Resp Flashcards

1
Q

types of pneumothorax

A

primary spontaneous

  • tall, thin males
  • no history of lung disease
  • family history, marfans, smoking

secondary spontaneous

  • due to underlying lung disease
  • most commonly COPD
  • also
  • > TB
  • > pneumocystis jerovecii
  • > cystic fibrosis

traumatic

  • penetrating or blunt chest trauma
  • iatrogenic

tension
-complication of any of above

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2
Q

tension pneumothorax

A
  • occurs when pleural pressure exceeds atmospheric during inspiration and expiration
  • forms one way valve
  • > air can enter pleural space with inspiration
  • > less can exit with expiration
  • increasing pressure compresses veins
  • > reduced venous return
  • > decreased CO and hypotension
  • compression of lung tissue
  • > resp failure
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3
Q

hx and exam pneumothorax

A

hx

  • dyspnoea
  • pleuritic chest pain
  • > usually ipsilateral
  • spontaneous often occurs at rest
  • > can recount it occuring
  • risk factors
  • tension
  • > distressed
  • > severe dyspnoea

exam

  • typical
  • > increased work of breathing
  • > decreased chest expansion
  • > ipsilateral hyperinflation with intercostal widening
  • > tracheal deviation to contralateral
  • > hyper-resonate to percussion
  • > decreased breath sounds ipsilateral
  • > subcut emphysema
  • tension
  • > cyanosis
  • > decreased GSC
  • > diaphoresis
  • > hypotension
  • > tachycardia
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4
Q

ddx pneumothorax

A

EMPTIED

  • embolus
  • musculoskeletal
  • pericarditis
  • tamponade (haemopericardium)
  • infarct
  • effusion (eg haemothorax)
  • dissection
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5
Q

investigations pneumothorax

A

ABG
-resp alkalosis
ECG

FBC
trops
d-dimer

CXR

  • visceral pleural line
  • simple
  • > no mediastinum shift
  • tension
  • > mediastinum and tracheal shift to contra
  • > flaying of ribs
  • > flattening diaphragm

consider

  • ultrasound
  • > in trauma
  • > absence of lung sliding
  • CT
  • > in occult
  • > more sensitive than CXR
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6
Q

PE investigations

A
ECG
-non specific changes (RV strain)
ABG
-hypoxia
-alkalosis, hypocapnea
D-dimer
Troponin 
-can be elevated (RV strain)
FBC
-leukocytosis
EUC
-contrast
ESR
LFTs
Coags
-INR and aPTT (anti-coagulation)
bHCG
-pregnant female (thrombolysis)
CXR
-hamptoms hump
-westermarks sign
CTPA
V/Q scan
Compression U/S leg (proximal/whole)
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7
Q

PE investigation pathway

A

Pretest probability

  • Well’s PE
  • Geneva

Score interpretation

  • low=<2
  • intermediate=2-6
  • high=>6

PERC rule
-8 criteria to identify patients with low probability of PE where risk of testing outweighs risk of PE

Low

  • fulfil 8 PERC criteria = no testing needed
  • doesn’t fulfil all 8 = D-Dimer
  • D-Dimer >500ng/mL = CTPA
  • D-Dimer <500ng/mL = no further testing needed

Intermediate

  • D-Dimer <500ng/mL = no testing (unless frail)
  • D-Dimer >500ng/mL = CTPA

High

  • negative D-dimer cannot rule out (5% risk)
  • CTPA
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8
Q

indications for intubation

A

Airway patency?

  • decreased level of conscious –> loss of protective resp reflexes
  • PEF

Oxygenation/ventilation (respiratory failure)

  • worsening hypoxia/hypercapnea
  • RR>40

Clinical

  • work of breathing
  • exhaustion
  • cyanosis

Expectation of need for intubation

  • senior clinician expects deterioration
  • need for transport out of ED

Non responsive to NIPPV

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9
Q

investigations acute asthma

A
Pulse oximetry
ABG
PEF
-normal = >80%
-severe = <60%
ECG
FBC
EUC
LFTs
Trops
NT- BNP/BNP
D-Dimer 

