Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A2 Psychology > Research Methods > Flashcards

Research Methods Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards AP® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

What is empiricism?

A

Information gained through direct observation or experiment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is objectivity?

A

Observations and experiments should be unaffected by bias (such as researcher expectations).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is replicability?

A

It is important that research can be repeated and similar results obtained, this adds to the reliability of the study.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does rational mean?

A

logical basis for a course of action or belief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is hypothesis testing?

A

Using the scientific process to test a hypothesis under controlled conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is theory construction?

A

Validity of a theory is tested. Observations help to construct theories to understand the phenomena around us.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is induction?

A

Involves reasoning from the particular to the general. FOr example, a scientist may observe instances of a natural phenomenon and come up with a general law or theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is deduction?

A

Involves reasoning from the general to the particular. Starts with a theory and looking for instances to confirm this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is an example of induction?

A

Newton’s Laws are an example of this. He observed the behaviour of physical objects and produced laws that made sense of what he observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is an example of deduction?

A

Darwin’s theory of evolution is an example of this. He formulated a theory and set out to test its propositions by observing animals in nature. He specifically sought to collect data to prove his theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the scientific process of induction?

A
  1. Observations.
  2. Testable hypothesis
  3. Conduct a study to test the hypothesis
  4. Draw conclusions
    (repeat either of these steps as necessary)
  5. Propose theory.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the scientific process of deduction?

A
  1. Observations.
  2. Propose theory
  3. Testable hypothesis
  4. Conduct a study to test the hypothesis.
    (repeat either of these steps as necessary)
  5. Draw conclusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the scientific model based on?

A

Upon a deduction system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the scientific model?

A
  1. Observe something about the world
  2. Come up with a theory about the world
  3. From the theory, develop a testable hypothesis
  4. Test the hypothesis; observe results
  5. Use results to modify theory…. and so on
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the falsification principle?

A

Instead of looking for examples to confirm a theory the only way to prove a theory is correct is to seek disproof. The only way to prove a theory correct was actually to seek disproof.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who developed the falsification principle?

A

Karl Popper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the stages of Karl Poppers hypothetio-deductive method?

A
  1. Null hypothesis “Not all swans are white”
  2. Observation “Look for swans and record sightings”
  3. “No black swans were sighted”
  4. If there is no proof for the null, then you reject it.
  5. Create an alternative hypothesis
  6. Accept the alternative hypothesis with reasonable certainty.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is the scientific method appropriate for psychology?

A
  1. The scientific method is reductionist and deterministic, by attempting to explain complex human behaviour in simplistic terms.
  2. Psychological treatments of mental health problems have had modest success; therefore the goals of science are not always appropriate in psychology.
  3. Science takes the nomothetic approach, whilst psychologists argue the idiographic approach is more suitable when treating patients.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Can psychology claim to be a science?

A
  1. Subjective; e.g. data collected using interviews, questionnaires, content analysis, or observation are less objective than experiments, but triangulation can make this method more objective and valid
  2. Experimenter bias and demand characteristics compromise validity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the goals of science?

A
  1. Investigate and understand the natural world.
  2. Explain events in the natural world.
  3. Use those explanations to make predictions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the nomothetic approach?

A

Looking to make generalisations about people and find similarities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the idiographic approach?

A

A focus on the individual .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is peer review?

A

Peer review is the assessment of research by others who are experts in the same field (peers). This is usually done before research is published.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the advantages of peer review?

A
  1. Ensures research published is of high quality
  2. Checks the validity
  3. Judges the credibility of the research and assesses the quality and appropriateness of the design and methodology
  4. Peers assess how original the work is
  5. Can recommend whether the work needs to be rejected or revised
  6. Ensures well=respected journals have integrity. Prevents fault dates.
  7. Necessary where applying for funding
  8. Online journals can form the basis of peer review
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the limitations of peer review?

A
  1. Slow
  2. Expensive
  3. Profligate of academic time
  4. Highly subjective
  5. Prone to bias
  6. Easily abused
  7. Poor at detecting defects
  8. Useless at detecting fraud
  9. Finding an expert
  10. Anonymity
  11. Publication bias
  12. Preserving the status quo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the limitation of finding an expert in peer review?

A

It isn’t always possible to find a suitable expert to review the report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the limitation of anonymity in peer review?

A

Anonymous review is an issue as relationships between experts sometimes affect objectivity, and it can be highly competitive. Now journals prefer open reviewing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the limitation of publication bias in terms of peer review?

A

Peer review tends to prefer positive results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the limitation of preserving the status quo in terms of peer review?

A

peer review tends to prefer results that support previous theory, rather than going against it. Science does not really like huge shifts in opinion or theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is an experiment?

