberculosis - Pathophysiology (Latent) (6)

A

1) type IV cell mediated delayed hypersensitivity reaction to M. tuberculosis
2) subpleural caseating granuloma forms due to tissue necrosis (Ghon focus - initial granuloma)
3) M. tuberculosis spreads to hilar lymph nodes
4) lymph node caseating granuloma forms (Ghon complex - subpleural and associated lymph nodal granulomas)
5) granulomas fibrose and calcify (Ranke complex - calcified Ghon complex)
6) M. tuberculosis lies dormant

104
Q

Tuberculosis - Pathophysiology (Reactivated) (5)

A

1) M. tuberculosis reactive due to compromised immune system (e.g. ageing, severe infection)
2) M. tuberculosis spreads throughout lungs (esp. upper lobes, more oxygenation)
3) memory immune response to M. tuberculosis
4) caseous necrosis forms lung cavities
5) M. tuberculosis disseminates throughout lungs

105
Q

Tuberculosis - Pathophysiology (Miliary) (2)

A

1) M. tuberculosis disseminates to vasculature

2) M. tuberculosis disseminates systemically

106
Q

Tuberculosis - Symptoms (9)

A

1) cough (dry then productive) (>3 weeks)
2) dyspnoea
3) haemoptysis (occasional)
4) pleuritic pain (if pleural involvement)
systemic
1) weight loss*
2) night sweats*
3) fever (low grade)
4) anorexia
5) malaise

107
Q

Tuberculosis - Complications (5)

A

1) pleural effusion
2) bronchiectasis
3) pneumothorax
4) acute respiratory distress syndrome
5) extensive lung destruction

108
Q

Tuberculosis - Investigations (Active) (2/3)

A

initial
1) chest x-ray (fibronodular shadows, calcification, cavitation —> esp. in upper lobes)
2) FBC (anaemia, leucocytosis)
consider
1) sputum nucleic acid amplification test
2) sputum acid-fast bacilli smear
3) sputum culture*

109
Q

Tuberculosis - Investigations (Latent) (2/0)

A

initial

1) tuberculin skin test (>5mm induration if risk factors, >15mm if no risk factors)
2) interferon gamma release assay

110
Q

Tuberculosis - Management (5/4/0)

A 
conservative
1) neonatal BCG vaccine
2) notify Public Health England
3) ensure medical compliance
4) contact tracking
5) screening patient contacts
medical
1) rifampicin (2 months intensive, 4 months continuation)
2) isoniazid (2 months intensive, 4 months continuation)
3) pyrazinamide (2 months intensive)
4) ethambutol (2 months intensive)
111
Q

Type I Respiratory Failure - Description

A

impaired gas exchange leading to hypoxia generally due to a perfusion failure

112
Q

Type I Respiratory Failure - Causes (12)

A

1) pulmonary embolism*
2) pneumonia
3) bronchiectasis
4) cystic fibrosis
5) obstructive sleep apnoea
6) asthma
7) emphysema
8) pulmonary fibrosis
9) pulmonary oedema
10) pleural effusion
11) pneumothorax
12) acute respiratory distress syndrome

113
Q

Type I Respiratory Failure - Symptoms (6)

A

1) dyspnoea (more in type I)
2) confusion (more in type II)
3) headache
4) anxiety (inc. restlessness, agitation)
5) seizure
6) coma (severe)

114
Q

Type I Respiratory Failure - Signs (4)

A

1) cyanosis
2) intercostal space retraction (intercostal muscles pull ribs in)
3) accessory breathing muscle use
4) tachypnoea

115
Q

Type I Respiratory Failure - Complications (5)

A

1) pneumonia
2) pneumothorax
3) heart failure
4) arrythmia
5) pericarditis

116
Q

Type I Respiratory Failure - Investigations (2/7)

A 
initial
1) pulse oximetry (SaO2<80%)
2) ABG (PaO2<8kPa)
consider
find underlying cause
1) FBC
2) U&amp;E
3) CRP
4) ECG
5) chest x-ray
6) spirometry
7) sputum/blood MS&amp;C (fever)
117
Q

