Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What defines the thorax cage anatomy?

A
  • The thorax cage anatomy is defined by the sternum
  • 12 pairs of ribs
  • 12 pairs of thoracic vertebrae.
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2
Q

How is the thorax divided?

A
  • the anterior thorax
  • posterior thorax.
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3
Q

What are the true ribs?

A

Ribs 1-7 are known as ‘true ribs’ because they attach directly to the sternum by costal cartilage.

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4
Q

How do ribs 8, 9, and 10 attach?

A

Ribs 8, 9, and 10 attach to the costal cartilage of the ribs above.

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5
Q

What are ribs 11 and 12 known as?

A

Ribs 11 and 12 are known as ‘free floating’ ribs, and their tips can be palpated.

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6
Q

What is the posterior attachment of ribs?

A

includes
* the costotransverse joint
* the costovertebral joint.

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7
Q

What is the costotransverse joint?

A

The costotransverse joint is between the tubercle of the rib and the transverse costal facet of the corresponding vertebra.

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8
Q

What is the costovertebral joint?

A

The costovertebral joint is between the head of the rib, the superior costal facet of the corresponding vertebra, and the inferior costal facet of the vertebra above.

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9
Q

What is unique about Rib 1?

A
  • Rib 1 is shorter and wider than the other ribs and **has only one facet **on its head for articulation with its corresponding vertebra.
  • The superior surface of Rib 1 is marked by two grooves for the subclavian vessels.
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10
Q

How does Rib 2 compare to Rib 1?

A

Rib 2 is thinner and longer than Rib 1 and has two articular facets on the head.
The roughened area on Rib 2’s upper surface is where the serratus anterior muscle originates.

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11
Q

What is unique about Rib 10?

A

Rib 10 only has one facet for articulation with its numerically corresponding vertebra.

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12
Q

What is special about Ribs 11 and 12?

A

Ribs 11 and 12 have no neck and only contain one facet for articulation with their corresponding vertebra.

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13
Q

What is the suprasternal notch?

A

The suprasternal notch is a U-shaped depression just above the sternum between the clavicles.

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14
Q

What is the manubriosternal angle also known as?

A

The manubriosternal angle is also known as the ‘Angle of Louis’ or ‘Sternal Angle.’

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15
Q

What are the parts of the sternum?

A
  • Manubrium
  • Body of sternum
  • Xiphoid process
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16
Q

Where is the manubriosternal angle located?

A

It is located at the articulation of the manubrium and sternum and is continuous with the second rib.
To identify this, palpate the 2nd rib, and slide down to second instercostal space -> angle of Luis is right here.

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17
Q

Why is the Angle of Louis important?

A
  • marks the site of tracheal bifurcation into right and left main bronchi
  • corresponds with the upper border of the atria of the heart.
  • lies above the fourth thoracic vertebra on back
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18
Q

What forms the costal angle in the anterior thoracic cage?
when does this angle increase?

A
  • The right and left costal margins form an angle where they meet at the xiphoid process.
  • Usually less than 90 degrees;
  • angle increases when rib cage is chronically overinflated as in emphysema.
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19
Q

What are the posterior thoracic landmarks?

A

The posterior thoracic landmarks include
* the vertebra prominens
* spinous processes
* inferior border of scapula
* twelfth rib

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20
Q

What is the vertebra prominens?

A
  • The vertebra prominens is the seventh cervical vertebra.
  • It is the largest and most inferior vertebra in the neck region
  • flex your head to feel for the most prominent bony spur protruding at the base of the neck.
  • no split at the tip
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21
Q

How do spinous processes align with ribs?

A

Spinous processes align with the same rib only down to T4; after T4 they angle downward and no longer correspond with the same rib.

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22
Q

Where is the inferior border of the scapula usually located?

A

The lower tip of the scapula is usually at the 7th or 8th rib.

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23
Q

How can you identify the twelfth rib?

A

Palpate midway between the spine and a person’s side to identify its free tip.

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24
Q

What are the reference lines for the anterior chest?

A
  • the midsternal line
  • the midclavicular line
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25
Q

What are the reference lines for the posterior chest?

A

The reference lines for the posterior chest are the vertebral (midspinal) line and the scapular line.

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26
Q

What are the lateral reference lines?

A

The lateral reference lines include the anterior axillary line, posterior axillary line, and midaxillary line.

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27
Q

What is the thoracic cavity?

A

enclosed by
* ribs
* sternum
* vertebral column
* top of the diaphragm

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28
Q

What important items are located in the thoracic cavity?

A

include:
* respiratory
* cardiovascular
* nervous
* immune
* digestive systems

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29
Q

What structures sit in the mediastinum?

