Endocrine I Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is caused by a congenital deficiency of the which enzyme? (In most cases) [1]

A

21-hydroxylase
- In a small number of cases it is caused by a deficiency of 11-beta-hydroxylase rather than 21-hydroxylase.

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3
Q

What is the role of 21-hydroxylase? [1]

A

21-hydroxylase is the enzyme responsible for converting progesterone into aldosterone and cortisol.

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4
Q

Describe the pathophysiology congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia [3]

A

21-hydroxylase is the enzyme responsible for converting progesterone into aldosterone and cortisol.

Progesterone is also used to create testosterone, but this conversion does not rely on the 21-hydroxylase enzyme

In CAH, there is a defect in the 21-hydroxylase enzyme

Therefore, because there is extra progesterone floating about that cannot be converted to aldosterone or cortisol, it gets converted to testosterone instead.

The result is a patient with low aldosterone, low cortisol and abnormally high testosterone.

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5
Q

Name an iatrogenic cause of hypoadrenalism [1]

A

Ketoconazole: antifungal but suppresses the adrenals

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6
Q

Name 4 causes of hypoadrenalism [4]

A
  • Addison’s–autoimmuneadrenalitis
  • Infections: TB/fungal
  • Waterhouse-Friedrichson syndrome –adrenal haemorrhage due to meningococcal infection
  • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • Drugs: long term steroids suppressing adrenals. Ketoconazole
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7
Q

Aside from running blood tests, what would you test for with a patient you suspect of having hypoadrenalism? [4]

A
  • Short synthetic ACTH [synacthen] test
  • If synacthen test not available: Random cortisol and ACTH: 9am ATCH raised
  • 21 hydroyxlase adrenal antibodies positive in 80% patients
  • Abdomen x-ray (if TB has caused calcification of adrenal glands)
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8
Q

Describe the diagnostic test of choice for hypoadrenalism? [1]

A

Short synthetic ACTH [synacthen] test:
-The blood cortisol is measured at baseline, 30 and 60 minutes after administration.
- The synthetic ACTH will stimulate healthy adrenal glands to produce cortisol.
- The cortisol level should at least double in response to synacthen.
- A failure of cortisol to rise (less than double the baseline) indicates primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s disease).

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9
Q

Autoantibodies directed at the adrenal cortex to the autoantigens [] and [] can be seen in 70% of patients with idiopathic or primary Addison’s disease

A

Autoantibodies directed at the adrenal cortex to the autoantigens 21-hydroxylase and 17 alpha hydroxylase can be seen in 70% of patients with idiopathic or primary Addison’s disease

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10
Q

Management of Addisonian crisis;

Acute treatment? [2]
Long term treatment? [2]

A

Acute treatment:
* 0.9% saline
* IV hydrocortisone 100mg bolus stat; then IM doses until can take tablets

Long term treatment:
* Oral hydrocortisone – usually 10mg/5mg/5mg
* Oral fludrocortisone (mineralocorticoid) - 100 / 200 mg

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11
Q

Which enzyme being suppressed / mutated causes syndrome of apparent mineralocorticoid excess? [1]

Why does that create symptoms of hyperaldosternism? [1]

A

When 11BHSD-2 enzyme is supressed/mutated - cortisol is NOT deactivated and will binds to MR.
symptoms of hyperaldosteronism

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12
Q

Describe the three types of adrenal insufficiency

A

Primary (adrenal):
* destruction or dysfunction of the adrenal gland resulting from intrinsic diseases of the adrenal cortex and leading to impairment in steroid hormone synthesis and secretion

Central: the term central adrenal insufficiency is often used to refer to hypocortisolaemia secondary to a deficiency in adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) secretion:

Secondary (pituitary):
* inadequate pituitary ACTH release and subsequent production of cortisol and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)/ Intrinsic pituitary disease includes tumours, irradiation, and inflammation (hypophysitis).

Tertiary (hypothalamus):
* inadequate hypothalamic CRH and subsequent ACTH release. Diseases include inflammatory disease (e.g., tuberculosis, sarcoidosis), or tumours such as craniopharyngiomas. Hypothalamic suppression of ACTH secretion is caused by prolonged (more than 2 weeks) treatment with exogenous glucocorticoids.

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13
Q

Name three causes of adrenal insufficiency caused infections [3]

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Meningococcal infection
TB

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14
Q

Label A-F [6]

A

Cushing syndrome
* Cortisol: Not suppressed
* ACTH: Suppressed

Cushing Disease
* Cortisol: Suppressed
* ACTH: Suppressed

Ectopic ACTH
* Cortisol: Not suppressed
* ACTH: Not suppressed

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15
Q

Drug class used to manage prolactinoma? [1]

Name two drugs that are used to manage prolactinoma [2]

A

Dopamine agonists (dopamine causes tonic inhibition of prolactin release):

  • bromocriptine
  • cabergoline
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16
Q

State and explain the standard investigation for acromegaly? [1]

Name two others [2]

A

OGTT:
- Make patient fast
- At time 0, check glucose and GH
- Give 75g dose of glucose and wait 2hrs
- Normal response: suppression of GH when glucose given
- Acromegaly response: GH increases despite glucose given

Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1):
can be tested on a blood sample. It indicates the growth hormone level and is raised in acromegaly.

