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NNP Board Exam Review > Respiratory > Flashcards

Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Normal Neonatal ABG: normal pO2

A

50-70 (term infant)
45-65 (preterm infant)

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2
Q

LEFT shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

A

hypothermia, hypocapnia, alkalosis, and decreasing 2-3 DPG

(think frost bite - blue fingers and toes (no o2 or perfusion in those cold extremities) )

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3
Q

RIGHT shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

A

hyperthermia, acidosis (think hot), hypercapnia, increased levels of 2-3, DPG (when skin is hot, it flushes with blood and oxygen, increased perfusion)

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4
Q

Embryology: Embryonic Phase

A

3-6 weeks; lung bud develops ; single lung buds divide into the right and left lung buds and into trachea

some airway branching; pulmonary vein, pulmonary artery formation occurs

abnormal development: Tracheal agenesis, tracheal stenosis, TEF, pulmonary sequestration

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5
Q

Embryology: Psuedoglandular phase

A

6-16 weeks

conducting airways are formed

abnormal development: congenital lobar emphysema, congenital diaphragmatic hernia

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6
Q

Embryology: cannicular phase

A

16-26 weeks
the acinar or respiratory units form; Cuboidal cells develop into Type 1 Cells (those responsible for gas exchange) and Type 2 cells (those capable of surfactant production)

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7
Q

embryology: terminal sac or saccular phase

A

weeks 26-36

saccules develop which will eventually turn into alveoli; Type 2 cells increase in production and release of surfactant

infants delivered in this stage may have RDS, pulmonary insufficiency, PIE, BPD

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8
Q

factors that facilitate alveolarization

A

vitamin A

thyroxin

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9
Q

Fetal lung fluid production

A

produced at 4-5 ml/kg/hr

is facilitated by active transport of chloride from the interstitium

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10
Q

L-S ratio

A

lecithin-sphyngomyelin ratio of 2:1 is indicative of fetal lung maturity

its use is not accurate in infants of diabetic mothers

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11
Q

PG ratio (phosphatidyglycerol levels)

A

used to assess fetal lung maturity; more useful in IDM; increases in production at around 35 weeks, its presence indicates lung maturity

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12
Q

Fetal breathing movements

A

can be seen as early as 11 weeks

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13
Q

Role of antenatal steroids

A

maximum benefit is at 48 hours after administration with a result in the increase in production of proteins that control the manufacture of surfactant by type 2 cells

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14
Q

pulmonary hypoplasia

A

pulmonary underdevelopment;

  • primary - intrinsic failure of resp. development
  • secondary - result of abnormal processes that interfere with lung development;
    • oligo r/t renal anomalies
    • IUGR
    • space occupying lesions (CHD, Cardiomegaly, cystic lung disease)
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15
Q

Pulmonary Hypoplasia Diagnosis & Management

A
  • Diagnosis:
    • CXR shows decrease lung volume
  • Management
    • abnormal pulmonary vasculature may result in PPHN
    • poor lung compliance requires higher pressures to ventilate
      • minimize over expansion (consider HFOV)
    • admin surfactant
      • consider iNO if PPHN present
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16
Q

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

A

diaphragm defect allows herniation of bowel contents into chest; creates a mass effect → impedes resp. development

posterolateral defects most common; anterior 2nd

left side more commonly affected

presentation: severe resp. distress, scaphoid abdomen, cyanosis

avoid bag-mask and CPAP; immediate intubation required

use of cuffed ETT tubes may reduce gaseous distention

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17
Q

Tracheoesophageal Fistula / esophageal fistula

A

EA - anatomic interruption of the esophagus

TEF - combined anomalies of esophagus and trachea due to abnormal development of the embryonic foregut

male predisposition

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18
Q

TE/ EA associations

A

association with Trisomy 13,18,21, pierre-robin, digeorge, fanconi, polysplenia

higher incidence of VACTERL Association and CHARGE

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19
Q

TEF/EA Types

A
  • A - isolated EA no fistula
  • B - Proximal TEF with Distal EA
  • C - Ea with Distal TEF - most common
  • D - Both proximal and distal TEF - least common
  • E - Isolated TEF (aka H type)
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20
Q

Absence of air in the abdomen indicates a pure ___ or an _____ with isolated _____.