A

The middle section of the thoracic cavity that contain
* esophagus
* trachea
* heart
* great vessels

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30
Q

What are the characteristics of the lungs?

A
  • The right and left pleural cavities contain lungs, which are not symmetrical.
  • right lung is shorter due to underlying liver,
  • left lung is narrower because heart bulges to the left.
  • Right = 3 lobes
  • Left = 2 lobes
  • segments separated by fissures
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31
Q

What are the lung borders?

A

The **apex **is the highest point of lung tissue, located 3 to 4 cm above the inner 1/3 of the clavicle.
The base is the lower border of the lung, resting on the diaphragm around the 6th rib at the midclavicular line.

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32
Q

What is notable about the anterior chest regarding lung lobes?

A

The anterior chest contains mostly the upper and middle lobes with very little lower lobe.

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33
Q

What is notable about the posterior chest regarding lung lobes?

A

The posterior chest is almost entirely composed of lower lobes.

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34
Q

What is the function of pleurae?

A

Slippery pleurae form an envelope between the lungs and chest wall, with the visceral pleura lining the outside of the lungs.

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35
Q

What is the pleural cavity?

A

The pleural cavity normally has a vacuum or negative pressure, which holds the lungs tightly against the chest wall and is filled with a few milliliters of lubricating fluid.

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36
Q

What is the trachea’s location and length?

A

The trachea lies anterior to the esophagus and is 10 to 11 cm long in adults.

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37
Q

How do the right and left main bronchi differ?

A

The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus.

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38
Q

What is the role of trachea and bronchi?

A

Transport gases from the environment to the lung parenchyma

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39
Q

What is considered dead space?

A
  • space that is filled with air but not available for gas exchange.
  • 150 ml in adult
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40
Q

What is role of bronchial tree?

A

protests alveoli from small particulate matter in inhaled air.

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41
Q

what secretes mucus?

A

Goblet cells. they line the bronchial tree

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42
Q

What is the acinus?

A

The acinus is the functional unit of the respiratory system, consisting of
* bronchioles
* alveolar ducts
* alveolar sacs
* alveoli.

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43
Q

What developmental changes occur in infants and children?

A
  • Development occurs in utero, with birth demanding instant performance.
  • Increased vulnerability of the respiratory system is associated with environmental tobacco smoke exposure.
    ETS includes:
    SIDS, negative behavioral and cognitive functioning, increased rates of adolescent smoking
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44
Q

What impact does pregnancy have on the respiratory system?

A
  • Pregnancy impacts the respiratory system due to the enlarging uterus and physiologic dyspnea.
  • uterus elevates diaphragm 4 cm in pregnancy
  • 32 weeks surfactant is present in adequate amounts
  • extra estrogen relaxes chest cage ligaments.
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45
Q

What changes occur in the aging adult’s respiratory system?

A
  • There is decreased vital capacity and increased residual volume based on structural changes,
  • histologic changes that lead to decreased gas exchange.
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46
Q

What is the significance of lung cancer?

A

Lung cancer is the second most commonly diagnosed cancer, with smoking leading to a mutational burden.

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47
Q

What is the global impact of tuberculosis?

A

Tuberculosis affects more than 1/3 of the world’s population and is considered a social and migratory disease.

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48
Q

What is the prevalence of asthma?

A
  • Asthma is the most common chronic disease in childhood,
  • highest burden seen in those living at or below the federal poverty level.
  • ethnic and environmental factors play significant role
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49
Q

What subjective data is important in respiratory assessments?

A

Important subjective data includes
* cough
* shortness of breath
* chest pain with breathing
* history of respiratory infections
* smoking history
* environmental exposure

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50
Q

What should be assessed regarding chest pain with breathing?

A
  • ask pt point to exact location
  • Assess for the onset and timing of pain - constant vs intermittent
  • pain characteristics in terms of quality and intensity
  • associated clinical symptoms
  • treatment interventions used to decrease pain
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51
Q

What is the second most commonly diagnosed cancer?

A
  • Lung cancer
  • primarily due to smoking leading to mutational burden.
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52
Q

What disease has affected more than 1/3 of the world’s population?

A

Tuberculosis is a social and migratory disease that has affected more than 1/3 of the world’s population.

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53
Q

What is the most common chronic disease in childhood?

A

Asthma

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54
Q

Who experiences the highest burden of asthma?

A

The highest burden of asthma is seen in those living at or below the federal poverty level.

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55
Q

What factors play a significant role in asthma prevalence?

A

Ethnic and environmental factors play a significant role in asthma prevalence.

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56
Q

What subjective data should be collected regarding respiratory issues?