A

An experiment involves the manipulation (changing) of an independent variable to see what effect it has on the dependent variable, while at the same time trying to control other variables which might affect the results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a variable?

A

Things which can vary or change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the independent variable?

A

The variable that you manipulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the dependent variable?

A

The variable that you measure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a laboratory experiment?

A

The researcher has strict control over variables and uses standardised procedures in a controlled environment. The researcher manipulates the Independent Variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a field experiment?

A

The experiment takes place in the subjects own natural environment, but the researcher still manipulates the Independent Variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a Quasi/Natural Experiment?

A

The independent variable is already naturally occurring; the researcher just records the effect on the dependent variable. The experiment may take place in a lab or in the natural environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the strengths of a lab experiment?

A
  1. High control of extraneous variables
  2. Replicability
  3. high internal validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the weaknesses of a lab experiment?

A
  1. Investigator effects.
  2. Demand characteristics
  3. Low external (ecological) validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the strengths of a field experiment?

A
  1. Experimenter effects reduced if participants are unaware of being studied
  2. Natural environment (high ecological validity)
  3. Less demand characteristicics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the weaknesses of a field experiment?

A
  1. Can’t control all extraneous variables.
  2. Can’t always repeat
  3. Ethical issues.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the strengths of a natural experiment?

A
  1. Some situations would be unethical to set up

2. High ecological validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the weaknesses of a natural experiment?

A
  1. Causal conclusions cannot be drawn as IV is not manipulated
  2. Participants are not randomly allocated to conditions
  3. Confounding variables.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the advantage of an experiment?

A
  1. Establishes cause and effect

2. Objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the disadvantage of an experiment?

A
  1. low levels of ecological validity and construct validity

2. Risk of demand characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

a statement or prediction of what results you expect to find after your experiment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How do you write a hypothesis?

A

Much state what you expect will happen, state the independent and dependent variable, and how you will operationalize these. If it is correlational, this must be stated in the hypothesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a directional/one tailed hypothesis?

A

are predictions that state the direction the results will go in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a non-directional hypothesis?

A

are predictions that do not state the direction the results will go in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a null hypothesis?

A

A null-hypothesis is a statement of no difference between the variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a repeated measures design?

A

This design uses the same participants in both conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the advantages of a repeated measures design?

A

No individual differences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the disadvantages of a repeated measures design?

A
  1. Demand characteristics; likely to figure out what the experimenters are expecting
  2. Order effects- either boredom or practice.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What can reduce order effects?

A

Counterbalancing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is an independent measures design?

A

Each participant only takes part in one condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the advantages of independent measures design?

A
  1. Fewer demand characters-only know their condition

2. No order effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the disadvantages of independent measures design?

A
  1. Individual differences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a matched pairs design?

A

involves the use of independent measures, but each participant in Group A is paired with one in Group B.
This is done by finding participants who can be matched on key characteristics, e.g. IQ, memory ability, gender and so on. …

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the advantage of matched pairs design?

A

Controls for individual differences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the disadvantage of matched pairs design?

A

Can be difficult to make perfect matches and is costly on money and time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the two types of self-report?

A
  1. Questionnaires; written form

2. Interviews; oral type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are open questions?

A

Require options and explanations from participants – qualitative data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are closed questions?

A

forced choice e.g. yes/no – Quantitative data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is likert scaling?

A

Measures strength of opinion e.g. strongly agree, agree, neutral, disagree, strongly disagree,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Why is a pilot study needed for self-report?

A

Self-report is only ever as good as the questions – Need a pilot study to increase reliability and validity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the strengths of self-report?

A
  1. Allows access to private thoughts and feelings

2. Can discover potential actions without having to set up a situation to test it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the weaknesses of self-report?

A
  1. Can be unreliable due to participant variables

2. Potential researcher bias due to questioning and language.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are naturalistic observations?

A

Observations that take place in a natural situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are controlled observations?

A

Observations that take place where some variables are controlled and manipulated by the experimenter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is participant observation?

A

The observer acts as part of the group being watched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is non-participant observations?

A

The experimenter does not become part of the group being observed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are disclosed observations?

A

the participants in the study will be aware that they are being watched and this may therefore alter their behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are undisclosed observations?

A

this is covert observation – the subjects are not aware that they are being watched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is direct observation?

A

Direct observation is when we are observing behaviour as it happens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is indirect observation?

A

Indirect observations may be when data has already been collected, for example, observing adverts on tv.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are structured observations?

A

Observations where the behaviours to be observed and the sampling to be used and determined beforehand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is unstructured observations?

A

The observer records everything that happens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the problem with unstructured observations?

A

This may lead to only recording visible or eye catching behaviour but not necessarily the most important behaviours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is time sampling?