A

pure EA or EA with isolated upper pouch TEF

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21
Q

Presence of air in the abdomen indicates a ________.

A

TEF patent to the distal esophagus.

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22
Q

TEF / EA management

A

avoid intubation if possible - may cause abdominal distention; if necessary - HFOV

Repogle on continuous suction to minimize secretion and aspiration

elevate HOB to minimize reflux

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23
Q

RDS

A

surfactant deficiency;

pulmonary edema from serum proteins leaking into the alveoli contibutes to the loss of FRC, alters ventilation:perfusion ratio

increased fetal insulin production in response to maternal diabetes inhibits proteins critical for surfactant production

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24
Q

Early onset Pneumonia organisms (common)

A

GBS, E. Coli, Klebsiella

E Coli(most common bacterial isolate)

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25
Q

Late onset pneumonia organism

A

Staphylococcus, Coagulase negative Staphylococci, Staph Aureus

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26
Q

Pneumonia on CXR

A

unilateral or bilateral, alveolar infiltrates, areas of confluent opacities, diffuse interstitial pattern, and pleural effusions

ground glass and air bronchograms may also be present

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27
Q

Treatment of early onset pneumonia

A

ampicillin and gentamicin

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28
Q

treatment of late onset pneumonia

A

vanc and gent

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29
Q

TTN CXR

A

pulmonary marking with perihilar streaking

hyperaeration with widened intercostal spaces, mild cardiomegaly, mild pleural effusion; flat diaphragm

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30
Q

TTN management

A

CPAP with or without supplemental oxygen to improve lung recruitment;

withholding feedings if tachypnea >60-80 bpm. , restricting fluid intake may decrease duration of support

usually self limiting within 72 hours

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31
Q

Risk factors for MAS

A

post-term, SGA, fetal distress, placental insufficiency, oligo, cord compression, intrauterine hypoxia

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32
Q

MAS patho

A

meconium can inactivate surfactant, inhibit production, cause obstruction, resulting in resp. distress, impaired exchange

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33
Q

MAS presentation

A

barrel shaped chest s/t hyperinflation, resp. distress,

Diffuse, patchy, asymmetrical infiltrates, areas of consolidation, hyper-expanded lucent areas mixed with areas of atelectasis, flat diaphragm on CXR

34
Q

Respiratory Support for MAS

A

mechanical ventilation is common, use of PPV may result in air-leak r/t ball-valve effect of MAS, low levels of PPV and PEEP splint open partially obstructed airways

When airway resistance is high and lung compliance is normal, use of a slow rate and moderate pressure or volume is indicated.

at risk of PPHN due to high airway resistancec

35
Q

When airway resistance is high and lung compliance is normal, use of a _____ rate and ______ pressure or volume is indicated.

A

slow rate and moderate pressure

36
Q

Pulmonary Hemorrhage

A

thought to result from hemorrhagic pulmonary edema → results in poor lung compliance, surfactant inactivation, and pulmonary edema

37
Q

PH risk factors

A
  • PDa
  • surfactant administration
  • sepsis
  • extreme prematurity
  • coagulopathy
  • IVH
  • heart disease
  • perinatal asphyxia
  • male gender
  • hypothermia
  • multiple gestation
38
Q

PH CXR

A

fluffy infiltrates or opacification of one or both lungs with air bronchograms

39
Q

PH Management

A

check HCT, echo to assess PDA, Vent support with high mean airway pressures, PEEP 6-8;

avoid aggressive airway suctioning

PRBCS may be indicated

40
Q

Persistant Pulmonary Hypertension (PPHN)

A

syndrome of acute respiratory distress from sustained elevation in PVR and pulmonary artery pressure leading to right to left shunting across the persistent shunts, decreased pulmonary perfusion, severe systemic hypoxemic respiratory failure, acidemia, and lactic acidosis