CXR

Consider

  • CT chest (foreign body if non-opaque)
  • tryptase (anaphylasis)
  • spirometry (once stable)
  • > safety to discharge (%FEV1)
  • > useful in follow up
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10
Q

ddx asthma

A

Immediately Page FACEM

  • infection (pneumonia)
  • pneumothorax
  • foreign body
  • Anaphylaxis
  • COPD exacerbation
  • Embolism
  • MI (APO)
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11
Q

asthma pathophys

A

Most commonly IgE mediated hypersensitivity

Airway inflammation

  • mast cell activation central
  • > sensitisation to allergen
  • > degranulation of pulmonary mast cells with further exposure
  • early phase
  • > release of preformed mediators (eg. histamine)
  • > production of eicosanoids (eg. PGD2, cysteinyl LTs)
  • > direct stimulation of airway smooth muscle
  • > mucous production
  • > stimulation of neural reflex pathways (release of ACh)
  • late phase
  • > influx of inflammatory cells (basophils, eosinophils neutrophils, T helper cells)
  • > release of cytokines activates smooth muscle
  • > bronchoconstriction

Airway obstruction

  • can be regional or global
  • large and small airways involved
  • initially obstruction -> air trapping and hyperinflation
  • > predominately due to bronchoconstriction
  • > oedema and thickening of airway wall
  • > airway plugging with mucous and cellular debris

Airway remodelling

  • irreversible structural change superimposed on effects of inflammation and bronchoconstriction
  • histopath
  • > loss of normal pseudostratified epithelium
  • > increase in goblet cells
  • > fibrosis and thickening of reticular layer of basement membrane
  • > increased myofibroblasts
  • > increased vascularity
  • > increased smooth muscle mass and ECM

Bronchial hyper-responsiveness

  • decrease in FEV1 20% with challenge (eg. histamine)
  • alteration in smooth muscle function/mass
  • enhanced sensitivity of neural pathways
  • remodelling and structural abnormalities (eg. loss of airway parenchymal interdependence)
  • > tethering forces maintaining patency

Additional histo

  • Curschmann spirals
  • > spiral of mucous plugs from subepithelial glands
  • Charcot leyden crystals
  • > eosinophilic binding protein in sputum
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12
Q

Pathophys pneumonia

A

Gain access to lower respiratory tract

  • aspiration from oropharynx most common
  • > microaspiration normal, particularly in elderly
  • > increased risk with decreased LOC
  • > intubation
  • > dysphagia/motility disorders
  • haematogenous spread
  • > eg. tricuspid IE
  • local spread
  • > pleural or mediastinum

Overcome mechanical factors

  • gag and cough reflex
  • > bypassed with intubation
  • > decreased LOC
  • > neuromusculuar dysfunction (eg. stroke)
  • hairs and turbinates of nares
  • > sufficiently small particles
  • mucociliary elevator
  • > impaired in chronic lung disease (eg. COPD/CF)
  • > mucous thinned by influenza
  • > chlamydia pneumoniae produce ciliostatic factor
  • > mycoplasma pneumoniae shears off cilia
  • normal flora crowds out potential pathogens
  • > overwhelming inoculum
  • > overgrowth of commensals

Evade innate immune system
-alveolar macrophage phagocytosis, destruction, mucociliary elevator or lympthatics
->overwhelming inoculum
->virulence factors (eg. mycobacterium resistant to phagocytes)
-IgA opsonisation
->Strep pneumoniae produce protease that splits IgA
Neutrophil response
-immunocompromise
->diabetes, HIV
-drugs
->anti TNF alpha

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13
Q

path pneumonia

A

Pathology
Increased alveolar capillary permeability
-initially oedema (proteinaceous exudate)
->red hepatization (extravasation of RBCs and neutrophils)
->grey hepatization (neutrophils and fibrin deposition with bacterial clearance)
-resolution
->clearance of cell debris and fibrin by macrophage

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14
Q

ddx pneumonia

A

BE ACCTIVE

  • Bronchiectasis exacerbation
  • Exacerbation COPD/Asthma
  • Aspiration/foreign body
  • Cancer/mets
  • CCF
  • TB
  • ILD
  • Viral (bronchitis/influenza)
  • Empyaema (eg. IE)
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15
Q

CXR pneumonia types

A

Lobar

  • > most common strep pneumoniae
  • > consolidation of alveolar spaces
  • > homogenous opacification of lobe
  • > sparing of bronchi -> air bronchogram

Bronchopneumonia (lobular)

  • > associated with staph aureus
  • > direct inhalation and colonisation of bronchi
  • > patchy nodular or reticularnodular
  • > asymetrical and bilateral
  • > often lung bases
  • > does not cross fissures