MRI pituitary

Testing growth hormone directly is unreliable: fluctuates in the day.

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17
Q

Describe vascular and cardiac complicatons of acromegaly [4]

A

Increased blood pressure:
- Left ventricular hypertrophy
- cardiomyopathy
- arrhythmias
- ischaemic heart disease

18
Q

Name three drug therapies for acromegaly? [3]

A
  1. Octreotide - somatostatin analogue: lowers GH levels / blocks GH release
  2. Pegvisomont – GH receptor antagonist; subcutaneous injection
  3. Bromocriptine (Dopamine agonists): block growth hormone release
19
Q

Management of Cushing’s syndrome:

  • Surgery? [1]
  • Drugs? [2]
A

 Trans-sphenoidal surgery

Adrenolytics:
Ketoconazole: causes steroidogenesis inhibition.
Metyrapone: reduces the production of cortisol in the adrenals and is occasionally used in treating of Cushing’s

20
Q

Name and explain what Sheehan’s syndrome is [2]
Explain when this commonly occurs? [2]

A

Pituitary infarction
- Commonly after childbirth: develop an increased vasculature around pituitary gland
- If suffer from PPH then blood pressure drops and causes infarction
- Results in hypopituitarism

21
Q

What is pituitary apoplexy and when does it occur? [2]

A

If someone has a long standing pituitary tumour, can develop abrupt acute hemorrhagic infarction of a pituitary adenoma

The term pituitary apoplexy or apoplexia refers to the “sudden death” of the pituitary gland, usually caused by an acute ischemic infarction or hemorrhage

22
Q

Presentation of pituitary apoplexy? [4]

A

▪ acute headache,
▪ meningism,
▪ visual impairment,
▪ ophthalmoplegia,
▪ Low GCS

23
Q

There are three types of dexamethason suppression test.

Describe them [3]

A

Low-dose overnight test (used as a screening test to exclude Cushing’s syndrome)
- A normal result is that the cortisol level is suppressed.
- Failure of the dexamethasone to suppress the morning cortisol could indicate Cushing’s syndrome, and further assessment is required. THINK CAPE

Low-dose 48-hour test (used in suspected Cushing’s syndrome)
- 0.5mg is taken every 6 hours for 8 doses, starting at 9 am on the first day.
- Cortisol is checked at 9 am on day 1 (before the first dose) and 9 am on day 3 (after the last dose)
- A normal result is that the cortisol level on day 3 is suppressed
- Failure of the dexamethasone to suppress the day 3 cortisol could indicate Cushing’s syndrome, and further assessment is required.

High-dose 48-hour test (used to determine the cause in patients with confirmed Cushing’s syndrome)
- carried out the same way as the low-dose test, other than using 2mg per dose (rather than 0.5mg).
- This higher dose is enough to suppress the cortisol in Cushing’s disease, but not when it is caused by an adrenal adenoma or ectopic ACTH.

24
Q

What is the order of treatment for:
- Acromegaly [2]
- Prolactinoma [2]

A

Acromegaly:
- Surgery 1st line
- Drugs 2nd line (octreotide)

Prolactinoma:
- Drugs 1st line (Dopamine agonists: Cabergoline; bromocriptine)
- Surgery 2nd line

25
Q

What is the first line treatment for acromegaly if surgery is not successful?

Bromocriptine
Pegvisomont
Ketoconazole
Octreotide
Carbergoline
Metyrapone

A

What is the first line treatment for acromegaly if surgery is not successful?

Bromocriptine - 3rd line
Pegvisomont - 2nd line
Ketoconazole
Octreotide
Carbergoline
Metyrapone

26
Q

What is the first line treatment for prolactinoma?

Bromocriptine
Pegvisomont
Ketoconazole
Octreotide
Carbergoline
Metyrapone

A

What is the first line treatment for prolactinoma?

