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PassMed > October > Flashcards

October Flashcards

1
Q

– is commonly used to treat acute hypophosphataemia in adults

A

Intravenous infusion of phosphate polyfusor

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2
Q

– with a history of malignancy? Think liver metastasis

A

Hepatomegaly

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3
Q

Spironolactone may cause —

A

gynaecomastia

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4
Q

— need same day assessment by ENT

A

Auricular haematomas

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5
Q

The most common organism causing infective exacerbations of COPD is —

— is classically seen in alcoholics. Chest x-ray features may include abscess formation in the —/– lobes and empyema.

— is a cause of atypical pneumonia which often affects younger patients, frequently those living in crowded accommodation. It is associated with a number of characteristic complications such as erythema multiforme and cold — —- anemia.

A

Haemophilus influenzae

Klebsiella pneumoniae- middle/upper

Mycoplasma pneumoniae
autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

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6
Q

— —is characterised by extremely high serum PTH with moderately raised serum calcium

A

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

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7
Q

– with impaired GCS: give IV Glucose if there is access

A

Hypoglycaemia

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8
Q

Asymptomatic patients with an abnormal HbA1c or fasting glucose must be confirmed with —– before a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes is confirmed

A

a second abnormal reading

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9
Q

— coma typically presents with confusion and hypothermia.

A

Myxoedema

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10
Q

Failure to comply with thyroxine replacement will result in an increase in — associated with a low —.
However, patients often compensate before having their blood tests done or before their review by clinic by taking extra tablets of thyroxine.
This results in elevated/normal— without suppression of – as levels of the latter requires days to weeks to change.

A

TSH
fT4
fT4
TSH

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11
Q

— work by increasing urinary excretion of glucose

Important as it is the cause of main side effects - increased —, – loss, UTI

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors
urine output
weight

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12
Q

Increase insulin release from pancreas - this is the mechanism of action of — e.g. gliclazide.

A

sulphonylureas

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13
Q

Drug MOA:

Decrease glucagon release from pancreas - — reduce the breakdown of incretins, which thereby decreases – secretion.

A

DPP4-inhibitors

glucagon

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14
Q

– is the most common cause of heel pain seen in adults. The pain is usually worse around the — calcaneal tuberosity.

A

Plantar fasciitis

medial

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15
Q

— thyroiditis (–’s) is the most common cause of hypothyroidism and is associated with other a– diseases

A

Autoimmune
Hashimoto
autoimmune

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16
Q

The first line treatment in amoebiasis is:

A

metronidazole

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17
Q

— is the initial imaging modality of choice for suspected Achilles tendon rupture

A

Ultrasound

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18
Q

– is used in the management of variceal haemorrhage

A

Terlipressin

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19
Q

– or p– are the SSRIs of choice in breastfeeding women

A

Sertraline

paroxetine

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20
Q

Risk malignancy index (RMI) prognosis in ovarian cancer is based on : x3

A

US findings, menopausal status and CA125 levels

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21
Q

The maximum rate of IV potassium infusion that can be conducted without monitoring is –mmol/hour

Potassium infusions are usually given in pre-prepared bags to ensure the appropriate amount of K+, e.g. normal saline –%/–mmol KCl IV, over -hrs.

A

10

0.9%/40mmol
4hrs

22
Q

Both l– and u– can be used more than once in the same cycle

A

levonorgestrel

ulipristal

23
Q

If angina is not controlled with a beta-blocker, a – should be added

A

calcium channel blocker

24
Q

The — vein passes anterior to the medial malleolus and is commonly used for venous cutdown

A

long saphenous

25
Q

Patients with suspected neoplastic spinal cord compression should have an urgent

A

MRI of the whole spine

26
Q

SVC obstruction can cause visual disturbances such as –

A

blurred vision

27
Q

Anthracyclines (e.g. doxorubicin) may cause —

A

cardiomyopathy

28
Q

BRCA2 mutation is associated with – cancer in men

A

prostate

29
Q

HPV subtypes — are carcinogenic and increase the risk of cervical cancer

A

16,18, 33

30
Q

If neoplastic spinal cord compression is suspected, high-dose oral — should be given whilst awaiting investigations

A

dexamethasone

31
Q

Vincristine is associated with —.

Urinary hesitancy may develop secondary to bladder atony.

A

peripheral neuropathy

32
Q

— is a tumour marker in colorectal cancer and has a role in monitoring disease activity

A

Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)

33
Q

Epilepsy + pregnancy = -mg folic acid

A

Epilepsy + pregnancy = 5mg folic acid

34
Q

—- may present with haemorrhagic or thrombotic complications due to DIC.