A

Subjective data includes cough, shortness of breath, chest pain with breathing, history of respiratory infections, smoking history, environmental exposure, and frequency of rescue inhaler use.

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57
Q

What should be assessed regarding chest pain with breathing?

A

Assess the onset, timing, pain characteristics, associated symptoms, and treatment interventions used to decrease pain.

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58
Q

What past history should be inquired about for respiratory infections?

A
  • past history of breathing trouble or lung diseases such as brontitis, emphysema, asthma, PNA
  • unusually frequent or severe colds
  • family history of allergies, tuberculosis, or asthma.
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59
Q

What aspects of smoking history should be evaluated?

A

Evaluate the onset, duration, and pattern of smoking, secondhand exposure, smoking cessation, and counseling using the
**five A’s: **Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, and Arrange.

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60
Q

What are five A’s?

A
  • Ask
  • Advise
  • Assess
  • Assist
  • Arrange
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61
Q

What environmental exposures should be assessed?

A
  • occupational factors,
  • protection from exposure,
  • monitoring and follow-up to exposure
  • awareness of symptoms signaling breathing problems
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62
Q

What additional history should be collected for infants and children?

A
  • Collect history of frequent or severe colds,
  • family history of allergies,
  • cough or congestion,
  • noisy breathing or wheezing,
  • emergency care measures for choking,
  • and presence of smokers in the home or car.
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63
Q

What additional history should be collected for aging adults?

A
  • Inquire about shortness of breath or fatigue with daily activities, usual physical activity,
  • adult with hx of COPD, lung cancer, TB: use Lung Function Questionnaire.
  • ask for energy levels, chest pain with breathing, and chest pain after coughing or falling.
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64
Q

What are techniques of examination?

A
  • inspection
  • palpation
  • percussion
  • auscultation
    on posterior and lateral thorax.
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65
Q

What is involved in the objective data preparation and equipment?

A

Equipment includes a stethoscope, small ruler, marking pen, and alcohol wipe.

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66
Q

What should be inspected in the posterior chest?

A

Inspect the thoracic cage for shape and configuration, skeletal deformities, AP to transverse diameter ratio, breathing position, skin color and condition, lesions, and symmetric expansion.

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67
Q

What is ratio of AP to transverse diameter?

A

0.70 - 0.75

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68
Q

What is assessed during palpation of the posterior chest?

A

Symmetric expansion and tactile (or vocal) fremitus are assessed using hands.

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69
Q

How is tactile fremitus assessed?

A

By using hands to assess for palpable vibrations while the patient repeats phrases like ‘99’ or ‘blue moon’.

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70
Q

What is the technique for percussion of lung fields?

A

Determine the predominant note over lung fields starting at the apices and percuss a band of normally resonant tissue across the tops of both shoulders.

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71
Q

What sound predominates in healthy lung tissue?

A

Resonance, which is a low-pitched, clear, hollow sound.

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72
Q

What is evaluated during auscultation of the chest?

A

The presence and quality of normal breath sounds both anterior and posterior.

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73
Q

How long should you listen to lung sound?

A
  • Use diaphragm of stethoscope, listen to at least 1 full respiration in each location.
  • perform bilateral to compare
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74
Q

What are the three types of breath sounds normally heard in adults?

A
  • Bronchial
  • bronchovesicular
  • vesicular
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75
Q

What are adventitious sounds?

A

Added sounds that are not normally heard in the lungs.

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76
Q

What are common terms used for adventitious sounds?

A

Crackles (or rales) and wheeze (or rhonchi).

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77
Q

What are atelectatic crackles?

A

A type of adventitious sound that is not pathologic, characterized by short, popping, crackling sounds. that sound like fine crackles but do not last beyond a few breaths.

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78
Q

What is stridor?

A

An inspiratory crowing sound, loudest in the neck.

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79
Q

What are the types of discontinuous adventitious sounds?

A
  • Fine crackles
  • coarse crackles
  • atelectatic crackles
  • pleural friction rub
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80
Q

What are the types of continuous adventitious sounds?

A
  • Wheeze—sibilant
  • wheeze—sonorous rhonchi
  • stridor
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81
Q

What is the quality of normal voice sounds or vocal resonance as noted in tactile fremitus?

A
  • Soft, muffled, and indistinct.
  • you can hear sound through stethoscope but cannot distinguish exactly what is being said.
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82
Q

Pathology that increases lung density causes what to transmission of voice sounds?

A

Pathology that increases lung density enhances transmission of voice sounds.

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83
Q

if you suspect lung pathology on basis of earlier data, what would you do?