A

WHen observations are made at regular time intervals and coded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is event sampling?

A

When you keep a tally chart of each time a type of behaviour occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is observation?

A

Watching a participant and recording their behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the strengths of observations?

A

+ Possible to directly study behaviour rather than relying on self-report methods
+ High ecological validity as natural settings are observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the weaknesses of observation?

A

Can only measure overt behaviour

  • Potential observer bias
  • Observer effect may lead to unreal behaviour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is a correlation?

A

Determining the extent of the relationship between two variables. Association does not mean causation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is a positive correlation?

A

A relationship between two co-variables, that as the value of one variable increases so does the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is meant by the term negative correlation?

A

A relationship between two co-variables, that as the value of one variable increases, the value of the other variable decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are co-variables?

A

When one conducts correlational analysis there is no IV or DV, instead the two variables (which are measured) are referred to as co-variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How are correlations shown?

A

On a scatter graph.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is a correlation co-efficient?

A

A co-efficient tells us how closely the co-variables are related. +1 is a perfect positive correlation, whilst -1 is a perfect negative correlation. 0 shows no correlation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the strengths of correlations?

A
  1. Can statistically analyse naturally occurring phenomena
  2. Reliable measurements on strength and direction of the relationship of the co-variables can be made
  3. Easily Replicated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the weaknesses of correlations?

A
  1. Cannot establish cause and effect
  2. Intervening (unknown) variables can affect the construct validity of the findings
  3. Sample may lack generalisability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is a case study?

A

Studying one person, group, organisation or event in detail.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the strengths of a case study?

A

+ Efficient method as it only takes one case study to disprove a theory
+ High validity as research offers detailed insight into naturally occurring but rare phenomena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the weaknesses of a case study?

A
  1. Cannot generalise due to small samples

2. Subjective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is a content analysis?

A

Analysing secondary material to gain an insight into human behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the strengths of content analysis?

A
  1. Few ethical issues as material is being studied, rather than people
  2. Allows researchers to study people who may be difficult to access directly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the weaknesses of content analysis?

A
  1. Misinterpretation may occur due to the people not actually being studied directly
  2. Qualitative content findings may be subjective
  3. Quantitative content findings may lack construct validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is internal validity?

A

Whether the researcher measured what they intended to measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is internal validity affected by?

A

Extraneous/confounding variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is external validity?

A

The extent the results of the study can be generalised to others (ecological validity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is internal reliability?

A

The measure of something that is consistent within itself (e.g. the questions on an IQ test measure IQ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is external reliability?

A

The measure is consistent over several occasions (e.g. the same individual gets the same IQ score)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

How can be assess/ensure reliability?

A
  1. Inter-rater reliability
  2. Split-half method
  3. Test-retest method.
  4. Face validity
  5. Concurrent validity
  6. Predictive validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is inter-rater reliability?

A

Two or more interviewers/observers must get the same outcome on 80% or more of the behaviours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is split-half method?

A

Compare an individual’s performance on two halves of a test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the test-retest method?

A

A person repeats a test a month or so after doing the test the first time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is face validity?

A

Does the test look as though it measures what it intends to measure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is concurrent validity?

A

Results from a new test can be compared to a previously well-established test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is opportunity sampling?

A

Use the people available at the time. Who are most easily available. The easiest method but inevitably biased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is volunteer sampling?

A

Participants are selected by asking for volunteers, for example placing an advertisement on a college noticeboard. This method can access a variety of PP which would make the sample more represenatative but is inevitable biased due to volunteer bias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is random sampling?

A

Participants are identified and then selected by a lottery method or a random name generator. Normally unbiased. May be bias because some people refuse to take part.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is stratified sampling?

A

Sub-groups are identified (e.g. boys or girls), then a predetermined number from each group is selected randomly in proportion to the target population. More representative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is quota sampling?

A

Same as stratified but using opportunity sampling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is snowball sampling?

A

Participants recommend friends to join the study. Prone to bias because you only get access to a small proportion of the population. USeful when conducting research with participants who are not easy to identify.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Why are ethical guidelines important?

A

Any professional group has a duty to behave in an ethical manner i.e. to behave with proper regard for the rights and feelings of others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are the ethical issues with human participants?

A
  1. Informed consent
  2. Right to withdraw
  3. Debrief
  4. Deception
  5. Protection for harm.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What does the BPS code of conduct say?

A
  1. Respect
  2. Competence
  3. Responsibility
  4. Integrity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is meant by respect in the BPS code of conduct?

A

The researcher needs to maintain privacy, confidentiality, and have informed consent. You would not need informed consent in an observation where people would normally expect to be observed. Deception is only acceptable when revealing the reasons for the study affect the integrity of the results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is meant by competence in the BPS code of conduct?

