Resp I Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Which factors make the Centor criteria? [4]

A

The Centor criteria are as follows:
* presence of tonsillar exudate
* tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis
* history of fever
* absence of cough

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3
Q

A patient has PCP.

What is the standard treatment? [1]
Under what conditions do you add steroids to ^? [1]

A

Co-trixamazole
- Adjunctive steroids should be administered to patients with PaO2 ≤8 kPa and/or evidence of hypoxaemia e.g. oxygen saturations < 92%.

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4
Q

Which stages of sarcoidosis do you provide treatment for? [4]

What is the treatment? [4]

A

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy alone:
- Usually self-limiting and often does not require treatment

Acute sarcoidosis:
- Bed rest and NSAIDs for symptom control

Steroid treatment:
- Oral or intravenous, depending on the severity of the disease

Immunosuppressants
- Used in severe disease.

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5
Q

A patient presents with small cell lung cancer.

What is the main stay of treatment? [1]

A

Surgery plays little role in the management of small cell lung cancer, with chemotherapy (& radiotherapy) being the mainstay of treatment

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6
Q

The patient has symptoms of a lung abscess further supported by foul smelling sputum, recurrent fever and a history of stroke (risk of aspiration due to impaired swallow).

[] is an additional clinical feature than can be seen in patients with recurrent lung abscesses

A

The patient has symptoms of a lung abscess further supported by foul smelling sputum, recurrent fever and a history of stroke (risk of aspiration due to impaired swallow).

Finger clubbing is an additional clinical feature than can be seen in patients with recurrent lung abscesses

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7
Q

How do you manage secondary pneumothorax persistent leak? [1]

A

Risk of surgery is greater: need to consider risk benefit:

  • medical pleurodesis: put talc through chest drain (not as effective as surgical pleurodesis & painful)
  • Abrasive / surgical pleurodesis (using direct physical irritation of the pleura)
  • Open thoracotomy
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8
Q

How do you manage haemothoraxes? [4]

A
  • Sufficient analgesia
  • For trauma cases: tranexamic acid
  • The majority of haemothorax require the insertion of a surgical chest drain, to evacuate the blood from the pleural cavity
  • For patients with large volume blood loss (approx. >1500ml) or continuing moderate volume blood loss (approx. >200ml per hour), surgical exploration should be considered, in attempt to identify and stop the bleeding vessel - usually via VATS

Timing of VATS is crucial when evacuating a haemothorax, ideally being performed within 48-72 hours, to enable successful evaluation and early re-expansion of the lung.

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9
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of Meig’s syndrome [3]

A

TOM TIP: Meigs syndrome involves a triad of a :
- benign ovarian tumour (usually a fibroma)
- pleural effusion
- ascites.

This often appears in exams. The pleural effusion and ascites resolve with the removal of the tumour.

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10
Q

How would pH analysis of pleural fluid help to determine cause? [3]

A

< 7.20 in complicated parapneumonic effusion & empyema, rheumatoid arthritis, or advanced malignancy

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11
Q

What size needle [1] and syringe [1] should be used for pleural aspiration?

A

A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used

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12
Q

How would you treat the following? [3]
- simple parapneumonic effusion
- complicated parapneuomic effusion
- Empyema

A
  • simple parapneumonic effusion: Abx
  • complicated parapneuomic effusion: chest drain
  • Empyema: chest drain
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13
Q

Describe the management of mesothelioma [5]

A

Pleural effusions
- Drainage & pleurodesis (medical or surgical)

Radiotherapy
- To reduce chest wall invasion risk & pain relief

Chemotherapy
- Cisplatin with Pemetrexed or Gemcitibine

Surgery
- selected cases only (high mortality)

  • Pain relief
  • Palliative Care
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14
Q

Describe chemotherapy that can be used for mesothelioma [3]

A
  • Chemotherapy
  • Cisplatin with Pemetrexed or Gemcitibine
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15
Q

Describe the treatment algorithm for a patient with mesothelioma with operable disease [3]

BMJ BP

A

1ST LINE: surgery
- extra-pleural pneumonectomy [EPP]: removes parietal and visceral pleura
- pleurectomy with decortication pleurectomy removes the lining around the lung (the pleura). Decortication removes tumors or fibrous tissue from the surface of the lung.

