Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Atelectasis is a common – complication in which basal alveolar collapse can lead to respiratory difficulty.
It is caused when airways become obstructed by b

Features
it should be suspected in the presentation of d—and – around – hours postoperatively

Management
x2

A

Atelectasis is a common postoperative complication in which basal alveolar collapse can lead to respiratory difficulty. It is caused when airways become obstructed by bronchial secretions.

Features
it should be suspected in the presentation of dyspnoea and hypoxaemia around 72 hours postoperatively

Management
positioning the patient upright
chest physiotherapy: breathing exercises

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2
Q

Consider granulomatosis with polyangiitis when a patient presents with –, – and – involvement

A

Consider granulomatosis with polyangiitis when a patient presents with ENT, respiratory and kidney involvement

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3
Q

The loss of the left heart border is a classic sign of left –. There is no left middle lobe!

A

The loss of the left heart border is a classic sign of left lingula consolidation. There is no left middle lobe!

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4
Q

If there is a ‘white-out’ of a hemithorax it is useful to assess the position of the trachea - is it central, pulled or pushed from the side of opacification.

Trachea pulled toward the white-out ?

Trachea central

Trachea pushed away from the white-out

A

If there is a ‘white-out’ of a hemithorax it is useful to assess the position of the trachea - is it central, pulled or pushed from the side of opacification.

Trachea pulled toward the white-out :
Pneumonectomy
Complete lung collapse e.g. endobronchial intubation
Pulmonary hypoplasia

Trachea central:
Consolidation
Pulmonary oedema (usually bilateral)
Mesothelioma

Trachea pushed away from the white-out:
Pleural effusion
Diaphragmatic hernia
Large thoracic mass

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5
Q

– are the treatment of choice for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

Oral glucocorticoids are the treatment of choice for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

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6
Q

– typically causes upper zone pulmonary fibrosis

A

Tuberculosis typically causes upper zone pulmonary fibrosis

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7
Q

A number of conditions predominantly cause fibrosis of the upper lobes. They can be summarised with the mnemonic
K CHARTS:

K-
C- 
H - 
A - 
R - 
T - 
S -
A
A number of conditions predominantly cause fibrosis of the upper lobes. They can be summarised with the mnemonic CHARTS:
K- Klebsiella
C- Coal worker's pneumoconiosis
H - Histiocytosis/ hypersensitivity pneumonitis
A - Ankylosing spondylitis
R - Radiation
T - Tuberculosis
S - Silicosis/sarcoidosis
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8
Q

Fibrosis predominately affecting the lower zones:

idiopathic—
most — disorders (except —) e.g. SLE
drug-induced: MAB
asbestosis

A

Fibrosis predominately affecting the lower zones
idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
most connective tissue disorders (except ankylosing spondylitis) e.g. SLE
drug-induced: amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate
asbestosis

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9
Q

The most common organism causing infective exacerbations of COPD is —

A

The most common organism causing infective exacerbations of COPD is Haemophilus influenzae

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10
Q

NICE guidelines from 2010 recommend the following:
COPD Exacerbations
increase frequency of –use and consider giving via a –
give — 30 mg daily for 5 days

it is common practice for all patients with an exacerbation of COPD to receive –
NICE do not support this approach.
They recommend giving oral — ‘if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of —’
the BNF recommends one of the following oral antibiotics first-line: –or clarithromycin or doxycyclin

A

NICE guidelines from 2010 recommend the following:
increase frequency of bronchodilator use and consider giving via a nebuliser
give prednisolone 30 mg daily for 5 days
it is common practice for all patients with an exacerbation of COPD to receive antibiotics. NICE do not support this approach. They recommend giving oral antibiotics ‘if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia’
the BNF recommends one of the following oral antibiotics first-line: amoxicillin or clarithromycin or doxycyclin

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11
Q

Common causes of lobar collapse include:
– (the most common cause in older adults)
— (due to mucous plugging)
foreign –