A

Psychologists should maintain high standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is meant by responsibility in the BPS code of conduct?

A

Psychologists have responsibilities to clients, the public, and the science of psychology. This incorporates a debrief and protection from harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is meant by integrity in the BPS code of conduct?

A

Psychologists should be honest and accurate, including the reporting of findings. Any misconduct should be reported to the BPS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Why are licenses granted for animal research?

A
  1. Results are important enough
  2. Research cannot be done without animals
  3. There is a minimum number of animals used
  4. Discomfort is kept to a minimum.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Why do we use non-human animals in studies?

A
  1. Animals are fascinating
  2. Animals allow for greater control and more objectivity
  3. You can use animals when you can’t use humans
  4. There is enough of a similarity between humans and animals to draw conclusions from one to the other.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What are the questions about whether we can justify animals in research?

A
  1. Sentient beings
  2. Speciesism
  3. Animal rights.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What does Singer say about animals in research?

A

View is Utilitarian, (the greatest good for the greatest number), so if an animal reduces human suffering it is justifiable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What did Regan say about animal in research?

A

Says animals should never be used under any circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What did Singer say about speciesism?

A

That testing on different animals is no different to sexism or racism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What did Gray say about animals in research?

A

That we have a duty to humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What did Russel and Birch propose as requirements for animal research?

A
  1. Reduction (use fewer animals)
  2. Replacement (use alternative methods if possible)
  3. Refinement (use improved techniques to reduce stress).
    The house of Lords endorses this principle.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What slide did I get to?

A

106 out of 180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What are the two types of statistics?

A

Descriptive and Inferential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is an inferential statistic?

A

When you are trying to reach conclusions that extend beyond the immediate data alone. For example, using inferential statistics to try to infer from the sample data what the population may think

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What are the two main ways of summarising data using descriptive statistics?

A
  1. Measures of Central tendency

2. Measure of dispersion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are measures of central tendency?

A
  1. Mean-add all scores together then divide by total number of scores
  2. Mode- most common value within a set of values
  3. Median-finding the mid-point in an ordered set of values
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What are measures of dispersion?

A
  1. Shows a spread of data, e.g. the range of the data

2. Standard deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is nominal data?

A

Data in separate categories, such as grouping people based on eye colour etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is ordinal data?

A

Data that are ordered such as asking people to put football teams in order of preference etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is interval data?

A

Data that are measured using units of equal measurements or using any ‘public measurement- attendance at football games, Bandura’s observation every 5 seconds etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is the evaluation of the mean?

A
  • It makes use of all the values of all the data – represents all
  • Precise
  • Extreme values can make it misrepresentative
  • Can only be used with interval data
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is the evaluation of the median?

A
  • Not affected by extreme values – anomalies can be discounted
  • Can be used with ordinal data
  • Not as ‘sensitive’ as the mean, as not all values are used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is the evaluation of the mode?

A
  • Useful when the data are in categories i.e. nominal data
  • Not useful if there are several modes
  • Useful when there are only a small number of values
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is the evaluation of the range?

A
  • Provides direct information
  • Affected by extreme values
  • Doesn’t take into account the number of observations/values in the data set.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What should you do when making a graph?

A
  1. Give the graph a title
  2. Label both of the axes
  3. Use a ruler
  4. Make the graph at least half a side in size
  5. Plan before rushing in
  6. Think carefully about your choice of graph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

When are bar charts used?

A

When data can be divided into categories otherwise known as discrete data. Bars are separated on a bar chart to denote we are dealing with separate conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

When are scattergrams used?

A

To depict associations with co-variables. Either variable occupies the X-axis and the other the y-axis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

When is a histogram used?

A

When the data is continuous rather than discrete (as in a bar chart). The bars touch each other. The x-acis is made up of equal sized intervals of a single category, like 0-9, 10-19 etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

When do we use line graphs?

A

Line graphs are used to represent continuous data and use points connected by lines to show how something changes in value, or instance, over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Why is probability important for statistical analysis?

A

Psychologists look at data to see if the pattern of results could have occurred by chance. If there results did not occur by chance then we say they are significant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Why is significance important for statistical analysis?

A

You need to have a null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis. What we are looking for is a significant difference in results, so we can see they are not due to chance; we want to accept the alternative hypothesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Why is chance important for statistical analysis?

A

Normally psychologists set the probability level at p≤0.05

which means there is a 5% possibility the results occur by chance in the sample]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is the observed value?

A

The rho or u value calculated is called the observed value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Why is the critical value important for statistical analysis?