Atypical

  • atypical bacteria, viruses and fungi
  • inflammation confined to interstitium and interlobular septa
  • patchy reticular pattern
  • often involves hilum
  • lack of consolidation

Round

  • seen only in paediatric
  • > lack of pores of Kohn
  • rounded opacities

Cavitating

  • complication of pneumonia
  • radiolucency superimposed on consolidation

Hemorrhagic

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16
Q

ddx PE

A

EMPPATHIIC

  • exacerbation of COPD/asthma
  • musculoskeletal
  • pneumothorax
  • pericarditis
  • aortic dissection
  • tamponade
  • HTN (pulmonary - chronic emboli)
  • infarct (MI)
  • infection (pneumonia/bronchitis)
  • CCF

DDx for DVT (BITCH Leg)

  • bakers cyst (ruptured)
  • injury (eg. tear)
  • tumour (leading to venous congestion)
  • cellulitis
  • haematoma
  • lymphagitis
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17
Q

investigations pneumonia

A

ABG

FBC
EUC
-risk score
LFT
-liver failure = poor prognosis
ESR
-monitor treatment
-non specific but high levels supports infection
Procalcitonin 
-non specific
-higher levels correlate with bacterial infection
Microbiology:
-treatment is usually successful with empiric
-diagnosis of causative agent rare
-indicated here due to severity/treatment resistance
Blood cultures
-positive for causative oragnism
Sputum culture and gram stain
-prior to antibiotics
PCR 
->faster than bacterial culture
->improves sensitivity/specificity
->can provide information on resistance 
->predominately for rapid identification of viral infection

CXR
-PA and lateral

Consider
-bronchoscopy
->bronchoalverolar lavage = 10^4 CFU/mL
->protected specimen brushing = 10^3CFU/mL
-urinary antigen
->once diagnosis has been made, if it can change therapy
->legionella
->strep pneumoniae
Serology for atypicals
->IgM for mycoplasma
->acute and convalescent phase (change in IgG status) for mycoplasma, chlamydophila, coxiella

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18
Q

severity score pneumonia

A

Severity

  • most sensitive is SMARTCOP
  • > indicates mortality risk
  • > predicts need for intensive respiratory support and pressor support
  • > requires invasive testing and many investigations (eg. CXR)
  • CORB
  • > predicts need for intensive respiratory support and pressor support
  • > Confusion (acute onset)
  • > O2 <90%
  • > RR >30
  • > Blood pressure (SBP <90, DBP <60)
  • > score of 2 or more = high risk and need for ICU
19
Q

Admission score pnuemonia

A

CURB 65

  • > recommended by british thoracic society and eTG
  • > Confusion (acute onset)
  • > Uraemia
  • > RR >30
  • > BP (SBP <90, DBP <60)
  • > Age >65
  • scores
  • > 0-1 = 30 day mortality <3% (outpatient)
  • > 2 = 30 day mortality 9% (inpatient)
  • 3-5 = 30 day mortality 15-40% (consider ICU)

Also CRB65
PSI no longer used

20
Q

pneumonia complications

A

SARACEN

  • Sepsis/septic shock
  • ARDS
  • Rash (haemophilus: maculopapular, SJS)
  • Abscess/empyema
  • Cardiac (CCF, MI, arrhythmias)
  • Effusion
  • Necrotising
21
Q

pathogenesis COPD

A

Oxidative stress

  • in a genetically susceptible individual
  • chronic smoke exposure
  • > great than 10-15 pack year

Protease/antiprotease

  • oxidants activate macrophages and epithelial cells
  • > release of cytokines and influx of inflamm cells (neutrophils)
  • > imbalance of protease/antiprotease
  • > elastase from neutrophils, MMP from macrophages
  • > degradation products of both activate each other
  • > destruction of elastic fibres and ECM

Oxidant/antioxidant

  • deactivation of histone deacytelases
  • > transcription of proinflammatory genes
  • recruitment and activation of CD8 T cells and neutrophils
  • > imbalance in oxidant/antioxidant pathways
  • > drives inflammation and immune cell activation