PLUS – pre- and/or postoperative chemotherapy:
- cisplatin
AND
- pemetrexed

CONSIDER – radiotherapy
- Post-extrapleural pneumonectomy (EPP) radiotherapy (RT)

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16
Q

Which conditions would you not perform a needle aspiration and go straight to a chest drain to manage a pneumothorax? [6]

A
  • Haemodynamic compromise (suggesting a tension pneumothorax)
  • Significant hypoxia
  • Bilateral pneumothorax
  • Underlying lung disease
  • ≥ 50 years of age with significant smoking history
  • Haemothorax
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17
Q

If a patient has persistent pneumothoraces, how do you treat them? [1]

A

If a patient has a persistent air leak or insufficient lung reexpansion despite chest drain insertion, or the patient has recurrent pneumothoraces, then video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) should be considered to allow for mechanical/chemical pleurodesis +/- bullectomy.

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18
Q

How long should you get a primary spontaneous pneumothorax patient to come to outpatients after letting them go? [1]

How long should you get a secondary spontaneous pneumothorax patient to come to outpatients after letting them go? [1]

A

Primary spontaneous pneumothorax that is managed conservatively should be reviewed:
- every 2-4 days as an outpatient

Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax:
- follow-up in the outpatients department in 2-4 weeks

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19
Q

What is Apnoea and Hypopnoea Index? [1]

What are normal, mild, moderate and severe scores? [4]

A

AHI – number of apnoeas and hypopnoeas
per hour of the study

  • 0 to 5 Within normal limits
  • 5 to 15 Mild OSA
  • 15 to 30 Moderate OSA
  • 30 plus Severe OSA
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20
Q

What trio of crtieria make a diagnosis of obesity hypoventilation syndrome? [3]

A
  • Daytime hypercapnia PaCO2 ≥ 45 mmHg
  • Obesity (BMI > 30)
  • Sleep disordered breathing (which can include OSA)
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21
Q

Desribe a key difference in OSA and OHS [1]

A

Patients with OHS often experience daytime hypoventilation, which leads to chronic hypercapnia and hypoxemia, resulting in symptoms such as dyspnea, exercise intolerance, morning headaches, and cognitive dysfunction.

In summary, OHS is a more complex disorder involving chronic hypoventilation, obesity, and sleep-disordered breathing, whereas OSA is specifically characterized by upper airway obstruction during sleep

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22
Q

Describe what is meant by direct bronchial challenge testing [1]

What results would indicate a positive result for asthma? [1]

A

Direct bronchial challenge testing is the opposite of reversibility testing.

Inhaled histamine or methacholine is used to stimulate bronchoconstriction, reducing the FEV1 in patients with asthma.

NICE say a PC20 (provocation concentration of methacholine causing a 20% reduction in FEV1) of 8 mg/ml or less is a positive test result.

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23
Q

What are low [1], moderate [1] and high doses [1] used ICS in asthma tx? [3]

A

Low dose:
* <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent

Medium dose:
* 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent

High dose:
* > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent

24
Q

Describe the MoA of Omalizumab [1]

When is it indicated? [2]

A

Mechanism of action:
* monoclonal antibody to IgE
* decreases IgE

Considered when:
* confirmed allergic IgE-mediated asthma as an add-on to optimised standard therapy after all others used
* suffer from asthma with continuous or frequent treatment with oral corticosteroids (defined as 4 or more courses in the previous year)

25
Q

What is important to note about taking ICS? [1]
How do you combat this? [1]

A

In some patients can cause paradoxical bronchospasm
Take SABA before to counteract.

26
Q

What are the indications for CPAP? [4]

A
  • Hypoxia in the context of chest wall trauma despite adequate anaesthesia and high flow oxygen (pneumothorax should be ruled out using a chest x-ray prior to commencing CPAP)
  • Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
  • Pneumonia: as an interim measure before invasive ventilation or as a ceiling of treatment
  • Obstructive sleep apnoea
27
Q

What are the different colours of venturi mask colours? [6]

What are the oxygen flow rate (L/min) for these different colours of venturi mask? [6]

What are the FiO2 (approx. oxygen) delivered for these different colours of venturi mask? [6]

A
28
Q

Label A-F

A

A: Blue
B: White
C: Orange
D: Yellow
E: Red
F: Green

29
Q

Explain what is meant by Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome [2]

ARDS has an acute onset of which pathological features? [4]

A

ARDS: Severe inflammatory reaction in the lungs, often secondary to sepsis or trauma.

Only a small portion of the total lung volume is aerated and has functional alveoli. The remainder of the lungs are collapsed and non-aerated.