41
Q

maternal risk factors PPHN

A

MSAF, maternal fever, UTI, anemia, diabetes, pulmonary disease, as well as SSRI use, hypothermia, c-section delivery

42
Q

PPHN presentation

A
  • resp. distress
  • cyanosis with gradient of 10% or more between pre and post ductal saturation
  • hyperoxia test - ABG before and after 10 minutes of 100% FiO2; PaO2 does not increase - a right to left shunt is indicated
  • a single or narrowly split and accentuated second heart sound can be heard as well as a systolic murmur
43
Q

PPHN management

A
  • intubation to avoid hypoxia yet avoid hyperoxia and hyperventilation
  • high oxygen concentrations (oxygen is potent vasodilator)
  • hemodynamic support to maintain systemic blood pressure
    • this may include volume expanders (saline, PRBCs)
    • Pharm: inotropic agents like dobutamine and milrinone, or admin of vasopressors like dopamine, correction of hypoglycemia
    • correction of hypoglycemia and hypocalcemia promotes myocardial function and improves response to inotropes
  • admin of iNO promotes smooth muscle relaxation and pulmonary vasodilation for term and near term infants w/ minimal to no impact on systemic arterial pressure
    • nitric oxide can be also be given via ventilator
    • vent support should be weaned slowly to avoid rebound PPHN
    • ECMO indicated for failure of response to resp. support
44
Q

PIE

A

airleak syndrome where high pressures damage airways and alveoli and allow air to enter the interstitium

management: Decrease pressures, PEEP, and inspiratory time, high frequency ventilation may help reduce tidal volume

45
Q

PIE on CXR

A

alveolar overdistention with linear cyst-like lucencies

46
Q

Ventilation Strategies: poor respiratory drive

A

SIMV with low pressures, lungs often compliant but potential for overdistention

47
Q

Ventilation Strategies: post-surgery

A

SIMV or AC with medium - High pressures and tidal volume

PEEP needed to maintain EELV and recruitment, with high intra-abdominal pressure may have poor response to conventional vent, HFOV OR HFJV preferred

48
Q

Ventilation Strategies: Preterm RDS

A

poor lung compliance, poor chest wall compliance

AC with HIGH pressures, tidal volume 4-5, short i Time and fast rate well tolerated

49
Q

Ventilation Strategies: Preterm with Pulmonary Hemorrhage

A

r./t poor lung compliance

SIMV or AC with high PEEP, tidal volume 5-6; longer iTime may help recruitment

50
Q

Ventilation Strategies: Preterm with Pneumonia or Term with MAS

A

SIMV or SIMV + PSV with medium PEEP and tidal volume of 5-6;

higher TV needed in meconium aspiration due to increased alveolar dead space

51
Q

Relative Hypercapnia is permissable to avoid ________ and associated ______.

A

overventilation and lung injury

52
Q

Vent Management: low oxygenation, low saturation

A

increase MAP (increase PIP or Tidal Volume (if VG))

increase PEEP if pulmonary hemorrhage or struggling with stiff lungs

increase FiO2

Increase Ti (as long as its shorter than Te)

53
Q

Vent Management: High pH with low CO2

A

over ventilation

Decrease Tidal Volume or PIP (first if baby has good chest movement and high Tv or MV)

Decrease Rate (pointless if using PC or AC and baby is breathing above the set rate)

extubate ( if not ready for extubation, consider switching to PC-AC or SIMV)

54
Q

Vent Management: low pH with High CO2

A

under-ventilation

increase tidal volume (PIP or Vt)

Increase rate (by 5)

55
Q

Chronic Lung Disease Management (aka BPD)

A

may require higher caloric intake (150-180 ml/kg/day) + higher protein, vitamin, mineral intake

Fluid intake restriction with reduction in salt intake (help reduce pulmonary edema) and include lasix, spironolactone, chlorothiazide, HCTZ

bronchodilators assists in reduction of bronchospasm

Caffeine promotes airway bronchodilation

corticosteroid therapy reduces inflammation, improves lung functions, facilltates weaning