A

perform supplemental maneuvers: bronchophony, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy

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84
Q

What should be noted during inspection of the anterior chest?

A
  • Shape and configuration of chest wall,
  • patient’s facial expression,
  • level of consciousness,
  • skin color and condition, and
  • quality of respirations (effort, symmetry, involved accessory muscles)
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85
Q

What is assessed during palpation of the anterior chest?

A
  • Symmetric chest expansion,
  • tactile (vocal) fremitus,
  • tenderness or lumps, and
  • skin mobility, turgor, temperature, and moisture.
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86
Q

What are the types of abnormal tactile fremitus?

A
  • Increased tactile fremitus
  • decreased tactile fremitus
  • rhonchial fremitus
  • pleural friction fremitus
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87
Q

What is the first step in percussion of the anterior chest?

A
  • Begin percussing apices in supraclavicular areas.
  • then perform bil comparision
  • do not percuss directly over female breast tissue
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88
Q

What are border of cardiac dullness normally found on anterior chest?

A
  • Do not confuse these with suspected lung pathology.
  • In right hemithorax, upper border of liver dullness is located in fifth intercostal space in right midclavicular line.
  • On left, tympany is evident over gastric space.
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89
Q

What is forced expiratory time?

A

number of seconds it takes to exhale from total lung capacity to residual volume.
useful in pulmonary function test

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90
Q

What is the normal chest circumference for a newborn?

A

30 to 36 cm.

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91
Q

When does children’s thorax reach adult ratio of 1:2?

A

by age 6

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92
Q

What is the Apgar scoring system used for?

A

It measures the successful transition to extrauterine life.

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93
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for a newborn?

A

30 to 40 breaths per minute, but may spike up to 60 breaths per minute.

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94
Q

infant breath through_____ until ______

A

nose
3 months

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95
Q

normal infant resp rate?

A

30-40 breaths per minute
may spike up to 60 breaths per minute.
with irregular pattern

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96
Q

What is periodic breathing in infants?

A

Brief periods of apnea less than 10 or 15 seconds are common.

97
Q

How should you palpate for symmetric chest expansion in infants?

A

Encircle the infant’s thorax with both hands.

98
Q

What breath sounds are normally heard in infants and young children?

A

Bronchovesicular breath sounds.

99
Q

What changes occur in the thoracic cage of a pregnant woman?

A

The thoracic cage may appear wider with deeper respirations and an increase in tidal volume by 40%.

100
Q

What changes in aging adults?

A
  • Increase AP diameter
  • Kyphosis
  • outward curvature of thoracic spine
  • decreased chest expansion
  • tire easily
101
Q

What are some abnormal respiration patterns?

A
  • Sigh
  • tachypnea
  • hyperventilation
  • bradypnea
  • hypoventilation
  • Cheyne-Stokes respiration
  • Biot’s respiration
  • chronic obstructive breathing
102
Q

What are some diagnostic clues to chronic dyspnea?

A
  • Pulmonary issues, (Alveolar, interstitial, obstruction of airflow, restrictive, or vascular )
  • cardiac issues ( Dysrhythmia, heart failure, restrictive or constrictive pericardial disease, or valvular)
  • gastrointestinal issues (aspiration)
  • neuromuscular issues (resp muscle weakness)
  • psychological issues (anxiety)
103
Q

What are common respiratory conditions?

A

Atelectasis,
lobar pneumonia,
bronchitis,
emphysema, asthma,
pleural effusion,
tuberculosis,
pulmonary embolism,
ARDS,
lung cancer.

104
Q

Who are likely to have Postop pulm complications?

A

COPD. x2 risk

105
Q

What is a risk factor for postoperative pulmonary complications in COPD?

A

Preoperative sepsis, emergency operations, age, smoking, other comorbid diseases, preoperative weight loss, obesity, upper respiratory infection, type of surgery, length of surgery, elevated creatinine.

106
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for chronic bronchitis in COPD?

A

Productive cough for more than 3 months, for 2 successive years, not attributed to another cause

107
Q

What causes increased bronchial secretions in chronic bronchitis?

A

Mucous gland hyperactivity and chronic airway inflammation

108
Q

What is emphysema?

A

Permanent enlargement of airspaces with destruction of alveolar walls
productive cough for greater than 3 months
2 successive years
not attributed to another cause

109
Q

What structural changes occur in emphysema?

A

Loss of alveolar attachments and reduced elastic recoil of alveoli

110
Q

What FEV₁ value corresponds to GOLD 1 (mild) COPD?

A

FEV₁ ≥ 80%

111
Q

What FEV₁ range corresponds to GOLD 2 (moderate) COPD?