A

You need to look in a table of critical values to see if the results are significant. You need to know the 1) degrees of freedom (df) – normally the number of ppts in a study (N); 2) one- or two-tailed test; 3) significance level – normally p≤0.05

152
Q

What is a type 1 error?

A

When your significance level is too lenient (usually about 10%) and you end up accepting the alternative hypothesis when you should have rejected it and accepted the null hypothesis.

153
Q

What is a type 2 error?

A

When the significance level is too strict (usually 1%) and you accept the null hypothesis when you should have rejected it and accepted the alternative hypothesis.

154
Q

When should you use a chi-square?

A

If the data has been put into categories (nominal data). This is a test of difference or of an association. The results are independent in each cell, and the expected frequencies in each cell are greater than 4.

155
Q

When should you use a spearman’s rho test?

A

If a test of correlation is needed. The data involved ratings made by participants that are ordinal/interval data. Each participant has two co-variables.

156
Q

When should you use a Mann-Whitney test?

A

If a test of difference is required. The design is independent groups and the data was ordinal or interval.

157
Q

When should you use a Wilcoxon test?

A

If a test of difference is required. The design is repeated measures and the data is interval or ordinal.

158
Q

How do you know if the data is significant using a chi-squared test?

A

If the observed value exceeded the critical value.

159
Q

How do you know if the data is significant using a Spearman’s rho test?

A

If the observed value exceeded the critical value.

160
Q

How do know if the data is significant using a Mann-Whitney test?

A

If the observed value is below the critical value.

161
Q

How do you know if the data is significant using a Wilcoxon test?

A

If the observed value is below the critical value.

162
Q

What is a spearman’s rho test used for?

A

Used to determine whether the relationship between two co-variables is significant or not.

163
Q

When should you use a spearman’s rho test?

A
  1. When hypothesis predicts a correlation between 2 co-variables
  2. When 2 sets of data are pairs of scores from one person, e.g. hair colour & IQ score
  3. The data are ordinal or interval, i.e. not nominal.
164
Q

When should you use a Wilcoxon T test?

A
  1. When hypothesis predicts a difference between 2 sets of data (i.e. experiment)
  2. The 2 sets of data are pairs of scores from one person
  3. The data needs to be ordinal or interval, not nominal.
165
Q

What is the observed value of a spearman’s rho test called?

A

Rho

166
Q

What is the observed value of a Wilcoxon test called?

A

T

167
Q

When is a Chi-square test used?

A
  1. Have nominal data.
  2. When we’ve counted how many occurences there are in each category
  3. Used when hypothesis predicts a difference or association
  4. Sets of data must be independent
  5. Must have at least 20 participants for 2x2 contingency table.
168
Q

What is the observed value of Chi-square called?

A

X²

169
Q

When is a Mann-Whitney U test used?

A
  1. The hypothesis states a difference between two sets of data
  2. The two sets of data are from separate groups of participants- independent groups
  3. The data is ordinal or interval.
170
Q

What is the observed value of a Mann-Whitney test called?

A

U

171
Q

How should a psychological investigation be laid out?

A
  1. Abstract
  2. Introduction/Aim
  3. Method
  4. Results
  5. Discussion
  6. References
172
Q

What should the abstract include?

A

A summary of the study, covering the introduction, method, results and discussion.

173
Q

What should the introduction/aim include?

A

What the researchers intend to investigate, refer to previous studies, and state the hypotheses.

174
Q

What should the method include?

A

What the researchers did, in enough detail to be replicated, also mentioned are the participants, the environment, the procedure, the data collection methods and the instructions to the participants.

175
Q

What should the results include?

A

Statistical data and descriptive statistics.

176
Q

What should the discussion include?

A

An explanation of the results is given, with implications for future research.

177
Q

What should the references include?

A

Full details of the journals mentioned.

178
Q

What should a consent form include?

A
  1. The purpose of the study
  2. Length of time required for Participants
  3. right to withdraw
  4. Reassurance about protection from harm
  5. The requirement to undertake a series of psychological tests
  6. Reassurance about confidentiality of the data
  7. Ethical and methodological issues, so they can make an informed decisions
179
Q

What should standardised instructions include?

A
  1. Should be clear and succinct
  2. Explain the relevant procedures and check the understanding of instructions
  3. Use appropriate language and be courteous
180
Q

What should a standardised debrief include?

A
  1. Refer to participant’s result being confidential
  2. Thanked for contribution
  3. Aim of study
  4. Reference to ethical guidelines
  5. Display standardised instructions to the participant again
181
Q

Why is qualitative data used?

A
  1. Quantitative data is not always applicable to everyday life
  2. More subjective, aims to represent the real world
  3. Broad range of answers explored
  4. Lots of data
  5. Qualitative data should not be converted to numbers
182
Q

What are the steps of content analysis?

