Oncology +Palliation Flashcards

1
Q

Bone metastases can present as –

A

pathological fractures

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2
Q

Most common tumour causing bone metastases
(in descending order)

Most common site (in descending order)

Other than bone pain, features may include:
pathological –
hyper–
raised –

A

Most common tumour causing bone metastases (in descending order)
prostate
breast
lung

Most common site (in descending order)
spine
pelvis
ribs
skull
long bones

Other than bone pain, features may include:
pathological fractures
hypercalcaemia
raised ALP

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3
Q

– lung cancer has the strongest association with smoking

A

Squamous cell

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4
Q

There are three main subtypes of non-small cell lung cancer:

Squamous cell cancer
typically --
associated with --- secretion → hyper---
strongly associated with ---
hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)

Adenocarcinoma
typically —
most common type of lung cancer in —
although the majority of patients who develop lung adenocarcinoma are –

Large cell lung carcinoma
typically —
anaplastic, poorly differentiated tumours with a — prognosis
may secrete –

A

There are three main subtypes of non-small cell lung cancer:

Squamous cell cancer
typically central
associated with parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP) secretion → hypercalcaemia
strongly associated with finger clubbing
hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)

Adenocarcinoma
typically peripheral
most common type of lung cancer in non-smokers, although the majority of patients who develop lung adenocarcinoma are smokers

Large cell lung carcinoma
typically peripheral
anaplastic, poorly differentiated tumours with a poor prognosis
may secrete β-hCG

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5
Q

Chemotherapy side-effects: nausea and vomiting

For patients at low-risk of symptoms then drugs such as — may be used first-line.

For high-risk patients then – receptor antagonists such as ondansetron are often effective, especially if combined with dexamethasone

A

Chemotherapy side-effects: nausea and vomiting
For patients at low-risk of symptoms then drugs such as metoclopramide may be used first-line.
For high-risk patients then 5HT3 receptor antagonists such as ondansetron are often effective, especially if combined with dexamethasone

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6
Q

– is associated with hypomagnesaemia

A

Cisplatin is associated with hypomagnesaemia

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7
Q

Alkylating agents
EG
MOA
SE- Haemorrhagic—, myelo—, —carcinoma

A

Alkylating agents

Cytotoxic Mechanism of action Adverse effects
Cyclophosphamide Alkylating agent - causes cross-linking in DNA Haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, transitional cell carcinoma

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8
Q

Cytotoxic antibiotics
Bleomycin Degrades preformed DNA SEx1?

Anthracyclines (e.g —) Stabilizes DNA-topoisomerase II complex inhibits DNA & RNA synthesis SEx1?

A

Cytotoxic antibiotics

Bleomycin-Degrades preformed DNA -Lung fibrosis

Anthracyclines (e.g doxorubicin) Stabilizes DNA-topoisomerase II complex inhibits DNA & RNA synthesis Cardiomyopathy

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9
Q

Antimetabolites

Methotrexate -Inhibits – reductase and thymidylate synthesis-
SE:? Myelo—, –itis, liver -, lung –

Fluorouracil (5-FU) — analogue inducing cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase (works during - phase)
SE:? Myelo— –itis, –itis

A

Antimetabolites

Methotrexate Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis Myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, lung fibrosis
Fluorouracil (5-FU) Pyrimidine analogue inducing cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase (works during S phase) Myelosuppression, mucositis, dermatitis

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10
Q

– is used to suppress nausea and vomiting with intracranial tumours

A

Dexamethasone is used to suppress nausea and vomiting with intracranial tumours

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11
Q

1 - Ondansetron is a — receptor antagonist and is useful in —enteritis or –induced nausea.
2 - Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used as an —in palliative care
4 - Cyclizine is a —antagonist used to treat —induced nausea
5 - Metoclopramide is a —antagonist used to promote —

A

1 - Ondansetron is a 5HT-3 receptor antagonist and is useful in gastroenteritis or chemotherapy induced nausea.
2 - Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used as an anti-emetic in palliative care
4 - Cyclizine is a H1-antagonist used to treat inner-ear induced nausea
5 - Metoclopramide is a D2-antagonist used to promote bowel motility

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12
Q

Immune checkpoint inhibitor-Types:

Ipilimumab (Yervoy) is a checkpoint inhibitor that blocks -. It is a treatment for advanced –.