Apoptosis and ineffective repair

  • chronic inflammation continues long after smoking cessation
  • drives apoptosis
  • impaired phagocytosis of cellular debris
  • > inadequate release of growth factors
  • septation and alveologenesis does not appear possible in adult lung
22
Q

pathology COPD

A

Large airways

  • chronic inflammation
  • > predominantly lymphocytes, macrophages, neutrophils
  • > hyeraemia and oedema of mucosa
  • hyperplasia and hypertophy of mucous glands
  • > trachea, bronchi and bronchioles
  • > hypersecretion and mucopurelent sputum
  • squamous cell metaplasia
  • > carinogenesis
  • > impaired mucociliary apparatus
  • smooth muscle hypertrophy

Small airways

  • Replacement of Clara cells by goblet cells
  • > increase mucous secretion and plugging
  • > increased surface tension and narrowing
  • further obstruction
  • > oedema
  • > inflammatory infiltrate
  • > fibrosis
  • airflow obstruction
  • > progresses to hyperinflation

Parenchyma (Emphysema)

  • perforation and obliteration of gas exchanging spaces
  • > coalesce into enlarged airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles
  • > respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli
  • different types
  • > centrilobular most common, seen in smokers = resp bronchiole
  • > panlobular, alpha 1 antitrypsin = everything distal to resp bronchiole
  • > distal-lobular = pneumothorax

Vasculature

  • chronic hypoxia
  • > intimal hyperplasia
  • > smooth muscle hypertrophy/plasia
  • emphysema
  • > loss of capillary bed
  • all leads to HTN
23
Q

ddx COPD

A

BATCHED

  • Bronchiectasis
  • Asthma
  • TB
  • Constrictive bronchiolitis
  • Heart failure
  • Esophageal reflux
  • Drugs (eg. ACEI)
24
Q

investigations COPD

A
ABG
-respiratory failure
->type 1 = PaO2 <60
->type 2 = hypoxia with PaCO2 >50
-resp acidosis 
-HCO3 compensation to chronic resp acidosis
->increase 4 mmol/L for every 10mmHg increase in CO2
ECG
FBC
-anaemia
-WCC
EUC
-electrolytes
-acidosis
BNP
TSH
Glucose
-lethargy

CXR

  • ddxs
  • hyperinflation
  • > 6 anterior ribs mid clavicular line
  • flattened diaphragm
  • increased retrosternal airspace
  • attentuation of vascular markings
  • bullae
  • pulmonary HTN
  • > pulmonary artery prominent
  • > hilar vascular shadows
  • > cardiothoracic ration >0.5

Spirometry

  • pre and post bronchodilator
  • > obstruction (GOLD criteria) = FEV1/FVC <0.7 post
  • no reducibility in COPD

Consider:

  • sputum culture/stain
  • flow/volume loops
  • DLCO
  • > emphysema
  • body plesthismography
  • > hyperinflation vs restriction
  • alpha 1 anti trypsin
  • > if family hx
25
Q

lights criteria

A

if anyone one of following is present = exudate

  • pleural/serum protein >0.5
  • pleural/serum LDH >0.6
  • pleural LDH >2/3 upper limit normal
26
Q

pleural effusion ddx

A

exudative (PAINTERS)

  • pneumonia
  • abscess
  • infarct
  • neoplasia
  • TB
  • empyema
  • rheumatoid pleurisy
  • SLE/sarcoid/scleroderma

transudative (CHARM

  • CCF/cirrhosis
  • hypothyroidism
  • albumin
  • renal failure
  • mets to draining nodes
27
Q

pleural effusion investigations

A

Urinalysis
Glucose
ECG
ABG

FBC
EUCs
-kidney failure
LFTs
-cirrhosis
CMP
Albumin
Serum protein
CRP
LDH
BNP/NT BNP

CXR
->ultrasound if positive to localise fluid

Thoracocentesis
-pleural fluid analysis

Consider

  • chest CT
  • > malignancy and TB
  • culture/gram stain (if signs of infection)
  • > blood
  • > sputum
  • > pleural fluid
28
Q

hx and exam PE

A

DVT
-wells criteria

PE Hx

  • dyspnoea (and orthopoea)
  • pleuritic chest pain
  • cough
  • wheezing
  • haemoptysis
  • calf pain
  • palpitations
  • syncope

PE exam

  • tachypnea
  • tachycardia
  • obstructive shock
  • rales
  • wheeze
  • soft breath sounds
  • prominent P2
  • elevated JVP
  • tender, erythematous, swollen calf
29
Q

post acute care asthma

A

Don’t discharge until

  • Spiro FEV1 >60% predicted
  • SABA <4 hrly

Hx:

  • consider patient context (eg. help at home/time of day)
  • psych factors
  • risk factors for life threatening (eg. previous ICU)