A
  1. Coding
  2. Analysing the data (thematic analysis or grounded theory)
  3. Summarising the data
183
Q

What is coding?

A

This is the process of identifying categories, themes, phrases, or keywords in the data set.

184
Q

What are the two ways that categories or themes are decided upon?

A
  1. Top-down approach (thematic analysis)

2. Bottom-up approach (grounded theory)

185
Q

What is the top-down approach (thematic analysis)?

A

When you analyse the data you find themes and concepts by using an existing theory/explanation. For example, clinical characters of SZ may be used as categories when coding self-descriptions of patients with SZ.

186
Q

What is the bottom-up approach (grounded theory)?

A

When analysing the data the codes and categories emerge from the data. So codes remain grounded in the observation rather than being generated before the study. You would use it in an area which is new or when developing new insights.

187
Q

How is the qualitative data then summarised?

A

Behavioural categories that are identified are listed and used later when summarising the data. For example, the psychologist lists the themes or categories and then counts the frequency of each occurrence etc.

188
Q

What is the advantage of qualitative data?

A
  1. Represents the true complexities of human behaviour
  2. Gains access to thoughts and feelings which may not be assessed using quantitative methods with closed questions
  3. Provides rich detail
189
Q

What is the disadvantage of qualitative data?

A
  1. More difficult to detect patterns and draw conclusions
  2. Subjective analysis can be affected by personal expectations and beliefs
  3. Time consuming
190
Q

What is interpretive phenomenological analysis?

A

An approach to psychological qualitative research with an idiographic focus, which means that it aims to offer insights into how a given person, in a given context, makes sense of a given phenomenon.

191
Q

What is grounded theory?

A

A systematic methodology in the social sciences involving the construction of theory through the analysis of data

192
Q

What is discourse analysis?

A

Discourse analysis is the study of social life, understood through analysis of language in its widest sense (including face-to-face talk, non-verbal interaction, images, symbols, and documents). It offers ways of investigating meaning, whether in conversation or in culture.

193
Q

What does scientific knowledge aim to be based on?

A
  1. Empirical methods
  2. Objectivity
  3. Replicability
  4. Theory Construction
    5 Hypothesis Testing
194
Q

Why does scientific methods aim to be based on empirical methods?

A

This is important because people can make claims about anythng but the only way we know such things to be true is through direct testing, i.e. empiracle evidence rather than by reasoned argument or unfounded beliefs.

195
Q

Why does scientific knowledge aim to be based on objectivity?

A

An important aspect of empirical data i that it should be objective, i.e. not affected by the expectations of the researcher. Systematic collection of measurable data is at the heart of the scientific method. In order to be objective the ideal is to carefully control conditions in which research is conducted. This enables a cause and effect relationship to be investigated.

196
Q

Why does scientific knowledge aim to be based on replicability?

A

One way to demonstrate the validity of any observation or experiment is to repeat it. In order to achieve such replication it is important for scientists to record their procedures carefully so someone else can repeat them exactly and verify the original results.

197
Q

Why does scientific knowledge aim to be based on theory construction?

A

Explanations or theories must be constructed to make sense of the facts. A theory is a collection of general principles that explain observations and facts. Such theories can then help us understand and predict the natural phenomena around us.

198
Q

Why does scientfic knowledge aim to be based on hypothesis testing?

A

Theories are modified through the process of hypothesis testing. This is another essential characteristic of science where the validity of a theory is tested. A good theory must be able to generate testable expectations. These are stated in the form of a hypothesis/es. If a scientist fails to find support for a hypothesis, then the theory requires modification.

199
Q

Why is the scientific approach reductionist?

A

Because complex phenomena are reduced to simple variables in order to study the causal relationship between them. It is also reductionist in the development of theories- the canon of parsimony or Occam’s Razors stated that “Of two competing theories or explanations, all other things being equal, the simpler one is to be preferred.

200
Q

What is the problem with the scientific approach being reductionist?

A

If we reduce complex behaviour to simple variables this may tell us little about ‘real’ behaviour, and yet without this reductionism it is difficult to pick out any patterns or reach conclusions.

201
Q

Why is the scientific approach determinist?

A

It is determinist in its search for causal relationships. If we don’t take a determinist view of behaiour then this rules out scientific research as a means of understanding behaviour.

202
Q

What is the problem with the scientific approach being determinist?

A

Determinism may oversimplify the relationship between causes and effects but provides insights into important factors, such as the influence of nature and nurture.

203
Q

Can psychology claim to be a science?

A
  1. Yes- Scientific research is desirable
  2. Yes- Psychology uses the scientific Method
  3. No-Pseudoscience
  4. No-Lack of objectivity and control
204
Q

Why could psychology claim to be a science because scientific research is desirable?