A

50% < FEV₁ < 80% of predicted (Moderate)

112
Q

What FEV₁ range corresponds to GOLD 3 COPD?

A

30% < FEV₁ < 50% of predicted (Severe)

113
Q

What FEV₁ value corresponds to GOLD 4 COPD?

A

FEV₁ < 30% of predicted (Very Severe)

114
Q

Which short-acting anticholinergic is used in COPD?

A

Ipratropium

115
Q

Which long-acting anticholinergics are used in COPD?

A

Tiotropium, Aclidinium, Umeclidinium, Glycopyrronium

116
Q

Which short-acting beta agonists are used in COPD?

A

Albuterol, Pirbuterol

117
Q

Which long-acting beta agonists are used in COPD?

A

Salmeterol, Formoterol, Vilanterol, Olodaterol, Indacaterol

118
Q

Which inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used in COPD?

A

Beclomethasone, Fluticasone, Budesonide, Ciclesonide

119
Q

Which xanthines are used for COPD treatment?

A

Theophylline, Aminophylline, Doxofylline

120
Q

What is the PDE4 inhibitor used in COPD management?

A

Roflumilast

121
Q

What medications are included in triple therapy for COPD?

A

LAMA/LABA/ICS:

Umeclidinium/Vilanterol/Fluticasone Furoate

Glycopyrronium/Formoterol/Beclomethasone

122
Q

What are the key components of the preoperative assessment in COPD?

A
  • Assess severity
  • evaluate perioperative pulmonary risks
  • optimize medical management before surgery
  • plan perioperative care
123
Q

When would you do pulmonary function testing preoperatively in COPD?

A

When there are changes in condition or the patient is undergoing intrathoracic surgery

124
Q

When might ABGs be useful in the preoperative COPD assessment?

A
  • If they may change perioperative management or in cases of suspected hypoxemia, hypercapnia, or likely need for post-op ventilator support
125
Q

When should a chest X-ray be considered preoperatively in COPD?

A
  • Not routinely
  • consider if there are changes from baseline
  • comorbid cardiac/respiratory conditions
  • major intrathoracic/intraabdominal surgeries
126
Q

**

What specific perioperative concern should you look for on chest X-ray in COPD patients?

A

Bullae—large air pockets that form inside the lung

127
Q

What are common postoperative pulmonary complications in COPD patients?

A
  • Atelectasis
  • respiratory infections with exacerbation of underlying disease
  • hypoxemia requiring invasive or noninvasive mechanical ventilation
128
Q

What is asthma?

A

A chronic inflammatory disease affecting the airways

129
Q

What are key features of asthma?

A

Bronchial hyperresponsiveness and airflow obstruction

130
Q

What are the pathologic changes seen in asthma?

A
  • Chronic airway inflammation
  • increased bronchial smooth muscle mass
  • mucus hypersecretion
  • luminal narrowing
131
Q

When does asthma typically present?

A

Before age 20

132
Q

What are common symptoms of asthma?

A
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • intermittent cough
  • wheezing
  • chest tightness
  • shortness of breath
133
Q

How is asthma diagnosed?

A

By spirometry

134
Q

What test may be needed if spirometry is inconclusive?

A

Bronchoprovocation testing

135
Q

What are common differential diagnoses for asthma?

A
  • Other obstructive pulmonary diseases
  • cystic fibrosis
  • heart failure
  • tracheal stenosis
136
Q

What is the treatment for Step 1 asthma?

137
Q

What is the preferred treatment for Step 2 asthma?

A

Low-dose ICS (alternative: Cromolyn, LTRA, Nedocromil, Theophylline)

138
Q

What is the preferred treatment for Step 3 asthma?

A

Low-dose ICS + LABA or medium-dose ICS (alternative: low-dose ICS plus LTRA, Theophylline, or Zileuton)

139
Q

What is the preferred treatment for Step 4 asthma?

A

Medium-dose ICS + LABA (alternative: medium-dose ICS plus LTRA, Theophylline, or Zileuton)

140
Q

What is the preferred treatment for Step 5 asthma?

A

High-dose ICS + LABA and consider Omalizumab if allergies are present

141
Q

What is the preferred treatment for Step 6 asthma?

A

High-dose ICS + LABA + oral corticosteroids and consider Omalizumab if allergies are present

142
Q

What are the major perioperative and postoperative concerns with asthma?

A

Bronchospasm and status asthmaticus

143
Q

What should be included in the preoperative optimization for an asthma patient?

A

Detailed history: specific triggers, history of hospitalization, mechanical ventilation, and current therapies

144
Q

What are signs that asthma is not controlled?