56
Q

risks of long term lasix use

A

hypercalciuria, bone demineralization, nephrolithiasis, ototoxicity

57
Q

Central Apnea

A

respiratory efforts cease without evidence of obstruction

58
Q

obstructive apnea

A

breathing motions without effect due to a blocked airway (50-60 percent of episodes are obstructive in nature)

59
Q

mixed apnea

A

upper airway obstruction combined with central cessation of respiratory efforts

60
Q

Choanal atresia

A

bone abnormality obstructing flow

bilateral is most common

cyanosis improves with crying

61
Q

Laryngomalacia

A

obstructive d/o caused by a flaccid larynx, common cause of neonatal stridor

62
Q

tracheomalacia

A

airway obstruction caused by the collapse of the trachea during expiration

63
Q

micrognathia affecting respiratory distress

A

mandibular hypoplasia (can be assoc. with pierre robin sequence)

prone positioning, use of oral airway

64
Q

Polycythemia affecting respiratory distress

A

Hct >65% leading to hyperviscosity - can increase risk of PPHN

65
Q

Cystic hygroma

A

supraclavicular mass or varying size that transilluminates; distress varys with degree of compression of airway

66
Q

Vent management: In conventional ventilation strategies, Carbon dioxide removal is most affected by ________ and _________.

A

tidal volume and frequency

67
Q

Expiratory Time: A shortened expiratory time can contribute to an increase in _____________. Increases in expiratory time may also facilitate _______________.

A

Mean airway pressure; CO2 removal.

68
Q

PIE diagnosis, management

A

cyst-like lucencies on CXR w/i first 48 hrs of life. Management - decrease Mean Airway pressure, PEEP, and iTime

69
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Transilluminates on affected side, hyperlucent hemithorax on cxr
mgmt: thoracentesis, chest tube, vent management to reduce Paw, PEEP, TV
HFOV may be better

70
Q

Pneumomediastinum

A

central air collections and lifting of thymus from heart (sail sign) on CXR - in lateral view, reduce Pressures

71
Q

Pneumopericardium

A

air surrounding heart on cxr, needle aspiration if cardiac tamponade is present

72
Q

Timing for BPD assessment

A

<32 weeks - assessment at 6 weeks PMA or discharge home (whichever comes first)
>32 weeks - assessment btw 28-56 postnatal days or discharge home (whichever comes first)

73
Q

In conventional ventilation strategies, CO2 removal is most affected by 1) and 2)

A

Tidal Volume and Frequency

74
Q

In HFV, CO2 removal is a product of ________- and ____________(aka_______)

A

frequency and the square of the tidal volume (aka frequency)

75
Q

As Inspiratory time increases __________ also increases. Increases in expiratory time may ______________.

A

Mean Airway Pressure

Facilitate CO2 removal.

76
Q

Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (IMV)

A

Scheduled ventilator breaths

77
Q

SIMV (synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation)

A

ventilator breaths are scheduled but are triggered by an infants own respiratory efforts. Breaths beyond the scheduled rate are not supported
Useful when weaning ventilation

78
Q

Assist Control

A

Every breath the infant initiates triggers a ventilator breath w/ a preset number of assisted breaths. Tidal volume is set and assisted to meet that volume with every breath (and then some if set above the infant’s natural respiratory rate)

79
Q

Volume Control

A

A Tidal volume is set and PIP varies to meet set Tidal Volume, changes depending on lung compliance

80
Q

Pressure Control

A

PIP / PEEP set and the tidal volume varies to meet set PIP and PEEP

81
Q

Volume Guarentee

A

A targeted Vt and PIP are predetermined are predetermined and automatically adjusted to lung compliance and patient’s breathing patterns

82
Q

In HFOV, the ___________ of the oscillations within the airway determine the _______ delivered around a constant ________.

A

amplitude of the oscillations within the airway determine the Vt delivered around a constant mean airway pressure

NNP Board Exam Review (19 decks)

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