A

In the 19th century, early psychologists sought to create a science of psychology because this would enable them to produce verifiable knowledge about behaviour as distinct from commonsense or ‘armchair psychology’/

205
Q

Why could psychology claim to be a science because it uses the scientific methods?

A

Most psychologists generate models that can be falsified and conduct well-controlled experiments to test these models.

206
Q

What did Miller suggest about psychology?

A

Suggests that psychologists who attempt to be scientists are doing no more than ‘dressing up’. They may take on the tools of science but that doesn’t make it science.

207
Q

Why could it be argued that psychology isn’t a science but pseudoscience?

A

THere is the question of whether simply using the scientific method turns psychology into a science. Perhaps at best it is a pseudoscience- but a dangerous one because psychologists can then claim their discoveries are fact.

208
Q

Why could it be argued that psychology isn’t a science because it lacks objectivity and control?

A

In psychology the object of study reacts to the researcher and this leads to problems, such as experimenter bias and demand characteristics, which compromise validity.

209
Q

What is the alternative argument to the idea that psychology lacks objectivity and control?

A

SOme psychologists claim that human behaviour can be measured as objectiviely as the measureent of physical objects. Plus, similar problems apply to the hard science, i.e. Heisenberg’s Uncertainty principle.

210
Q

WHy may the goals of science not be appropriate for psychology?

A
  1. Nomothetic vs. Idiographic
  2. Scientific Methods haven’t worked
  3. Qualitative research
211
Q

Why may the goals of science not be appropriate for psychology because of nomothetic vs. idiographic?

A

Some psychologists do not see the study of behaviour as a scientific pursuit. Science takes the nomothetic approach, looking to make generalizations about people and find similarities, whilst some psychologists claim that the idiographic approach (looking at individuals) is more suited to psychology.

212
Q

What does R.D. Laing argue about whether the goals of science are appropriate for psychology?

A

In discussing the causes of SZ, he claimed it was inappropriate to view a person experiencing distress as a physical-chemical system that had gone wrong. Laing claimed that treatment could only succeed if each patient was treated as an individual case (the idiographic approach).

213
Q

Why may the goals of science not be appropraite for psychology because scientific methods haven’t worked?

A

Psychological approaches to treating mental illness have had at best modest success, which suggests that the goals of science are not always appropriate.

214
Q

Why may the goals of science not be appropriate for psychology because of qualitative research?

A

Some psychologists advocate more subjective qualitative methods of conducting research. However, these methods are still ‘scientific’ insofar as they aim to be valid. For example, data can be collected thorugh multiple methods and then triangulated.

215
Q

What does it mean to triangulate data?

A

The findings from different methods are compared with each other as a means of verifying them and making them objective.

216
Q

What is a peer review?

A

(Also called refereeing) is the assessment of scientific work by others who are experts in the same field (i.e. peers) Their task is to report on the quality of the research and then their views are considered by a peer review panel.

217
Q

What is the Cyril Burt Affair?

A

Did research that suggested that intelligence is inherited, and this was used to shape social policy, such as the 11-plus examination. However, Burt has been publicly discredited for frauding the results.

218
Q

What was found about Professor Marc Hauser of Harard University?

A

He was found responsible for scientific misconduct related to a number of published scientific papers. He appears to have drawn conclusions for which he has been unable to provide evidence.

219
Q

What did Lesli John et al found about professional misconduct?

A

Surveyed over 2000 psychologists asking them to anonymously report their involvement in questionable research practices. They found that 70% said they cut corners in reporting data and 1% admitted to falsifying data. They concluded that questionable practices may constitute the prevailing research norm.

220
Q

What is a problem with fraudulent research?

A

First, there is a lack of trust, meaning in the future people are likely to be less trusting of scientific data. Second data from such fraudulent studies remains published. There are people who will continue to use the fauly data not knowing that it is discredited.

221
Q

What does the Parliamentary Office of Science and Technology suggest are the three main purposes of peer review?

A
  1. Allocation of research funding
  2. Publication of research in scientific journals and books
  3. Assessing the research rating of University departments
222
Q

WHat is the purpose of peer view for allocation of research funding?

A

Research is paid for by various government and charitable bodies. THerefore, public bodies such as the Medical Research Council require reviews to enable them to decide which research is likely to be worthwhile.

223
Q

What is the purpose of peer review for publication of research in scientific journals and books?

A

THe peer review process has been used in such journals since the middle of the 20th century as a means of preventing incorrect or faulty data entering the public domain.

224
Q

What is the purpose of peer review for assessing the research rating of university departments?

A

All university science departments are expected to conduct research and this is assessed in terms of quality (research excellence framework, REF). Future funding for the department depends on receiving good ratings from the RAE peer review.