The general signs of lobar collapse on a chest x-ray are as follows:
tracheal deviation — side of the collapse
mediastinal shift — side of the collapse
– of the hemidiaphragm

A

Common causes of lobar collapse include:
lung cancer (the most common cause in older adults)
asthma (due to mucous plugging)
foreign body

The general signs of lobar collapse on a chest x-ray are as follows:
tracheal deviation towards the side of the collapse
mediastinal shift towards the side of the collapse
elevation of the hemidiaphragm

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12
Q

Pulmonary fibrosis causes restrictive spirometry picture (FEV1:FVC –70%, — FVC)

and – gas exchange (—TLCO)

A

Pulmonary fibrosis causes restrictive spirometry picture (FEV1:FVC >70%, decreased FVC) and impaired gas exchange (reduced TLCO)

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13
Q
Acute asthma: management
Moderate	
PEFR --% best or predicted
Speech --
RR < -- / min
Pulse < --- bpm	
severe
PEFR --% best or predicted
Speech --
RR < -- / min
Pulse < --- bpm	
Life threatening
PEFR < --% best or predicted
Oxygen sats < --%
'Normal' pC02 (4.6-6.0 kPa)
-- chest, cyanosis or feeble re--
Exhaustion, confusion or coma
A
Moderate	
PEFR 50-75% best or predicted
Speech normal
RR < 25 / min
Pulse < 110 bpm	
severe
PEFR 33 - 50% best or predicted
Can't complete sentences
RR > 25/min
Pulse > 110 bpm
life threatening:
PEFR < 33% best or predicted
Oxygen sats < 92%
'Normal' pC02 (4.6-6.0 kPa)
Silent chest, cyanosis or feeble respiratory effort
Bradycardia, dysrhythmia or hypotension
Exhaustion, confusion or coma
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14
Q

Acute asthma: management

Further assessment
the BTS guidelines recommend – for patients with oxygen sats < 92%
a –is not routinely recommended, unless:
life-threatening asthma
suspected pneumothorax
failure to respond to treatment

Management

1.oxygen
if patients are hypoxaemic, it is important to start them on supplemental oxygen therapy
if patients are acutely unwell they should be started on –L of supplemental via a non-rebreathe mask, which can then be titrated down to a flow rate where they are able to maintain a SpO₂ –%.

  1. bronchodilation with
  2. corticosteroid
    all patients should be given 40-50mg of – orally (PO) daily, which should be continued for at least five days or until the patient recovers from the attack
    during this time, patients should continue their normal medication routine including inhaled corticosteroids.
  3. – bromide: in patients with severe or life-threatening asthma, or in patients who have not responded to beta₂-agonist and corticosteroid treatment, nebulised ipratropium bromide, a short-acting muscarinic antagonist
  4. IV —
    the BTS notes that the evidence base is mixed for this treatment that is now commonly given for severe/life-threatening asthma
  5. IV – may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff
    patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting.
    Treatment options include:
    intubation and ventilation
    extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)

Criteria for discharge
been stable on their discharge medication (i.e. no nebulisers or oxygen) for – hours
inhaler technique checked and recorded
PEF >–% of best or predicted

A

Further assessment
the BTS guidelines recommend – for patients with oxygen sats < 92%
a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended, unless:
life-threatening asthma
suspected pneumothorax
failure to respond to treatment

Management
admission
all patients with life-threatening should be admitted in hospital
patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment.
other admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid and presentation at night
oxygen
if patients are hypoxaemic, it is important to start them on supplemental oxygen therapy
if patients are acutely unwell they should be started on 15L of supplemental via a non-rebreathe mask, which can then be titrated down to a flow rate where they are able to maintain a SpO₂ 94-98%.
bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA)
high-dose inhaled SABA e.g. salbutamol, terbutaline
in patients without features of life-threatening or near-fatal asthma, this can be given by a standard pressurised metered-dose inhaler (pMDI) or by an oxygen-driven nebulizer
in patients with features of a life-threatening exacerbation of asthma, nebulised SABA is recommended
corticosteroid
all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, which should be continued for at least five days or until the patient recovers from the attack
during this time, patients should continue their normal medication routine including inhaled corticosteroids.
ipratropium bromide: in patients with severe or life-threatening asthma, or in patients who have not responded to beta₂-agonist and corticosteroid treatment, nebulised ipratropium bromide, a short-acting muscarinic antagonist
IV magnesium sulphate
the BTS notes that the evidence base is mixed for this treatment that is now commonly given for severe/life-threatening asthma
IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff
patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Treatment options include:
intubation and ventilation
extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)