A
  • Symptoms >2 days/week,
  • nighttime awakening,
  • limited activity,
  • frequent SABA use (2 days/week),
  • FEV₁ or PEFR <80%,
  • ≥2 steroid-requiring exacerbations in the past year
145
Q

What are key physical exam findings in asthma?

A
  • Signs of bronchoconstriction,
  • respiratory infection,
  • abnormal pulse ox or RR,
  • retractions,
  • prolonged expiration,
  • wheezes, and diminished/absent breath sounds
146
Q

When is pulmonary function testing indicated in asthma?

A

If there is a clinical change or if the patient is undergoing lung resection

147
Q

When is a chest X-ray indicated in asthma patients?

A

usually not indicated unless there are concerns of pulmonary infection or heart failure

148
Q

When should elective surgery be postponed in asthma patients?

A

If there is active wheezing, poorly controlled asthma, or recent respiratory infection (delay 6 weeks)

149
Q

What are important preop instructions for asthma patients undergoing surgery?

A

Continue asthma medications and encourage smoking cessation

150
Q

What type of genetic disorder is cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal disorder

151
Q

Where is the CFTR protein found, and what does it affect?

A

On epithelial cells of most exocrine glands

152
Q

What does the CFTR mutation cause?

A

Abnormal/thickened secretions and abnormalities in other systems

153
Q

What type of lung disorder is cystic fibrosis classified as?

A
  • Obstructive lung disorder
  • chronic and progressive
154
Q

What are the pulmonary function test findings in cystic fibrosis?

A
  • Decreased FEV₁,
  • decreased FEV₁/FVC ratio, and
  • increased residual volume
155
Q

What lung sounds are associated with cystic fibrosis?

A

Wheezing and sounds consistent with upper airway secretions

156
Q

What are some common upper airway manifestations of cystic fibrosis?

A

Sinusitis and nasal polyposis

157
Q

What are common pulmonary complications in cystic fibrosis?

A

Viscous mucus, recurrent infections, blebs, pneumothorax, chronic hypoxemia, pulmonary HTN, hemoptysis

158
Q

What pancreatic issues are associated with cystic fibrosis?

A

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, malabsorption, CF-related diabetes, pancreatitis

159
Q

What hepatobiliary conditions are common in cystic fibrosis?

A

Biliary disease, cirrhosis, portal hypertension

160
Q

What gastrointestinal issues are seen in cystic fibrosis?

A

GERD, distal intestinal obstruction, constipation

161
Q

What are musculoskeletal complications in cystic fibrosis?

A

Low bone density, fractures, hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

162
Q

What is the anesthetic care plan for patients with cystic fibrosis?

A
  • Avoid general anesthesia if possible
  • restrict fluids
  • optimize pain control
  • maintain chest physiology
  • use incentive spirometry
163
Q

What should be assessed during preop evaluation in cystic fibrosis?

A

Progression of disease: cough, sputum, wheezing, decreased exercise tolerance

164
Q

What comorbidities are commonly associated with cystic fibrosis?

A

Diabetes, liver disease, and GERD

165
Q

What are other important preoperative considerations for cystic fibrosis?

A
  • Multidisciplinary approach
  • continue CF medications
  • plan for glucose control
  • plan for sputum clearance techniques
166
Q

How is restrictive lung disease diagnosed?

A

Pulmonary function test (PFT)

167
Q

What are the hallmark PFT findings in restrictive lung disease?

A
  • Decreased TLC,
  • decreased FEV₁ and FVC,
  • normal or increased FEV₁/FVC ratio
168
Q

What are the main categories of causes of restrictive lung disease?

A
  • Intrinsic (e.g. ILD)
  • extrinsic (e.g. pleural effusion, obesity)
  • neuromuscular disorders (e.g. MG, GBS, muscular dystrophies)
169
Q

What defines interstitial lung disease?

A
  • It’s a type of restrictive lung disease involving inflammation
  • fibrosis of lung parenchyma
  • decreased lung distensibility with increased recoil
170
Q

What are common clinical symptoms of ILD?

A

Progressive dyspnea on exertion and non-productive cough

171
Q

What history is important when considering ILD?

A

Occupational exposure

172
Q

**What are common physical exam findings in ILD?

A

Fine crackles on auscultation and digital clubbing

173
Q

Why is diagnosing ILD challenging?

A

Requires clinical assessment, radiographs, CT, and often surgical lung biopsy

174
Q

Why might ILD patients present for surgery?

A

To obtain a surgical lung biopsy for diagnosis

175
Q

What are key preoperative considerations in ILD?

A

Optimize medical management, assess for exacerbations, consult pulmonology, screen for pulmonary hypertension

176
Q

Which body systems can ILDs affect beyond the lungs?