Bromocriptine
Pegvisomont
Ketoconazole
Octreotide
Carbergoline
Metyrapone

27
Q

Ketoconazole & Metyrapone are used to treat which condition? [2]

A

Cushing’s syndrome

28
Q

What is the specific treatment for Addison’s crisis? [1]

A

Intravenous hydrocortisone

29
Q

How do you treat slighty raised TSH if:
- asymptomatic
- symptomatic

How do you treat raised TSH if:
- symptomatic
- old (< 70)

A

If TSH slightly raised (< 10) + asymptomatic
* repeat test after 6 months

If TSH slightly raised (< 10) + SYMPTOMATIC
* give levothyroxine trial

If TSH high positive (>10)
* levothyroxine treatment

If old patient (>70y/o)
* watch and wait
* Only treat if symptomatic

30
Q

A patient presents with low FSH, LH, Oestrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone.

He also has erectile dysfunction.

What is a key differential? [1]

A

haemochromatosis
- a cause of hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

31
Q

[] is the most appropriate investigation for patients with increased urinary cortisol and low plasma ACTH levels

A

CT adrenal glands is the most appropriate investigation for patients with increased urinary cortisol and low plasma ACTH levels

32
Q

A patient presents with amenorrhoea and secondary gallactorrhoea. You suspect prolactinoma might be the cause.

What test should you perfom before requesting a MRI pituitary? [1]

A

Pregnancy needs to be excluded in patients with secondary amenorrhoea and a raised prolactin level.

Other causes of raised prolactin levels include prolactinoma, drug induced hyperprolactinaema, non- functioning pituitary adenoma.

33
Q

Name 4 drug classes that could raise prolactin levels [4]

A

antipsychotics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), cimetidine, and beta-blockers.

34
Q

You wish to start Carbimazole.

Which of the following best describes it’s mechanism of action?

Blocks the sodium dependent iodide transporters on follicular cells

1
Inhibits peripherally expressed deiodinases

2
Blocks TSH stimulating antibodies

3
Removes the TSH receptor from the thyroid gland

4
Inhibits Thyroid Peroxidase enzyme

A

You wish to start Carbimazole.

Which of the following best describes it’s mechanism of action?

Blocks the sodium dependent iodide transporters on follicular cells

1
Inhibits peripherally expressed deiodinases

2
Blocks TSH stimulating antibodies

3
Removes the TSH receptor from the thyroid gland

4
Inhibits Thyroid Peroxidase enzyme

35
Q

A patient has recently started a new medication that has caused them to have decreased free T3/4 levels.

What medication could it be?

  • Interaction with calcium carbonate
  • Interaction with amlodipine
  • Iodine deficiency
  • Interaction with aspirin
  • Poor adherence to levothyroxine
A

A patient has recently started a new medication that has caused them to have decreased free T3/4 levels.

What medication could it be?

Interaction with calcium carbonate

  • Interaction with amlodipine
  • Iodine deficiency
  • Interaction with aspirin
  • Poor adherence to levothyroxine
36
Q

What is the most common endogenous cause of this Cushings?

Adrenal adenoma

Adrenal carcinoma

Glucocorticoid therapy

Micronodular adrenal dysplasia

Pituitary adenoma

A

What is the most common endogenous cause of this Cushings?

Adrenal adenoma
- adrenal adenoma (5-10%)

Adrenal carcinoma

Glucocorticoid therapy

Micronodular adrenal dysplasia

Pituitary adenoma

37
Q

Describe the results from high-dose dexomethasone testing for Cushings syndrome, Cushing disease and ectopic ACTH [3]

A
38
Q

Which thyroid antibodies are not useful for clinically distinguishing between different types of thyroid disease, may be used as part of thyroid cancer follow up? [1]

A

Thyroglobulin antibodies

39
Q

A 25-year-old female is seen on the surgical ward round. Three days ago, she underwent a thyroidectomy for Graves disease. For the past day, she has been feeling nauseous and complaining of numbness and a tingling sensation around her mouth.

What is the cause of her symptoms?

A

This patient is experience perioral paraesthesia, a symptom of low calcium. Hypocalcaemia is a potential complication of thyroid surgery due to accidental removal or injury to the parathyroid glands.

40
Q

State which pathologies MEN1 [3], MEN2A [3] AND MEN2B [3] relate to

A

MEN1: 3Ps-
* Pituitary
* Pancreas
* Parathyroid

MEN2a- 3Cs
* Calcitonin- medullary thyroid
* Calcium- parathyroid
* Catecholamines- phaeochromocytoma

MEN2b- big and belly (the big ones and in the tummy)
* Medullary thyroid
* Phaeochromocytoma
* Mucosal tumours- eg GI tract

41
Q

How you calculate alcohol intake? [1]

E.g He says the wine he drinks is 13% alcohol by volume (ABV) and the bottles are 750 ml. He drinks 5 bottles per week

A

Number of units of alcohol in drink = total volume of a drink (ml) x ABV (%)/1000.

Therefore this patient has (750 ml x 5 bottles) x 13%/1000

= 3750 ml x 13% /1000 = 48.75 units per week

This is 34.75 units above the recommended limit of 14 units per week. This answer is rounded to 35 units.