Respiratory Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Which part of the respiratory track have squamous epithelium?

A

Oropharynx, Laryngopharynx and vocal cords. As well as most of the epiglottis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the purpose of pious and fimbria on bacterias?

A

They attach to the host wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which leukocytes predominates in sarcoidosis?

A

CD4+ T Cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Bosentan? What is it used for?

A

Endothelin receptor antagonist. Endothelin is a vasoconstrictor especially in pulmonary arteries. So Bosentan is used in pulmonary hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common cancer caused by Asbestos exposure?

A

Bronchogenic Carcinoma (NOT Mesothelioma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the acid-base disturbance caused by high altitude?

A

Respiratory alkalosis with bicarb compensation. High pH and low PaO2, PCO2 and Bicarb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which cell type is most responsible for the histologic findings in emphysema?

A

Macrophages get activated and recruit neutrophils to the site. Neutrophils themselves are the ones that secrete elastase which destroys the alveolar wall. So Neutrophils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of legionnaires’ disease?

A

Fever, Bradycardia, Diarrhea, Headache & Confusion. Bacteria are often NOT found on sputum gram stain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Other than trauma, what can cause a spontaneous pneumothorax on a young patient?

A

Apical Subpleural Blebs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the difference between Conversion and Somatization disorder?

A

Conversion is one “neurologic” weakness. Somatization must impact function and have pain, GI, sexual and pseudoneurologic symptom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the first generation H1 blockers?

A

Diphenhydramine, dimenhydramine, chlorphenhidramine. Also promethazine and hydroxyzine. Not only used for allergies but also for motion sickness and sleeping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the second generation H1 blockers?

A

Loratadine, Fexofenadine, desloratadine, cetirizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the difference in work of breathing for obstructive versus restrictive lung diseases.

A

In obstructive diseases slow flow is favored to reduce work so the patients breath deep slow breaths. In restrictive shallow breaths are favored to not expand the lung. So the breath fast shallow breath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What causes Kussmaul Breathing?

A
Ketones (DKA)
Uremia
Sepsis
Salicylates
Methanol
Aldehydes
(u)
Lactic Acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the physiology of Humoral Hypercalcemia of Malignancy?

A

Tumors secrete PTHrp (rp = releated peptide) that acts like PTH and causes hypercalcemia. Assc w/ Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Renal cell carcinoma and breast cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the pathology seen on lung tissue that is caused by left ventricular failure.

A

Increased pressure causes extravasation of RBCs. The Fe from RBC stays in alveolar macrophages as golden hemosiderin deposits. These deposits stain blue with Prussian Blue staining.

17
Q

How does chronic rejection manifest in the lung?

A

Bronchiolitis Obliterans (inflammation of the small bronchioles), with dyspnea and wheezing.

18
Q

Why are patients with sarcoidosis or other granulomatous diseases likely to develop hypercalcemia?

A

They have excess of active Vitamin D, Calcitriol, which is activated by Macrophages.

19
Q

How can mesothelioma be distinguished form adenocarcinoma on biopsy?

A

The EM of mesothelioma will show long vili and abundant tonofilaments/desmosomes. Adenocarcinoma will show short vili.

20
Q

What is omalizumab?

A

It is an anti-IgE antibody used in severe allergic asthma that is not resolved with beta agonist or steroids.

21
Q

What is the preferred treatment for aspiration pneumonia with lung abcesses?

A

Clindamycin because it cover all anaerobes plus the typical pneumonia of Strep Pneumo. Using a first generation cephalosporin will only cover Klebsiella and that’s not good enough.

22
Q

Where is total airway resistance the highest along the bronchial tree?

A

At medium sized bronchi (2nd to 5th generation) because they have turbulent flow.

23
Q

What is the lowest rib level reached by the parietal pleura along the midclavicular line? Midaxillary? Paravertrebal?

A

Midclavicular = 7th rib
Midaxillary = 10th rib (top on the right, bottom on the left)
Paravertebral = 12th rib
The lung is about 2 ribs above all of these.

24
Q

What are fenfluramine and phentermine and what do they predispose patients to?

A

They are appetite suppressants. Patients can have pulmonary hypertension.

25
Q

What should be monitored in patients with Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A

Chest expansion. Inflammation of cost vertebral and costosternal joints (enthesitis) can decrease chest expansion leading to hypoventilation.

26
Q

Describe the presentation of fat emboli.

A

Thrombocytopenic peticheal rash, respiratory distress and non-focal CNS symptoms seen in a post fracture or post liposuction patient. The stain commonly used in black in color.

27
Q

What is the index used to determine severity of Chronic Bronchitis?

A

Gland size to thickness of bronchial wall. (Cartilage is not included.) This is called the Reid Index and it is normally 0.4

28
Q

Why are the responses by central chemoreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors different?

A

Central chemoreceptors respond to pH, so mostly PaCO2. Peripheral chemoreceptors respond to PaO2. Patients with long standing COPD can loose the central receptors and thus administration of O2 can decrease ALL respiratory drive.

29
Q

What is Varenicline?

A

Nicotine analog with partial agonist activity that reduces craving and reduces the effects of nicotine itself. VARenicline is a VARiation of regular nicotine.