If discharged:

  • > continue oral prednisone 5-10 days
  • > start/continue ICS
  • > review inhaler technique
  • > assess adherence to drug regime
  • > identify triggers, discuss avoidance
  • > formulate and discuss asthma action plan
  • > GP within 2 days
  • > consider specialist review
30
Q

spiro asthma

A

FEV1/FVC normal range

  • 0.85 for teenager
  • minus 0.05 every decade after

FEV1 improvement

  • after 4 puffs salbutamol
  • after 15 mins
  • increase 12% or 200mL
31
Q

asthma control and risk assessment

A

Risk

  • asthma flare ups within 12 months
  • no action plan
  • ED/ICU visits

Good Control:

  • daytime symptoms <2 per week
  • use SABA <2 per week
  • no limitation on ADLs
  • no night symptoms

Poor Control:
-absence of above criteria

32
Q

asthma triggers

A

PADDIES

  • Pollen
  • Animal dander
  • Drugs (aspirin, beta blockers)
  • Dust/dust mites
  • Infection (viral URTI)
  • Exercise
  • Smoking/smoke/air pollution
33
Q

monitoring asthma

A

Timing

  • following flare ups and hospital admissions
  • 6 monthly
  • opportunistically for non-asthma appointment

Assess

  • symptom control
  • > Primary care Asthma Control Screening tool
  • > frequency reliever medication
  • > spirometry annually
  • treatment issues
  • > inhaler technique (6 monthly)
  • > adherence
  • > understanding/review of asthma action plan (annually)
  • > comorbidities
34
Q

ddx caveatting lesion on CXR

A

CASINO

  • Cyst/bullae
  • Autoimmune/vasculitis (granulomatosis with polyangitis)
  • Septic emboli
  • Infarct
  • Neoplasia
  • Organising pneumonia
35
Q

hx and exam COPD

A
HPC
-chronic cough
-sputum production
->usually mucoid, purulent during exacerbation
->less than bronchiectasis
-dyspnoea
->initially exertional then at rest
-wheezing
-chest tightness
-weight gain or loss
-lethargy
-ddx
->fever, night sweats, infective symptoms
->coryzal symptoms = post nasal drips
->atopy = asthma
PMH
-exacerbations
-asthma
-GORD
-comorbid
->lung cancer
->bronchiectasis
->CCF
->anxiety and depression
FHx
-COPD
-alpha 1 anti trypsin
-lung cancer
Meds
-ACEI
Social
.-impact on ADLs
-pack year history
-occupational exposure
->dust, smoke etc
-travel
->TB

Exam

  • appearance
  • > can be cyanotic
  • > cachexic
  • increased work of breathing
  • > accessory muscles
  • > tripod
  • > pursed lips
  • barrel chest
  • diaphragm
  • > harrisons sulcus
  • > hoovers sign
  • hands
  • > nicotine staining
  • > asterixis
  • auscultation
  • > wheeze
  • > crepitations
  • > reduced air entry
  • percussion = hyper-resonate
  • heart
  • > elevated JVP
  • > distant heart sounds
  • > hepatomegaly
  • > kussmauls sign
36
Q

spiro measures

A

FEV1:

  • most important for monitoring progress/severity
  • normal
  • > 4L man
  • > 3L women
  • abnormal
  • > best if lower 5th percentile
  • > below 80% predicted
  • COPD
  • > normal less than 1-1.5L

FEV1/FVC

  • most important for identifying obstruction
  • abnormal
  • > best is lower 5th percentile
  • > less than 0.7
37
Q

flow loops

A

Graph

  • flow on Y axis, volume on X
  • FEF50/FIF50
  • > flow at mid vital capacity for insp/exp
  • > normal = <1
  • variable intrathoracic obstruction
  • > FEF/FIF reduced
  • > normal inspiratory curve
  • > flattened exp
  • variable extrathoracic
  • > FEF/FIF increased
  • > normal expiratory curve
  • > flattened inspiratory
  • lower airway obstruction (COPD)
  • > scooped out expiratory curve
  • > loss of elastic recoil/compliance during effort-independent phase
  • restrictive (ILD)
  • > sharp rise and fall in expiratory (increased elasticity)
  • > decreased vital capacity
  • abnormal inspiratory and expiratory
  • > normal FEF/FIF
  • > tracheal stenosis
  • > severe COPD
38
Q

pleural effusion pathophys

A

INCREASED FLUID ENTRY

increased permeability (exudative)