Type I Respiratory Failure - Management (0/4/0)

A

medical

1) treat underlying cause
2) face mask oxygen (24-60%)
3) assisted ventilation oxygen (>60%) (e.g. CPAP)
4) endotracheal intubation + mechanical ventilation oxygen (unconscious)

118
Q

Type II Respiratory Failure - Description

A

impaired gas exchange leading to hypoxia and hypercapnia generally due to a ventilation failure

119
Q

Type II Respiratory Failure - Causes (9)

A

1) hypoventilation
2) chronic bronchitis
3) emphysema
4) asthma
5) pulmonary hypertension
6) extreme obesity
7) chest wall deformities (e.g. kyphoscoliosis)
8) muscle weakness (e.g. Guillain-Barre syndrome, motor neurone disease)
9) central respiratory centre depression (e.g. heroin)

120
Q

Type II Respiratory Failure - Symptoms (6)

A

1) dyspnoea (more in type I)
2) confusion (more in type II)
3) headache
4) anxiety (inc. restlessness, agitation)
5) seizure
6) coma (severe)

121
Q

Type II Respiratory Failure - Signs (10)

A

1) cyanosis
2) intercostal space retraction (intercostal muscles pull ribs in)
3) accessory breathing muscle use
4) tachypnoea –> bradypnoea (severe)
5) tachycardia
6) somnolence (strong desire to sleep)
7) bounding pulse
8) stridor
9) inability to speak
10) asterixis

122
Q

Type II Respiratory Failure - Complications (5)

A

1) pneumonia
2) pneumothorax
3) heart failure
4) arrythmia
5) pericarditis

123
Q

Type II Respiratory Failure - Investigations (2/7)

A 
initial
1) pulse oximetry (SaO2<80%)
2) ABG (PaO2<8kPa, PaCO2>6.7kPa)
consider
find underlying cause
1) FBC
2) U&amp;E
3) CRP
4) ECG
5) chest x-ray
6) spirometry
7) sputum/blood MS&amp;C (fever)
124
Q

Type II Respiratory Failure - Management (0/4/0)

A

medical

1) treat underlying cause
2) face mask oxygen (24-60%)
3) assisted ventilation oxygen (>60%) (e.g. CPAP)
4) endotracheal intubation + mechanical ventilation oxygen (unconscious)

125
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome - Description

A

respiratory failure characterised by rapid onset widespread lung inflammation

126
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome - Causes (9)

A

1) pneumonia (inc. aspiration)
2) sepsis
3) acute pancreatitis
4) acute liver failure
5) lung transplant
6) blood transfusion
7) haemorrhage
8) trauma
9) burns

127
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome - Symptoms (2)

A

1) dyspnoea

2) symptoms of underlying cause (esp. fever, cough, pleuritic pain)

128
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome - Signs (5)

A

1) tachypnoea
2) tachycardia
3) cyanosis
4) crepitus (fine end inspiratory rales)
5) low tidal volume

129
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome - Complications (5)

A

1) type I respiratory failure (acute)
2) pneumothorax
3) multiple organ failure
4) pulmonary fibrosis
5) pulmonary oedema (non-cardiogenic)

130
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome - Investigations (2/2)

A

initial
1) chest x-ray (bilateral opacities)
2) ABG (hypoxia)
consider
find underlying cause
1) blood/sputum MS&C (underlying infection)
2) amylase + lipase (>3x upper limit, acute pancreatitis)

131
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome - Diagnosis (4)

A

1) acute onset within 1 week
2) bilateral opacities on chest x-ray
3) refractory hypoxaemia PaO2:FiO2 ≤ 200
4) no congestive heart failure

132
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome - Management (2/4/0)

A 
conservative
1) prone positioning
2) nutritional support
medical
1) oxygen + ventilation (maintain 88-95%)
2) IV fluids (maintain fluid balance)
3) maintain cardiac output (e.g. inotropes, vasodilators)
4) antibiotic (sepsis)

Phase 2 - Marc's Respiratory (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions