Cardiac 2.2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are Atrial Premature Beats (ABP)?

A
  • Depolarizations initiated by ectopic foci outside the SA node.
  • Very common and can occur with or without cardiac disease.
  • Can be from stress, caffeine, electrolyte abnormalities, drugs
  • Most common at rest and decrease with exercise
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2
Q
A

Atrial premature beat

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3
Q
A

Blocked atrial premature beat

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4
Q
A

PVC

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5
Q
A

SVT

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6
Q
A

Wolf-Parkinson White

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7
Q
A

VT

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8
Q
A

Afib

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9
Q
A

1st degree heart block

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10
Q
A

2nd degree heart block type II

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11
Q
A

2nd degree heart block type I

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12
Q
A

3rd degree heart block

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13
Q

Whats wrong in this EKG?

A

prolonged QT

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14
Q
A

Right BBB

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15
Q
A

Left BBB

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16
Q

What are Ventricular Premature Beats (VPB)?

A

Depolarizations initiated by ectopic foci outside the SA node. Very common and can occur with or without cardiac disease.

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17
Q

What is Supra Ventricular Tachycardia?

A
  • Can involve focal or reentrant mechanisms
  • result from a repetitive firing of an ectopic pacemaker.
  • can be retrograde or antegrade
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18
Q

Types of SVT?

A
  • Atrial tachycardia,
  • AV reentry tachycardia
  • Bypass mediated tachycardia (e.g., WPW).
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19
Q

What is Wolf-Parkinson White (WPW)?

A
  • A symptomatic arrhythmia in the presence of an accessory pathway
  • linking atria and ventricles, bypassing the AV node.
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20
Q

What are the WPW triad?

A
  • Short P-R interval
  • Delta wave
  • Wide QRS (often confused for BBB)
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21
Q

What are precaution as anesthesia for WPW?

A
  • Requires good preop
  • Ablation treatment of choice
  • Avoid B-Blockers, Ca Channel blockers
  • Treat with amiodarone, procainamide
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22
Q

What is Ventricular Tachycardia?

A
  • Defined as 3 or more VPBs at a rate of 100 or greater,
  • due to focal or reentry mechanisms.
  • Requires cardioversion.
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23
Q

What are the types of Ventricular Tachycardia?

A
  • Monomorphic and Polymorphic.
  • Monomorphic is usually caused by reentry around a lesion in patients with CAD,
  • Polymorphic is usually associated with CAD.
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24
Q

What is Long QT Syndrome?

A
  • Disorder arising from mutations in cardiac ion channels resulting in prolonged QT
  • Can be inherited or acquired
  • Acquired is usually because of electrolyte abnormalities or TCA’s
  • Treat with B blockers and ICD. Untreated can result in malignant arrythmias
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25
Q

What is atrial fib?

A
  • Most common arrythmia preoperatively
  • Irregular R-R
  • No distinctive P waves
    * Best viewed in lead II
  • Decreased CO and increased risk of embolism
  • Associated with:
    CAD
    HTN
    Cardiomyopathy
    Mitral stenosis
  • Increased risk of thrombosis, most patients on blood thinners
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26
Q

How many types of Conduction Blocks?

A

3 types
1st
2nd
3rd

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27
Q

What happens in type I AVB?

A

no complete block, just slow conduction between atria and ventricle

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28
Q

What happens in type II AVB?

A
  • some P not followed by QRS,
  • intermittent failure of supraventricular impulses.
  • type 1 (more common, progressive lenthening of PR intervan until atrial stimulus not conducted)
  • type 2 (rare and more serious, intermittently blocked P waves, most have BBB, block usually in bundle of HIS).
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29
Q

What happens in 3rd degree block?

A
  • failure of supraventricular impulses to reach ventricles.
  • atria and ventricles paced separately and independently,
  • requires pacemaker.
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30
Q

What causes right Bundle Branch Blocks?

A
  • Can be an isolated anomaly without any underlying disease
  • 3 times more common than LBBB
  • May occur in chronic conditions affecting the right side of the heart including ASD, chronic pulmonary disease, pulmonary HTN, or PE
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31
Q

What causes LBBB?

A
  • Incidental in 2.5% of population
  • More likely than a RBBB to be associated with underlying heart disease
  • Can lead to systolic diastolic dysfunction
  • May precipitate heart failure
  • Requires a more in depth assessment
    1. LV Hypertrophy
    1. CAD
    1. Valve problems
33
Q

What is the incidence of congenital heart disease and why are cases increasing?

A
  • increased over last few decades, seeing more cases due to improved treatments
  • 6 per 1000;
34
Q

Which gender is more affected by congenital heart disease and why?