There is an acute onset of:
* Collapse of the alveoli and lung tissue (atelectasis)
* Pulmonary oedema (not related to heart failure or fluid overload)
* Decreased lung compliance (how much the lungs inflate when ventilated with a given pressure)
* Fibrosis of the lung tissue (typically after 10 days or more)

30
Q

What is the management of ARDS? [5]

A
  • Due to the severity of the condition patients are generally managed in ITU:
  • Respiratory support to treat hypoxaemia
  • Prone positioning (lying on their front)
  • Careful fluid management to avoid excess fluid collecting in the lung
  • General organ support e.g. vasopressors as needed
  • Treatment of the underlying cause e.g. antibiotics for sepsis
31
Q

Explain what is meant by central sleep apnea (CSA). What are the two mechanisms involved with CSA? [2]

A

Central sleep apnea (CSA) is caused by alterations in respiratory drive, which during sleep is highly dependent on carbon dioxide levels. Two mechanisms are distinguished:

Hypoventilation-related CSA:
- Decreased ventilatory drive causes transient decreases and/or pauses in respiration.

Hyperventilation-related CSA:
- Increased ventilatory drive during sleep leads to hypocapnia which causes a compensatory fall in ventilation that, if abnormally prolonged, leads to recurrent central apnea with arousals.

32
Q

Name some causes of central sleep apnea (both hypoventilation related and hyperventilation) [5]

A

Causes of hypoventilation-related CSA with hypercapnia
- hypothyroidism
- neural lesions (eg, brain stem infarctions, encephalitis, Chiari II type malformation)
- certain drugs (most commonly opioids—including methadone).

Hyperventilation-related CSA:
- occurs at high altitude in healthy people as a consequence of hypobaric hypoxia.
- It also occurs in patients with heart failure and occasionally during treatment of obstructive apneas.

33
Q

What changes to the face might suggest someone is suffering from sarcoidosis [1]

A

Bilateral parotid gland swelling

34
Q

What are the 5 grades of the MRC dyspnoea scale? [5]

A
  • Grade 1: Breathless on strenuous exercise
  • Grade 2: Breathless on walking uphill
  • Grade 3:Breathlessness that slows walking on the flat
  • Grade 4: Breathlessness stops them from walking more than 100 meters on the flat
  • Grade 5: Unable to leave the house due to breathlessness

mMRC ≥2

35
Q

What are common ECG changes might you see in COPD patients? [4]

A
  • Rightward deviation of the P wave and QRS axis
  • Low voltage QRS complexes, especially in the left precordial leads (V4-6)
  • With development of cor pulmonale, right atrial enlargement (P pulmonale) and right ventricular hypertrophy
  • Arrhythmias including multifocal atrial tachycardia
36
Q

Describe the stepwise approach to treating COPD

A

First line treatment:
- SABA (salbutamol) or SAMA (e.g ipratropium bromide)

The next stage depends on whether the patient has asthmatic features / features suggesting steroid responsiveness

If NONE: use a combination:
- Add LABA AND LAMA regularly

If ASTHMATIC features:
- Add LABA & ICS regularly

Next stage for both:
- Use LABA AND LAMA AND ICS

37
Q

Label A-E

A
38
Q

Explain which further tests would you need to conduct if giving azithromycin prophylaxis? [4]

A

ECG:
- can cause QT prolongation

LFTs:
- Can cause liver injury

CT scan:
- to exclude bronchiectasis

Sputum culture:
- exclude atypical infections and tuberculosis

39
Q

When are roflumilast / PDE-4 inhibitors indicated in COPD treatment? [2]

A

FEV1 < 50%
AND
Ptx has two or more exacerbations in previous twelve months despitre triple therapy (LAMA; LABA & ICS)

40
Q

Explain the physiological reasons of what can happen to CO2 levels when treated with oxygen in COPD patients? [2]

A

Many patients retain CO2 when treated with oxygen (oxygen induced hypercapnia)

Due to:

Increased V/Q mismatch (most important)
- COPD ptx optimise gas exchange by hypoxic vasoconstriction leading to altered Va/Q ratios
- Excessive oxygen administration overcomes this, leading to increased blood flow to poorly ventilated alveoli, and thus increased Va/Q mismatch and increased physiological deadspace

The Haldane effect:
- deoxygenated Hb binds CO2 with greater affinity than oxygenated Hb
- Thus: oxygen induces a rightward shift of the CO2 dissociation curve (Haldane effect)

41
Q

What pO2 level is LTOT therapy given to COPD without any other factors? [1]

What pO2 levels [1] and other conditions [3] mean that LTOT is given to COPD factors?