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

35
Q

Cardiotocography (CTG) records pressure changes in the – using internal or external pressure transducers

A

uterus

36
Q

– and — should never be combined as there is a risk of serotonin syndrome

A

SSRIs

MAOIs

37
Q

Irradiated blood products are used to avoid transfusion-associated – disease

A

graft versus host

38
Q

Fragile X - associated with — prolapse

A

mitral valve

39
Q

Akathisia is a sense of –

A

inner restlessness and inability to keep still

40
Q

– is a recognised serious side effect of suxamethonium among those who are susceptible and requires IV dantrolene therapy

A

Malignant hyperthermia

41
Q

Respiratory system
Antibiotics used to treat:

-Exacerbations of chronic bronchitis
-Uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia
-Pneumonia possibly caused by atypical pathogens
Hospital-acquired pneumonia
-Within 5 days of admission:-
-After 5days:

A

Exacerbations of chronic bronchitis-
Amoxicillin or tetracycline or clarithromycin

Uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia-
Amoxicillin (Doxycycline or clarithromycin in penicillin allergic, add flucloxacillin if staphylococci suspected e.g. In influenza)

Pneumonia possibly caused by atypical pathogens -Clarithromycin

Hospital-acquired pneumonia
Within 5 days of admission: : co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime
More than 5 days after admission: piperacillin with tazobactam OR a broad-spectrum cephalosporin (e.g. ceftazidime) OR a quinolone (e.g. ciprofloxacin)

42
Q

Urinary tract

Lower urinary tract infection:
Acute pyelonephritis:
Acute prostatitis:

A

Lower urinary tract infection Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin. Alternative: amoxicillin or cephalosporin
Acute pyelonephritis Broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone
Acute prostatitis Quinolone or trimethoprim

43
Q

Skin

Impetigo	
Cellulitis	
Cellulitis 
Erysipelas	
Animal or human bite
Mastitis during breast-feeding
A

Impetigo Topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin or erythromycin if widespread

Cellulitis Flucloxacillin (clarithromycin, erythromycin or doxycycline if penicillin-allergic)

Cellulitis (near the eyes or nose) Co-amoxiclav (clarithromycin, + metronidazole if penicillin-allergic)

Erysipelas Flucloxacillin* (clarithromycin, erythromycin or doxycycline if penicillin-allergic)

Animal or human bite Co-amoxiclav (doxycycline + metronidazole if penicillin-allergic)
Mastitis during breast-feeding Flucloxacillin

44
Q

Ear, nose & throat

Throat infections	
Sinusitis	
Otitis media	
Otitis externa**
Periapical or periodontal abscess	
Gingivitis: acute necrotising ulcerative
A

Throat infections Phenoxymethylpenicillin (erythromycin alone if penicillin-allergic)
Sinusitis Amoxicillin or doxycycline or erythromycin
Otitis media Amoxicillin (erythromycin if penicillin-allergic)
Otitis externa** Flucloxacillin (erythromycin if penicillin-allergic)
Periapical or periodontal abscess Amoxicillin
Gingivitis: acute necrotising ulcerative Metronidazole

45
Q

Genital system

Gonorrhoea	
Chlamydia	
Pelvic inflammatory disease	
Syphilis	
Bacterial vaginosis
A

Gonorrhoea Intramuscular ceftriaxone
Chlamydia Doxycycline or azithromycin
Pelvic inflammatory disease Oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole
Syphilis Benzathine benzylpenicillin or doxycycline or erythromycin
Bacterial vaginosis Oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin

46
Q

Gastrointestinal

Clostridium difficile
Campylobacter enteritis
Salmonella (non-typhoid)
Shigellosis

A

Clostridium difficile First episode: metronidazole
Second or subsequent episode of infection: vancomycin
Campylobacter enteritis Clarithromycin
Salmonella (non-typhoid) Ciprofloxacin
Shigellosis Ciprofloxacin

47
Q

Patients over the age of 60 who present with — should be investigated for colorectal cancer

A

iron deficiency anaemia

48
Q

Small cell lung carcinoma secreting – can cause Cushing’s syndrome

A

ACTH

49
Q

Clostridium difficile antigen positivity only shows —, rather than –

A

exposure to the bacteria

current infection

50
Q

Dermatophyte nail infections - use oral –

A

terbinafine

51
Q

Tamoxifen may cause increased risk of – cancer

A

endometrial

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