A

Cardiac, renal, hepatic (e.g. sarcoidosis, lupus, rheumatoid arthritis)

177
Q

What are key components of the pre-op assessment for ILD patients?

A
  • Optimize medical management
  • check for exacerbations
  • consult pulmonology
  • evaluate for pulmonary hypertension
  • assess involvement of cardiac,
  • renal, hepatic systems (e.g. sarcoidosis, lupus, RA)
178
Q

What causes obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?

A
  • Repetitive upper airway collapse, with apnea episodes lasting ≥10 seconds
  • most prevalent sleep disorder
179
Q

Why is pre-op screening for OSA important?

A

Allows initiation of treatment and enables proper post-op monitoring

180
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing OSA?

A

Overnight polysomnography (PSG)

181
Q

What does PSG measure to diagnose OSA?

A

Apnea-hypopnea index (AHI) – number of abnormal respiratory events per hour

182
Q

What are the criteria for an event to be counted in AHI?

A

Must last ≥10 seconds and reduce O2 saturation by 3–4%

183
Q

What is the AHI range for mild OSA?

A

5–14 events/hour

184
Q

What is the AHI range for moderate OSA?

A

15–30 events/hour

185
Q

What is the AHI for severe OSA?

A

Greater than 30 events/hour

186
Q

What screening tools are used for OSA?

A
  • STOP-Bang
  • P-SAP
  • Berlin Questionnaire
  • ASA Checklist
187
Q

What does the STOP portion of STOP-Bang stand for?

A

Snoring, Tiredness, Observed apnea, high blood Pressure

188
Q

What does the BANG portion of STOP-Bang stand for?

A

BMI >35, Age >50, Neck circumference, Gender (male)

189
Q

How is risk level classified with STOP-Bang?

A

Low: 0–2 “Yes”
Intermediate: 3–4 “Yes”
High: 5–8 “Yes” or combinations of STOP + other risk factors

190
Q

Should surgery be canceled if OSA is identified?

A

No, not unless other comorbidities are present.

191
Q

How should unidentified OSA be treated preoperatively?

A

Treat like OSA until proven otherwise.

192
Q

What should we do when pt has OSA?

A

Be suspicious of other systemic disorders.

193
Q

What should be assessed regarding PAP therapy preop?

A

pt’s adherence to and continued use of PAP.

194
Q

Are EKG or chest X-ray required preop for OSA?

195
Q

What are the ambulatory surgery criteria for known OSA patients?

A
  • Optimized comorbidities
  • use of PAP post-op
  • facility capable of monitoring and overnight stay
196
Q

What is the key post-op management for suspected or non-compliant OSA patients?

A

Pain control with minimal opioids.

197
Q

What anesthesia strategies should be considered for OSA patients?

A
  • Regional anesthesia,
  • limit opioids,
  • use short-acting drugs,
  • monitor post-op, and
  • inform the patient.
198
Q

What is the leading cause of preventable morbidity and mortality?

199
Q

What are long-term physiological impacts of smoking?

A

Reduced tissue perfusion, impaired immune and collagen function, reduced lung capacity, increased mucus, impaired cilia, ↑ sympathetic activity.

200
Q

What are perioperative complications associated with tobacco use?

A

Increased CO levels, ↓ oxygen, delayed healing (wounds & bones), CV events, strokes, ICU admissions, prolonged ventilation, pneumonia, and death.

201
Q

What are the key components of the preoperative assessment of COPD?

A

Assess severity, evaluate perioperative pulmonary risks, optimize medical management, plan perioperative care.

202
Q

When should pulmonary function tests be considered for COPD patients?

A

With changes in condition or for intrathoracic surgery.

203
Q

When are ABGs helpful in COPD patients?

A

If they will change perioperative management; helpful in suspected hypoxemia, hypercapnia, or if post-op ventilator management is likely.

204
Q

Is a chest X-ray routinely needed for COPD?

A

No, unless there are changes from baseline, comorbid issues, or major surgeries; look for bullae.

205
Q

What are common postoperative pulmonary complications in COPD?

A

Atelectasis, respiratory infections, exacerbation of underlying disease, and hypoxemia requiring mechanical ventilation.

206
Q

What defines asthma?

A

Chronic inflammatory airway disease with bronchial hyperresponsiveness and airflow obstruction.

207
Q

What are common asthma symptoms?

A

Intermittent cough, wheezing, chest tightness, shortness of breath, often before age 20.

208
Q

What are the diagnostic tools for asthma?

A

Spirometry; bronchoprovocation testing may also be used.

209
Q

What are key differentials for asthma?