  • eg. tumour
  • > local release of cytokines such VEGF
  • > mast cell release of tryptase
  • as protein content is not altered by fluid absorption
  • > high protein content

increased pressure (transudative)

  • increase sieving of proteins
  • > low protein content in fluid
  • usually due to elevation in venous pressure
  • > systemic for parietal pleura
  • > pulmonary for visceral pleura
  • cardiogenic
  • > increase pulmonary venous pressure
  • > increase in bronchial capillary pressure
  • > interstitial oedema (interlobular septae and peribronchovascular space)
  • > filter across visceral pleura

decrease pleural pressure

  • seen in atelectasis
  • decreases extravascular hydrostatic force

decrease plasma oncotic pressure
-hypoalbuminaemia

DECREASED FLUID EXIT
lymph exit dependent on…

decreased lymph contractility

  • hypothyroidism
  • exotoxins

resp motions
-paraylsis

patency
-pleural fibrosis or malignancy

lymphatic or venous verus pleural pressure

  • decrease in pleural pressure with atelectasis
  • increase in systemic venous
  • > eg superior vena cava syndrome
  • increase in lymphatic
  • > eg. malignancy of draining lymphatics
39
Q

pleural fluid analysis

A

gross observation

  • pale straw coloured = transudate
  • blood = malignancy or trauma
  • milky = chylothorax

lights

  • protein
  • LDH

transudate

  • BNP/NT BNP in pleural fluid
  • LFTs
  • EUCs/urinalysis

exudate

  • cholesterol
  • > high in exudative
  • triglycerides
  • > high in chylothorax
  • glucose
  • > low in infection/neoplasia/rheumatoid
  • pH
  • > low in infection
  • cell count and differential
  • > lymphocytes = ?TB
  • > eosinophilia = low in malignancy
  • adenosine deaminase
  • > TB
40
Q

whooping cough pathophys

A

aetiology

  • bordetella pertussis
  • > also other bordetella species

pathophys

  • spread by aerosol droplets
  • > highly infectious
  • > 80% of susceptible household contacts with develop clinical disease after sick contact
  • adhesins
  • > binding to resp epithelium of upper tract and nasopharynx
  • tracheal cytotoxin
  • > local tissue damage
  • > micro aspiration and cough
  • pertussis toxin
  • > lymphocytosis
  • eventually colonisation
  • > alveolar macrophages
  • > ciliated resp epithelium
  • adenylate cyclase
  • > evades phagocytosis and immune destruction
  • > chronic cough
41
Q

whooping cough clinical stages

A

stage 1: catarrhal

  • URTI symptoms
  • 1-2 weeks

stage 2: paroxysmal

  • usually last 6 weeks
  • cough
  • > becomes progressively worse then improves within this time
  • typical symptoms
  • > post tussive emesis
  • > inspiratory whoop

stage 3: convalescent

  • 2-3 weeks
  • cough
  • > declining in frequency
  • exacerbations
  • > common with URTI for many months after
42
Q

investigations whooping cough

A

SpO2/ABG

  • > apnea
  • > hypoxic encephalopathy

FBC
-lymphocytosis
EUC
-electrolytes with vom

nasopharyngeal

  • swab
  • > culture
  • > fastideous
  • > neg culture does not rule out diagnosis
  • aspirate
  • > PCR
  • > high sensitivity and specificity

consider

  • serology
  • > IgA/IgG
  • > only indicates previous infection or immunisation
  • CXR
  • > pneumonia is complication
  • > atelectasis, perihilar infiltrates
43
Q

ddx whooping cough

A

Uncontrolled Apnea GASP

  • URTI
  • > viral
  • Aspiration foreign body
  • GORD
  • Asthma
  • Sinusitis
  • > allergic
  • > post nasal drip
  • Pneumonia
  • > CAP
44
Q

ddx haemoptysis

A

CHAIN

  • cardiovascular
  • > LV failure with mitral stenosis
  • > AVM
  • haematological
  • > coagulopathy
  • autoimmune
  • > rheumatoid pleurisy
  • > wegeners
  • infectious
  • > bronchitis (most common)
  • > bronchiectasis
  • > pneumonia
  • > TB
  • neoplasia
  • > primary (mainly SCLC)
  • > mets (skin, breast, colon, renal)
  • > lymphoma