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MY 2016 RUSVM SAM 1 > Respiratory > Flashcards

Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

What is the only vein in the body that carries oxygenated blood (back to the heart)

A

The pulmonary vein!

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3
Q

what is hypoxia

A

low levels of oxygen in blood, lungs and/or tissues

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4
Q

what is hypoxemia

A

insufficient oxygenation of the blood

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5
Q

what is the level of PaO2 have to be in order to stimulate respiratory center

A

<50mmHg (normal = 90-110)

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6
Q

what is hypercapnia

A

increased CO2 levels

more sensitive respiratory stimulant! than decr. O2 level

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7
Q

name 2 conditions that can cause hypocapnia

A

hyperventilation

metabolic acidosis

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8
Q

what is cyanosis

A

bluish→red-purple color of tissues

lots of deoxygenated hemoglobin

dog may have normal hematocrit

Arterial SaO2 73-78% (on pulse ox)

PaO2 will be 39-44 mmHg

before clinical cyanosis found!

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9
Q

what is dyspnea

A

difficult or labored breathing

Oxygen support is needed before doing anything (e.g. diagnostics)!

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10
Q

what is tachypnea

what are some causes?

A

rapid breathing

physiological: exercise
pathological: pain, metabolic acidosis, incr CO2 levels (2°)

1° causes: heart failure, pulmonary edema, pleural effusion, pneumonia

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11
Q

what is stridor

A

high pitched inspiratory noise

  • rapid flow of air over rigid obstruction e.g paralyzed/collapsed larnyx*
  • http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=075DT9lUWOk*
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12
Q

what is stertor

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Y5grnFVgU_Q

A

low pitched inspiratory noise

gurgling/snoring produced as air passes over soft tissue obstruction

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13
Q

what is orthopnea

A

shortness of breath when lying down

assume the position! sternal recumbancy, elbows abducted, neck extended & open mouth breathing

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15
Q

how does signalment help with dx resp dz?

A

helps to narrow down ddx

ciliary dyskinesia - generally younger animals

neoplasia - generallly older animals

breed skull differences:

brachycephalic

mesocephalic

dolicocephalic

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16
Q

what is difference between acute & chronic

A

acute = fast onset & progression <7 days

chronic = 6-8 weeks duration

sub acute = between acute & chronic

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17
Q

what might indicate the problem is located in upper airway

A

Nasal discharge

sneezing/reverse sneeze

Incr. inspiratory effort

stridor/stertor

inability to breathe if mouth closed

pawing/rubbing at face

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18
Q

how could you tell if there is bilateral airflow

A

glass slide technique

piece of cotton

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19
Q

what might indicate problem is in lower airways

A

Cough (hallmark sign but beware heart dz!)

resp. distress

Incr. expiratory effort

Crackles & wheezes

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21
Q

Remember a cough is always respiratory issue unless it is….

A

heart disease!

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22
Q

when doing a thoracic auscultation, where are lung sounds loudest?

A

hilus of lungs (bifurcation of trachea)

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23
Q

where is hilus of lungs

A

above the heart

24
Q

why would knowing that hilus is above heart important

A

because in heart dz with L atrial enlargement, it compresses the L mainstem bronchi causing a cough!

25
Q

what is heard on periphery of lungs

A

vesicular sounds (very quiet)

26
Q

What are the steps for a PE for nasal dz

A

Facial palpation: pain, symmetry, norm ocular retropulsion

Oral exam: hard palate, soft palate

Evidence of nasal discharge

27
Q

How would your characterize nasal discharge?

A

Serous, mucoid, mucopurulent purulent, hemorrhagic

Unilateral vs bilateral

Persistant vs intermittent

28
Q

How would acute nasal disease discharge often present vs chronic disease discharge?

A

Acute often accompanied by sneezing

Chronic often purulent to hemorrhagic

29
Q

what is a cough

A

Forceful expiratory effort/protective reflex

hallmark of tracheal or pulmonary dz (lower airway) or cardiac failure

30
Q

What can trigger cough?

how classified?