A

Offer LTOT to patients with a pO2 of < 7.3 kPa
OR
To those with a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following:
* secondary polycythaemia
* peripheral oedema
* pulmonary hypertension

42
Q

State three ways in which supplemental oxygen can be given in treatment of acute excaerbation of COPD [3]

A

A 24% Venturi mask at 2-3 L/min
A 28% Venturi mask at 4 L/min
Nasal cannulae at 1-2 L/min

43
Q

BTS recommends that NIV is indicated if WHICH features are present 60 minutes after optimal supplemental oxygen and bronchodilation have been given in COPD? [3]

A

BTS recommends that NIV is indicated if the following features are present 60 minutes after optimal supplemental oxygen and bronchodilation have been given:

Acidosis - pH < 7.35
Hypercapnia - pCO2 > 6.5
Respiratory rate > 23

44
Q

Acute exacerbation of COPD

Which features of a decompensating a patient would indicate moivng to invasive mechanical ventilation? [5]

A
  • Imminent respiratory arrest
  • Severe respiratory distress
  • Failure of NIV - persistent acidosis (pH < 7.25) and tachypnoea (RR > 35)
  • Persistent or worsening acidosis (pH < 7.15)
  • Depressed consciousness (GCS < 8)
45
Q

When is NIV indicated in acute exacerbations of COPD? [1]

A

NIV should be considered in all patients with an acute exacerbation of COPD in whom a respiratory acidosis (PaCO2>6kPa, pH < 7.35 ≥7.26) persists despite immediate maximum standard medical treatment

46
Q

Describe what is meant by brittle asthma [2]

A

*Type 1:
- wide PEF variability (>40% diurnal variation for >50% of the time over a period >150 days) despite intense
therapy

*Type 2:
- sudden severe attacks on a background of apparentlywell-controlled asthma

47
Q

Describe what is meant by moderate exacerbation of asthma [6]

A
  • Increasing symptoms
  • Speech normal
  • PEF >50-75% best or predicted
  • No features of acute severe asthma
  • RR < 25 / min
  • Pulse < 110 bpm
48
Q

Describe what is meant by an acute severe exacerbation of asthma [4]

A

Any one of:
* PEF 33-50% best or predicted
* respiratory rate >25/min
* HR > 110bpm
* inability to complete sentences in one breath

Admit – if persisting symptoms

49
Q

What is a pneumonic for life-threatening exacerbation of asthma?

A

33-92 CHEST:

  • PEF < 33%
  • sats < 92%
  • Cyanosis or confusion
  • Hypotension
  • Exhaustion
  • Silent chest
  • Tachy or bradychardia
50
Q

Describe what is meant by a near fatal exacerbation of asthma [1]

A

Raised PaCO₂ (>6kPa) and/or need for mechanical ventilation.

It typically correlates with an FEV1 around 20% of predicted or less.

51
Q

What dose salbutamol would you give? [1]
How is it delivered? [1]
How often? [1]

A

2.5-5mg every 10 minutes
Nebulised with oxygen

52
Q

Which ICS would you give in acute asthma? [2]
What dose? [2]
How is it delivered? [1]
How often? [1]

A

Hydrocortisone
-IV 100-200mg QDS

prednisolone
- PO 40mg OD

53
Q

Acute asthma

What dose ipratropium bromide would you give? [1]
What is the MoA? [1]
How is it delivered? [1]
How often? [1]

A

Ipratropium bromide
- Nebulised with oxygen
- Muscarinic antagonist: Bronchodilator
- 500 micrograms every 4-6 hours

54
Q

Acute asthma

What dose Magnesium sulphate would you give? [1]
What is the MoA? [1]
How is it delivered? [1]
How often? [1]

A

Magnesium sulphate
1.2 – 2 grams over 20 minutes IV
Bronchodilator

55
Q

What dose theophylline would you give? [1]
What is the MoA? [1]
How is it delivered? [1]
How often? [1]

A

Theophylline
Inhibit phosphodiesterase and increase cAMP – smooth muscle dilation
Life-threatening
Senior guidance

56
Q

Describe side effects of salbutamol tx [3]

A

Serum potassium needs monitoring with salbutamol treatment, which causes potassium to be absorbed from the blood into the cells, resulting in hypokalaemia

  • tachycardia (fast heart rate)
  • lactic acidosis.
57
Q

What is the follow up plan when discharing acute asthma exacerbations? [3]

A

o Follow up within 48 hrs
o < 30 days post discharge by GP/nurse specialist
o under specialist supervision indefinitely for near-fatal asthma and
at least 1 yeat for severe asthma attack