Nivolumab (Opdivo) and pembrolizumab (Keytruda) blocks –
These are treatments for —, — ,– lung cancer and — cancers.

Atezolizumab, Avelumab and Durvalumab block –and is used to treat — cancer and —cancer. It is also undergoing trials as a treatment for breast cancer.

A

Ipilimumab (Yervoy) is a checkpoint inhibitor that blocks CTLA-4 (cytotoxic T lymphocyte-associated protein 4). It is a treatment for advanced melanoma.

Nivolumab (Opdivo) and pembrolizumab (Keytruda) blocks PD-1 (programmed cell death protein 1). These are treatments for melanoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, non-small cell lung cancer and urological cancers
.
Atezolizumab, Avelumab and Durvalumab block PD-L1 and is used to treat lung cancer and urothelial cancer. It is also undergoing trials as a treatment for breast cancer.

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13
Q

Genetics and surgical disease

Li-Fraumeni Syndrome
Autosomal —
Consists of germline mutations to —–gene
High incidence of malignancies particularly —and –
Diagnosed when:

  • Individual develops sarcoma under — years
  • — degree relative diagnosed with any cancer below age – years and another family member develops malignancy under — years or — at any age
A

Li-Fraumeni Syndrome
Autosomal dominant
Consists of germline mutations to p53 tumour suppressor gene
High incidence of malignancies particularly sarcomas and leukaemias
Diagnosed when:

  • Individual develops sarcoma under 45 years
  • First degree relative diagnosed with any cancer below age 45 years and another family member develops malignancy under 45 years or sarcoma at any age
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14
Q

Genetics and surgical disease
BRCA 1 and 2
Carried on chromosome – (BRCA 1) and Chromosome – (BRCA 2)
Linked to developing — cancer (60%) risk.
Associated risk of developing – cancer (55% with BRCA 1 and 25% with BRCA 2).
BRCA2 mutation is associated with – cancer in men

A

BRCA 1 and 2
Carried on chromosome 17 (BRCA 1) and Chromosome 13 (BRCA 2)
Linked to developing breast cancer (60%) risk.
Associated risk of developing ovarian cancer (55% with BRCA 1 and 25% with BRCA 2).
BRCA2 mutation is associated with prostate cancer in men

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15
Q

Genetics and surgical disease
Lynch Syndrome
Autosomal –
Develop – cancer and — cancer at young age
80% of affected individuals will get – and/ or – cancer
High risk individuals may be identified using the Amsterdam criteria

Amsterdam criteria
— or more family members with a confirmed diagnosis of— cancer, one of whom is a first degree (parent, child, sibling) relative of the other two.
— successive affected generations.
One or more – cancers diagnosed under age — years.
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) has been excluded.

A

Lynch Syndrome
Autosomal dominant
Develop colonic cancer and endometrial cancer at young age
80% of affected individuals will get colonic and/ or endometrial cancer
High risk individuals may be identified using the Amsterdam criteria

Amsterdam criteria
Three or more family members with a confirmed diagnosis of colorectal cancer, one of whom is a first degree (parent, child, sibling) relative of the other two.
Two successive affected generations.
One or more colon cancers diagnosed under age 50 years.
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) has been excluded.