A

Other obstructive lung diseases, cystic fibrosis, heart failure, tracheal stenosis.

210
Q

What is the stepwise asthma treatment approach?

A

Starts with SABA PRN and escalates through ICS, LABA, and possibly Omalizumab and oral corticosteroids by Step 6.

211
Q

What are the big peri/postop concerns with asthma?

A

Bronchospasm and status asthmaticus.

212
Q

What are signs asthma is not controlled?

A

Symptoms >2 days/week, nighttime awakenings, activity limitation, SABA use >2 days/week, FEV1/PEF <80%, ≥2 exacerbations/year requiring steroids.

213
Q

What are key asthma physical exam findings?

A

Bronchoconstriction signs, infection, low pulse ox, increased RR, retractions, wheezes, prolonged expiration, diminished breath sounds.

214
Q

When are pulmonary function tests and chest X-ray useful in asthma?

A

PFTs if condition changes or for lung resection; CXR if infection or heart failure is suspected.

215
Q

When should elective surgery be postponed in asthma?

A

Active wheezing, poorly controlled asthma, or recent respiratory infection (within 6 weeks).

216
Q

What causes cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal mutation in CFTR gene affecting exocrine glands, leading to thick secretions and multisystem issues.

217
Q

What are key PFT findings in CF?

A

↓FEV1, ↓FEV1/FVC ratio, ↑residual volume.

218
Q

What are typical lung sounds in CF?

A

Wheezing, upper airway secretions.

219
Q

What does CF pre-op assessment include?

A

Disease progression (cough, sputum, wheeze, ↓exercise tolerance) and comorbidities like diabetes, liver disease, GERD.

220
Q

What’s important for intraop anesthesia in CF?

A

Avoid general anesthesia if possible, restrict fluids, optimize pain control, promote chest physiology, use incentive spirometry.

221
Q

What are other preop considerations in CF?

A

Multidisciplinary approach, continue CF meds, glucose control plan, sputum clearance techniques.

222
Q

What defines restrictive lung diseases?

A

↓TLC, ↓FEV1/FVC, normal or ↑FEV1/FVC ratio; caused by ILD, pleural diseases, neuromuscular disorders.

223
Q

What are signs of interstitial lung diseases (ILDs)?

A

Progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, history of occupational exposure, fine crackles, finger clubbing.

224
Q

What is the pre-op approach for ILD patients?

A

Optimize management, assess for exacerbations, consult pulmonology, assess for pulmonary hypertension and systemic involvement.

225
Q

What is obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?

A

Repetitive airway collapse ≥10 seconds per event; most common sleep disorder, underdiagnosed.

226
Q

How is OSA diagnosed and assessed preoperatively?

A

Polysomnography (AHI-based); screen using STOP-Bang, P-SAP, Berlin, ASA checklist.

227
Q

What are the AHI thresholds for OSA severity?

A

Mild: 5–14, Moderate: 15–30, Severe: >30.

228
Q

What are preop practices for OSA?

A

Treat as OSA until proven otherwise, continue PAP use, assess adherence, no routine EKG/CXR needed.

229
Q

Can OSA patients undergo ambulatory surgery?

A

Yes, if diagnosed, optimized, can use PAP post-op, and facility is equipped; otherwise, minimize opioids.

230
Q

What’s the anesthesia care plan for OSA?

A

Consider regional anesthesia, limit opioids, use short-acting meds, ensure post-op monitoring.

231
Q

What are the effects of smoking on surgical risk?

A

↓perfusion, ↓immune function, poor healing, ↓lung capacity, ↑mucus, ↑SNS activity.

232
Q

What are complications from chronic smoking?

A

↑CO levels, ↓O2, delayed healing, ICU admission, pneumonia, cardiovascular events, and death.

233
Q

What is the benefit of smoking cessation before surgery?

A

3–4 weeks = ↓infection; 4 weeks = ↓respiratory issues; even post-op = improved bone healing and fusion

234
Q

What improves smoking cessation success?

A

Brief counseling, free NRT, quitline/brochure; behavioral motivation improves outcomes.

235
Q

How has smoking cessation guidance changed?

A

“Ask, Advise, Refer” → “Ask, Advise, Connect” for automatic enrollment and higher success.

236
Q

What does the ACA require regarding tobacco use?

A

Insurance must cover screening and cessation interventions.

237
Q

What are post-op respiratory complications?

A
  • Atelectasis,
  • infection,
  • exacerbation of lung disease,
  • hypoxemia,
  • need for mechanical ventilation.
238
Q

What are other causes of post-op pulmonary issues?

A

Microaspiration, excess fluids/blood, inflammation, immunosuppression.