A

irritant receptors, inflammatory products, excessive secretions, airway compression or collapse

non-productive vs productive, harst/intermittent or paroxysmal

31
Q

what is panting

A

dissipates heat- can be normal in dog but can be a sign of respiratory distress also

In cats IS stress or respiratory distress

32
Q

Causes of dyspnea

A

insufficient oxygen in inspired air

insufficient ventilation

insufficient circulation

insufficient erythrocytes

abnormal/low hemoglobin

33
Q
A
34
Q

define bacteriocidal

A

killas of bacteria

35
Q

define bacteriostatic

A

inhibits bacterial reproduction

36
Q

which ABs inhibit folic acid metabolism

A

trimethroprim sulfonamides

37
Q

which ABs disrupt cytoplasmic membrane structure

A

polymyxins daptomycin

38
Q

which ABs inhibit DNA gyrase

A

quinolones

39
Q

which ABs interfere with RNA elongation

A

actinomycin

40
Q

which ABs disrupt DNA directed RNA polymerase

A

rifampin

41
Q

which ABs inhibit 50s protein synthesis

A

erythromycin (macrolides) chloramphenicol clindamycin lincomycin

42
Q

which ABs inhibit 30s protein synthesis

A

tetracylines streptomycin gentamicin kanamycin amikacin nitrofurans

43
Q

which ABs inhibit tRN A synthesis

A

muprocin

44
Q

what type of ABs are penicillins? -cidal or -static? type of bacteria effective against? side effects?

A

Beta lactams bacteriocidal G(+) aerobic bacteria, some anaerobes Add clavulanic acid to protect vs lactamase Newer generations have extended spectrum of activity Rare: v/d, allergic reaction

45
Q

what type of ABs are cephalosporins? -cidal or -static? type of bacteria effective against? side effects?

A

bacteriocidal broad spectrum of activity newer generations cover more G(-) bacteria v/d, allergic reactions

46
Q

what type of ABs are aminoglycosides, -cidal or -static? Name 2. type of bacteria effective against? side effects?

A

bacteriocidal & bacteriostatic gentamycin, amikacin G(-) & (+) aerobes & some facultative anerobes nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

47
Q

what type of bacteria are polymyxins effective against? application limits? side effects?

A

most G(-) bacteria (Pasteurella, Escherichia, Shigella, Salmonella, Bordetella, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas) topical only Pemphigus vulgaris

48
Q

what type of ABs is chloramphenicol -cidal or -static? type of bacteria effective against? side effects?

A

bacteriostatic broad-spectrum more toxic to cats than dogs

49
Q

what type of ABs are tetracyclins? -cidal or -static? type of bacteria effective against? side effects?

A

bacteriostatic aerobic & anaerobic G(+) & G(-) bacteria, mycobacteria, spirochetes, mycoplasms, rickettsiae, chlamydiae & some protozoa doxycycline, oxytetracycline esophagitis (post tableting), hepatotoxicity, occasionally anaphylaxis (parental administration)

50
Q

what type of ABs are macrolides & lincosamides? -cidal or -static? type of bacteria effective against? side effects?

A

bacteriocidal G(+) bacteria (chlamydophila, mycoplasma, heliobacter, campylobacter) & some rickettsiae Erythromycin, azithromycin, tylosin, lincomycinclindamycin (also does anaerobes & some protozoa) very low, v/d, pseudomembranous colitis

51
Q

what type of ABs are nitroimidazoles? -cidal or -static? type of bacteria effective against? side effects?

A

metronidazole/ ronidizole anaerobic bacteria & protozoa neurological abnormalities (little dogs & puppies affected more, delayed onset of side effects)

52
Q

what type of ABs are nitrofurans? -cidal or -static? type of bacteria effective against? side effects?

A

bacteriocidal & bacteriostatic G(-) organisms rapidly absorbed & rapidly excreted in urine (not used for systemic) urinary infections nausea/vomiting

53
Q

what type of ABs are sulphonamides? -cidal or -static? type of bacteria effective against? side effects?

A

bacteriostatic Streptococcus, Bacillus, Corynebacterium, Nocardia, Campylobacter, Pasteurella, chlamydiae (Enterococcus, Pseudomonas, Serratia, Klebsiella generally resistant!) Ineffective in presence of pus, necrotic tissue or blood containing PABA relatively common, hepatic dz, renal dz/uroliths, KCS, immune-complex reactions/hypersensitivities

54
Q

what type of ABs are quinolones? -cidal or -static? type of bacteria effective against? side effects?

A

bacteriocidal esp G(-) & G(+) organisms enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin, orbifloxacin, prodofloxacin, ciprofloxacin, norfloxacin primary excreted in bile CNS (seizures, retinal blindness (cats)), cartilage damage in puppies

MY 2016 RUSVM SAM 1 (12 decks)

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