Criteria for discharge
been stable on their discharge medication (i.e. no nebulisers or oxygen) for 12–24 hours
inhaler technique checked and recorded
PEF >75% of best or predicted

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15
Q

Acute respiratory distress syndrome can only be diagnosed in the absence of a — for pulmonary oedema (i.e. the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure must not be –)

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome can only be diagnosed in the absence of a cardiac cause for pulmonary oedema (i.e. the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure must not be raised)

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16
Q

Pleural infection

All patients with a pleural effusion in association with – or a — require diagnostic pleural fluid sampling
if the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy a — should be placed to allow drainage
if the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection a — should be placed

A

Pleural infection

All patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness require diagnostic pleural fluid sampling
if the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage
if the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection a chest tube should be placed

17
Q

Pleural aspiration

as above, —is recommended to reduce the complication rate

a –G needle and 50ml syringe should be used
fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology and microbiology

Light’s criteria was developed in 1972 to help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate.
The BTS recommend using the criteria for borderline cases:
— have a protein level of >30 g/L, — have a protein level of <30 g/L
if the protein level is between 25-35 g/L, Light’s criteria should be applied.

An exudate is likely if at least one of the following criteria are met: pleural fluid or serum
– fluid protein divided by – protein >0.5
– LDH divided by – LDH >0.6
pleural fluid LDH more than two-thirds the upper limits of normal serum LDH

Other characteristic pleural fluid findings:
low glucose: rheumatoid arthritis, tuberculosis
raised amylase: pancreatitis, oesophageal perforation
heavy blood staining: mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, tuberculosis

A

Pleural aspiration
as above, ultrasound is recommended to reduce the complication rate
a 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used
fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology and microbiology

Light’s criteria was developed in 1972 to help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate. The BTS recommend using the criteria for borderline cases:
exudates have a protein level of >30 g/L, transudates have a protein level of <30 g/L
if the protein level is between 25-35 g/L, Light’s criteria should be applied. An exudate is likely if at least one of the following criteria are met:
pleural fluid protein divided by serum protein >0.5
pleural fluid LDH divided by serum LDH >0.6
pleural fluid LDH more than two-thirds the upper limits of normal serum LDH

Other characteristic pleural fluid findings:
low glucose: rheumatoid arthritis, tuberculosis
raised amylase: pancreatitis, oesophageal perforation
heavy blood staining: mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, tuberculosis

18
Q

Pleural effusions may be classified as being either a transudate or exudate according to the protein concentration.

Transudate (< –g/L protein):
– failure (most common transudate cause)
hypo— (liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, malabsorption)
hypo–
–syndrome

Exudate (> 30g/L protein)
infection: --- (most common exudate cause), TB, subphrenic abscess
connective tissue disease: ---
neoplasia: -- cancer, --thelioma, metastases
pancreatitis
pulmonary ---
--- syndrome
--nail syndrome
Features
dyspnoea, non-productive cough or chest pain are possible presenting symptoms
classic examination findings include 
-- to percussion, 
-- breath sounds and 
--- chest expansion
A

Pleural effusions may be classified as being either a transudate or exudate according to the protein concentration.