A

Females; males less likely to survive

35
Q

What tests are used to evaluate congenital heart disease?

A

CXR, EKG, MRI, CT, Holter, Stress Test, Heart Cath

36
Q

What are common presentations of congenital heart disease?

A

WPW, dyspnea, orthopnea, A-V shunt, pulm/hepatic issues

37
Q

What determines the extent of preop cardiac testing?

A

Case complexity and comorbidities
range from EKG to nuclear stress test

38
Q

Should immunosuppressants be stopped preop in heart transplant patients?

A

No, continue them

39
Q

What are common side effects of immunosuppressants?

A

Renal issues, electrolytes, ↑ infection risk (20%)

40
Q

What baseline tests are done for heart transplant patients?

A

EKG, stress test, echo, heart cath, biopsy

41
Q

How does transplant type and location of grafting affect rhythm?

A

they drives heart rhythm Biatrial vs. bicaval

42
Q

What is a denervated heart missing?

A

Sympathetic, parasympathetic, sensory input

43
Q

Why is HR higher in transplant patients?

A

No parasympathetic tone

44
Q

What drives function in a denervated heart?

A

Frank-Starling mechanism

45
Q

What’s unique about bicaval transplants?

A

Entire atrium removed, ventricular ectopy, bradycardia, pacemaker

46
Q

What’s unique about biatrial transplants?

A

2 P waves, conduction blocks, A-fib

47
Q

What is the diagnostic mPAP threshold for pulmonary hypertension?

A

Mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) > 25 mmHg at rest

48
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic tool for pulmonary hypertension?

A

Right heart catheterization

49
Q

How many types of pulmonary hypertension are there?

A

5 different types

50
Q

What test helps assess the severity of pulmonary hypertension?

A

6-minute walk test

51
Q

What distance on the 6-minute walk test indicates increased disease and risk?

A

<600 meters

52
Q

What should be done with elective surgery in patients with pulmonary hypertension?

A

Postpone elective surgery

53
Q

What are key anesthesia considerations for a patient with pulmonary hypertension?

A

Avoid hypotension, have a solid anesthesia plan, and continue all medications

54
Q

What are common causes of peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

A

Smoking, diabetes, HTN, sleep apnea, autoimmune diseases

55
Q

What is the primary pathology behind PAD?

A

Atherosclerosis

56
Q

Which organs are affected by systemic atherosclerosis in PAD?

A

Kidney, liver, heart, cerebral

57
Q

What should be included in the physical exam for PAD?

A

Pulses, bruits, BP, systemic organ evaluation

58
Q

What preoperative conditions should be managed in patients with PAD?

A

CAD, heart failure, rhythm disturbances

59
Q

What components make up a typical CIED?

A

Pulse generator + 1 to 3 leads

60
Q

What types of new pacemaker technologies are being developed?

A

Leadless and coilless pacemakers and defibrillators

61
Q

What are the two main types of cardiac implantable devices?

A

ICD and Pacemaker

62
Q

What imaging tool helps distinguish between ICD and pacemaker?

A

Chest X-ray

63
Q

Where can pacemaker leads be inserted?

A

RA, RV, coronary sinus

64
Q

What is the main function of an implanted cardioverter defibrillator (ICD)?

A

Prevention of sudden cardiac death

65
Q

What does Position I of the CIED code represent?

A

Chamber(s) paced (O=None, A=Atrium, V=Ventricle, D=Dual A+V)

66
Q

What does Position II of the CIED code represent?

A

Chamber(s) sensed (O=None, A=Atrium, V=Ventricle, D=Dual A+V)

67
Q

What does Position III of the CIED code represent?

A

Response to sensing (O=None, T=Triggered, I=Inhibited, D=Dual T+I)

68
Q

What does Position IV of the CIED code represent?

A

Rate modulation (O=None, R=Rate modulation)

69
Q

What does Position V of the CIED code represent?

A

Multisite pacing (O=None, A=Atrium, V=Ventricle, D=Dual A+V)

70
Q

Which type of cautery can interfere with an ICD during surgery?

A

Monopolar cautery

71
Q

Which type of cautery has minimal effect on ICDs?

A

Bipolar cautery

72
Q

Why is cutting above the umbilicus concerning in patients with CIEDs?

A

It can significantly impact the device

73
Q

Which devices should be used cautiously with CIEDs during surgery?

A

Nerve/block stimulators, saws, high-vibration tools

74
Q

What is commonly done to CIEDs during surgery?

A

Disable the unit

75
Q

What is the pacemaker’s typical response to a magnet?

A

Initiates asynchronous pacing

76
Q

What happens to defibrillators when a magnet is placed over them?

A

They are usually deactivated while the magnet stays in place