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16
Q

Genetics and surgical disease

Gardners syndrome
Autosomal — familial colorectal polyposis
Multiple – polyps
Extra colonic diseases include: – osteoma, – cancer and – cysts
— tumours are seen in 15%
Mutation of APC gene located on chromosome –

Due to – polyps most patients will undergo colectomy to reduce risk of colorectal cancer
Now considered a variant of familial adenomatous polyposis coli

A

Gardners syndrome
Autosomal dominant familial colorectal polyposis
Multiple colonic polyps
Extra colonic diseases include: skull osteoma, thyroid cancer and epidermoid cysts
Desmoid tumours are seen in 15%
Mutation of APC gene located on chromosome 5
Due to colonic polyps most patients will undergo colectomy to reduce risk of colorectal cancer
Now considered a variant of familial adenomatous polyposis coli

17
Q

Tumour marker Association
CA –Ovarian cancer
CA – Pancreatic cancer
CA – Breast cancer

Tumour antigens

Tumour marker Association

  • -Prostatic carcinoma
  • -Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
  • –Colorectal cancer
  • –Melanoma, schwannomas
  • -Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer, neuroblastoma
A

Tumour marker Association
CA 125 Ovarian cancer
CA 19-9 Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3 Breast cancer

Tumour antigens

Tumour marker Association
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) Prostatic carcinoma
Alpha-feto protein (AFP) Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) Colorectal cancer
S-100 Melanoma, schwannomas
Bombesin Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer, neuroblastoma

18
Q

Starting treatment

when starting treatment, offer patients with advanced and progressive disease regular oral modified-release (MR) or oral immediate-release morphine (depending on patient preference), with oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain
if no comorbidities use –mg of MR a day with -mg morphine for breakthrough pain.
For example, –mg modified-release morphine tablets twice a day with -mg of oral morphine solution as required
oral modified-release morphine should be used in preference to transdermal patches
– should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids

A

Starting treatment
when starting treatment, offer patients with advanced and progressive disease regular oral modified-release (MR) or oral immediate-release morphine (depending on patient preference), with oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain
if no comorbidities use 20-30mg of MR a day with 5mg morphine for breakthrough pain. For example, 15mg modified-release morphine tablets twice a day with 5mg of oral morphine solution as required
oral modified-release morphine should be used in preference to transdermal patches
laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids
patients should be advised that nausea is often transient. If it persists then an antiemetic should be offered
drowsiness is usually transient - if it does not settle then adjustment of the dose should be considered

19
Q

SIGN issued guidance on the control of pain in adults with cancer in 2008.

the breakthrough dose of morphine is one— the daily dose of morphine
all patients who receive opioids should be prescribed a –
opioids should be used with caution in patients with — disease

— is preferred to morphine in palliative patients with mild-moderate renal impairment
if renal impairment is more severe, alfentanil, buprenorphine and fentanyl are preferred

metastatic bone pain may respond to strong –, – or –

The assertion that NSAIDs are particularly effective for metastatic bone pain is not supported by studies.

A

SIGN issued guidance on the control of pain in adults with cancer in 2008. Selected points
the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose of morphine
all patients who receive opioids should be prescribed a laxative
opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease
oxycodone is preferred to morphine in palliative patients with mild-moderate renal impairment
if renal impairment is more severe, alfentanil, buprenorphine and fentanyl are preferred
metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates or radiotherapy. The assertion that NSAIDs are particularly effective for metastatic bone pain is not supported by studies. Strong opioids have the lowest number needed to treat for relieving the pain and can provide quick relief, in contrast to radiotherapy and bisphosphonates*. All patients, however, should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for consideration of further treatments such as radiotherapy

20
Q

Oral codeine Oral morphine Divide by –

Oral tramadol Oral morphine Divide by –

A

Oral codeine Oral morphine Divide by 10

Oral tramadol Oral morphine Divide by 10**

21
Q

Oral morphine Oral oxycodone Divide by –

Oral morphine Subcutaneous morphine Divide by
Oral morphine Subcutaneous diamorphine Divide by
Oral oxycodone Subcutaneous diamorphine Divide by

A

Oral morphine Oral oxycodone Divide by 1.5-2

Oral morphineSubcutaneous morphine Divide by 2
Oral morphine-Subcutaneous diamorphineDivide by3
Oral oxycodone-Subcutaneous diamorphine-Divide by 1.5

22
Q

— is a good first line anti-emetic for intracranial causes of nausea and vomiting

A

Cyclizine is a good first line anti-emetic for intracranial causes of nausea and vomiting