Transudate (< 30g/L protein)
heart failure (most common transudate cause)
hypoalbuminaemia (liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, malabsorption)
hypothyroidism
Meigs’ syndrome

Exudate (> 30g/L protein)
infection: pneumonia (most common exudate cause), TB, subphrenic abscess
connective tissue disease: RA, SLE
neoplasia: lung cancer, mesothelioma, metastases
pancreatitis
pulmonary embolism
Dressler's syndrome
yellow nail syndrome

Features
dyspnoea, non-productive cough or chest pain are possible presenting symptoms
classic examination findings include dullness to percussion, reduced breath sounds and reduced chest expansion

19
Q

Normal/raised total gas transfer with raised transfer coefficient: – or–

A

Normal/raised total gas transfer with raised transfer coefficient: Asthma or pulmonary haemorrhage

20
Q

Large – in COPD can mimic a pneumothorax

A

Large bullae in COPD can mimic a pneumothorax

21
Q

Respiratory causes of clubbing:

--- cancer
pyogenic conditions: x4
t
a, 
m-
fibrosing -
A
Respiratory causes
lung cancer
pyogenic conditions: cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, abscess, empyema
tuberculosis
asbestosis, mesothelioma
fibrosing alveolitis
22
Q

Sarcoidosis: management

Sarcoidosis is a multisystem disorder of unknown aetiology characterised by non-caseating –.
It is more common in young adults and in people of – descent.

Indications for steroids
patients with chest x-ray stage 2 or 3 disease who are symptomatic.
Patients with asymptomatic and stable stage 2 or 3 disease who have only mildly abnormal lung function do not require treatment
hyper–
e–, h– or n–involvement

A

Sarcoidosis: management

Sarcoidosis is a multisystem disorder of unknown aetiology characterised by non-caseating granulomas. It is more common in young adults and in people of African descent.

Indications for steroids
patients with chest x-ray stage 2 or 3 disease who are symptomatic. Patients with asymptomatic and stable stage 2 or 3 disease who have only mildly abnormal lung function do not require treatment
hypercalcaemia
eye, heart or neuro involvement

23
Q

Klebsiella most commonly causes a cavitating pneumonia in the –lobes, mainly in —and –

A

Klebsiella most commonly causes a cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobes, mainly in diabetics and alcoholics

24
Q

Syndromes associated with sarcoidosis

–syndrome is an acute form of the disease characterised by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), erythema nodosum, fever and polyarthralgia. It usually carries an excellent prognosis

In — syndrome* there is enlargement of the parotid and lacrimal glands due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis or lymphoma

—syndrome (uveoparotid fever) there is parotid enlargement, fever and uveitis secondary to sarcoidosis

*this term is now considered outdated and unhelpful by many as there is a confusing overlap with Sjogren’s syndrome

A

Syndromes associated with sarcoidosis

Lofgren’s syndrome is an acute form of the disease characterised by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), erythema nodosum, fever and polyarthralgia. It usually carries an excellent prognosis

In Mikulicz syndrome* there is enlargement of the parotid and lacrimal glands due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis or lymphoma

Heerfordt’s syndrome (uveoparotid fever) there is parotid enlargement, fever and uveitis secondary to sarcoidosis

*this term is now considered outdated and unhelpful by many as there is a confusing overlap with Sjogren’s syndrome

25
Q

Asthma management steps steps:

1 Newly-diagnosed asthma:
2 Not controlled on previous step
OR Newly-diagnosed asthma with symptoms >= 3 / week or night-time waking: — + —
3 – + – + —
4 – + – + l–
Continue —depending on patient’s response

5 – +/- –
Switch — for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART), that includes a —
6 — +/- — + –

7 — +/- — + one of the following options:
increase —-
a trial of an additional drug (for example,— antagonist or —)
seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma

A

NICE do not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines. However, to try to make the guidelines easier to follow we’ve added our own steps:

Step Notes
1 Newly-diagnosed asthma Short-acting beta agonist (SABA)
2Not controlled on previous step
OR Newly-diagnosed asthma with symptoms >= 3 / week or night-time waking SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
3SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)
4SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA)
Continue LTRA depending on patient’s response to LTRA
5SABA +/- LTRA
Switch ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART), that includes a low-dose ICS
6SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART
OR consider changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA
7SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options:
increase ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regime, not as a MART)
a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline)
seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma

26
Q

NICE recommend that the following information is given to patients with pneumonia in terms of how quickly their symptoms should symptoms should resolve:

Time Progress
1 week — should have resolved
4 weeks —and — should have substantially reduced
6 weeks — and – should have substantially reduced
3 months Most symptoms should have resolved but – may still be present
6 monthsMost people will feel back to normal.

A

NICE recommend that the following information is given to patients with pneumonia in terms of how quickly their symptoms should symptoms should resolve:

Time Progress
1 week Fever should have resolved
4 weeks Chest pain and sputum production should have substantially reduced
6 weeks Cough and breathlessness should have substantially reduced
3 months Most symptoms should have resolved but fatigue may still be present
6 months Most people will feel back to normal.

27
Q

Pneumonia- Investigations

  1. in intermediate or high-risk patients NICE recommend blood and –, pneumococcal and legionella— tests
    - - monitoring is recommend for admitted patients to help determine response to treatment

Management of low-severity community acquired pneumonia:

– is first-line
if — allergic then use a — or tetracycline
NICE now recommend a – day course of antibiotics for patients with low severity community acquired pneumonia

Management of moderate and high-severity community acquired pneumonia:
dual antibiotic therapy is recommended with –and a –
a 7-10 day course is recommended
NICE recommend considering a beta-lactamase stable penicillin such as co-amoxiclav, ceftriaxone or piperacillin with — and a macrolide in high-severity community acquired pneumonia

A

Investigations
chest x-ray
in intermediate or high-risk patients NICE recommend blood and sputum cultures, pneumococcal and legionella urinary antigen tests
CRP monitoring is recommend for admitted patients to help determine response to treatment

Management of low-severity community acquired pneumonia
amoxicillin is first-line
if penicillin allergic then use a macrolide or tetracycline
NICE now recommend a 5 day course of antibiotics for patients with low severity community acquired pneumonia

Management of moderate and high-severity community acquired pneumonia
dual antibiotic therapy is recommended with amoxicillin and a macrolide
a 7-10 day course is recommended
NICE recommend considering a beta-lactamase stable penicillin such as co-amoxiclav, ceftriaxone or piperacillin with tazobactam and a macrolide in high-severity community acquired pneumonia

28
Q

IPF:

Features
progressive exertional ---
--- fine end--- crepitations on auscultation
dry cough
clubbing

Diagnosis
spirometry: classically a – picture (FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, FEV1/FVC increased)

impaired gas exchange: reduced–

imaging: – interstitial shadowing (typically small, irregular, peripheral opacities - ‘ground-glass’ - later progressing to ‘–’) may be seen on a chest x-ray but
- —- is the investigation of choice and required to make a diagnosis of IPF
- - positive in 30%, rheumatoid factor positive in 10% but this does not necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease. Titres are usually low

A
Features
progressive exertional dyspnoea
bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation
dry cough
clubbing

Diagnosis
spirometry: classically a restrictive picture (FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, FEV1/FVC increased)
impaired gas exchange: reduced transfer factor (TLCO)
imaging: bilateral interstitial shadowing (typically small, irregular, peripheral opacities - ‘ground-glass’ - later progressing to ‘honeycombing’) may be seen on a chest x-ray but high-resolution CT scanning is the investigation of choice and required to make a diagnosis of IPF
ANA positive in 30%, rheumatoid factor positive in 10% but this does not necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease. Titres are usually low

29
Q

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

Genetics
located on chromosome -
inherited in an autosomal – / co-dominant fashion*

alleles classified by their electrophoretic mobility - M for normal, S for slow, and Z for very slow
normal = Pi–
homozygous Pi– (50% normal A1AT levels)
homozygous Pi– (10% normal A1AT levels)

Features
patients who manifest disease usually have Pi– genotype
lungs: panacinar –, most marked in – lobes
liver: cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma in adults, cholestasis in children

A

Genetics
located on chromosome 14
inherited in an autosomal recessive / co-dominant fashion*
alleles classified by their electrophoretic mobility - M for normal, S for slow, and Z for very slow
normal = PiMM
homozygous PiSS (50% normal A1AT levels)
homozygous PiZZ (10% normal A1AT levels)

Features
patients who manifest disease usually have PiZZ genotype
lungs: panacinar emphysema, most marked in lower lobes
liver: cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma in adults, cholestasis in children

30
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia:
The right – and – lung lobes are the most common sites affected, due to the larger calibre and more vertical orientation of the right main bronchus.

The bacteria often implicated in aspiration pneumonia are aerobic, and often include:
x4

A

The right middle and lower lung lobes are the most common sites affected, due to the larger calibre and more vertical orientation of the right main bronchus.

The bacteria often implicated in aspiration pneumonia are aerobic, and often include:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Haemophilus influenzae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
31
Q

Sarcoidosis may cause –

A

hypercalcaemia

32
Q

Asthmatic features/features suggesting steroid responsiveness in COPD:

previous diagnosis of –or –
a higher blood— count
substantial variation in — over time (at least 400 ml)
substantial diurnal variation in — (at least 20%)

A

Asthmatic features/features suggesting steroid responsiveness in COPD:
previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy
a higher blood eosinophil count
substantial variation in FEV1 over time (at least 400 ml)
substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow (at least 20%)

33
Q

In patients who are critically ill (anaphylaxis, shock etc) oxygen should initially be given via a – mask at –l/min.
Hypoxia kills.
The BTS guidelines specifically exclude certain conditions where the patient is acutely unwell (e.g. myocardial infarction) but stable.

Oxygen saturation targets
acutely ill patients: –%
patients at risk of hypercapnia (e.g. COPD patients): –% (see below)
oxygen should be reduced in stable patients with satisfactory oxygen saturation

Management of COPD patients
prior to availability of blood gases, use a –% – at - l/min and aim for an oxygen saturation of —% for patients with risk factors for hypercapnia but no prior history of respiratory acidosis
adjust target range to –% if the pCO2 is normal

A

In patients who are critically ill (anaphylaxis, shock etc) oxygen should initially be given via a reservoir mask at 15 l/min. Hypoxia kills. The BTS guidelines specifically exclude certain conditions where the patient is acutely unwell (e.g. myocardial infarction) but stable.

Oxygen saturation targets
acutely ill patients: 94-98%
patients at risk of hypercapnia (e.g. COPD patients): 88-92% (see below)
oxygen should be reduced in stable patients with satisfactory oxygen saturation

Management of COPD patients
prior to availability of blood gases, use a 28% Venturi mask at 4 l/min and aim for an oxygen saturation of 88-92% for patients with risk factors for hypercapnia but no prior history of respiratory acidosis
adjust target range to 94-98% if the pCO2 is normal

34
Q

— can cause empyema formation

A

Klebsiella can cause empyema formation

35
Q

Asthma Diagnostic testing

Patients >= 17 years
patients should be asked if their symptoms are better on days away from work/during holidays. If so, patients should be referred to a specialist as possible – asthma

all patients should have – with a — (BDR) test
all patients should have a – test

Patients 5-16 years
all patients should have – with a — test
a – test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test

Patients < 5 years
- diagnosis should be made on clinical judgement

A

Diagnostic testing

Patients >= 17 years
patients should be asked if their symptoms are better on days away from work/during holidays. If so, patients should be referred to a specialist as possible occupational asthma
all patients should have spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test
all patients should have a FeNO test

Patients 5-16 years
all patients should have spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test
a FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test

Patients < 5 years
- diagnosis should be made on clinical judgement

36
Q

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

The most common causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy are – and –.

A

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

The most common causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy are sarcoidosis and tuberculosis.