225
Q

What did Richard Horton say about Peer Review?

A

“But we k now that the system of peer review is biased, unjust, unaccountable, incomplete, easily fixed, often insulting, usually ignorant, occasionally foolish, and frequently wrong.”

226
Q

What did Richard Smith say about Peer Review?

A

“Peer review is slow, expensive, profligate of academic time, highly subjective, prone to bias, easily abused, poor at detecting gross defects and almost useless at detecting fraud.”

227
Q

What are the issues of Peer Review?

A
  1. Finding an expert
  2. Anonymity
  3. Publication bias
  4. Preserving the status quo
  5. Cannot deal with already published research
228
Q

What is the issue with peer review in terms of finding an expert

A

It isn’t always possible to find an appropriate expert to review a research proposal or repeat. This means that poor research may be passed because the reviewer didn’t really understand it.

229
Q

What is the issue with peer review in terms of anonymity?

A

Reviewers may use the veil of anonymity to settle old scores or bury rival research. Social relationships inevitably affect objectivity. Some journals now favour open reviewing (where both author and reviewer know each other’s identity)

230
Q

What is the issue with peer review in terms of publication bias?

A

JOurnals tend to prefer to publish positive results, possibly because editors want research that has important implications in order to increase the standing of their journal. This results in a bias in published research that in turn leads to a misperception of the true facts. Furthermore, it appears that journals also avoid publishing straight replications of a study, a fundamental part of research validation.

231
Q

What did French find about peer review and publication bias?

A

Submitted a replication of a study on paranormal phenomena and found that it was not even considered for peer review.

232
Q

What does Ritchie et al sugges about peer review and publication bias?

A

Suggests that journals are as bad as newspapers for seeking eye-catching stories.

233
Q

What is the issue with peer review in terms of preserving the status quo?

A

Peer review results n a preference for reearch that goes with existing theory rather than dissenting or unconventional work. Science is generally resistant to large shifts in opinion. Peer Review may be one of the elements that slow change down.

234
Q

What does Richard Horton say about peer review and preserving the status quo?

A

“The mistake, of course, is to have thought that peer review was any more than a crude means of discovering the acceptability- not the validity- of a new finding”

235
Q

What is the issue with peer review not being able to deal with already published research?

A

Once a research study has been published, the results remain in the public view even if they have subsequently been shown to be fraudulent or simply the result of poor research practices. This emphasisis the need for increased vigilance by scientists of the quality of their work.

236
Q

WHat did Brooks find about peer review and not being able to deal with already published research?

A

Points to peer-reviewed research that was subsequently debunked but nevertheless continued to be used in a debate in parliament.

237
Q

What are some examples of psychology journals?

A

The Psychologist, Archives of Sexual Behaviour, Journal of Early Adolescence and British Journal of Psychology.

238
Q

How does Wikipedia deal with the issue of peer review?

A

By having various levels of editor to check information posted. THey recognise however, while it may be simple to detect incorrect information, it is more difficult to recognise ‘subtle viewpoint promotion’ than in a typical reference work. On the other hand, they point out that bias which would be unchallenged in a traditional reference work is more likely to be pointed out. Additionally, the online form of Wikipedia permits instant revision when mistakes are spotted.

239
Q

What is an experiment?

A

All experiments involve an independent variable and dependent variable. The IV is varied in order to see how this affects the DV, thus demonstrating a causal relationship.

240
Q

What are the strengths of a laboratory experiment?

A

Tends to be high in terms of internal validity because many extraneous variables can be controlled. Control also increases replicability, which is desirable.

241
Q

What are the limitations of a laboratory experiment?

A

Investigator/experimenter effects and demand characteristics may reduce internal validity. External validity is reduced because a highly controlled situation may be less like everyday life.

242
Q

What are the strengths of a field experiment?

A

Higher external validity. It may be possible to control extraneous variables (moreso than natural). Experiment effects are reduced because participants are usually not aware of being in a study.

243
Q

What are the limitations of a field experiment?

A

COntrol over extraneous variables is more difficult than in a lab experiment. Demand characteristics may still be problematic, for example, the way the IV is operationalised may convey the experimetal hypothesis to participants.

244
Q

What are the strengths of a natural experiment?

A

It is often the only way to study certain behaviors or experiences. High external validity.

245
Q

What are the limitations of a natural experiment?

A

THe IV is not deliberately manipulated so causal conclusions cannot be drawn. Participants are not randomly allocated to conditions which may reduce validity.

246
Q

What is the problem if there is too little control in an experiment?

A

Too little control means it is difficult to draw clear conclusions because of extraneous variables.

247
Q

What is the problem if there is too much control in an experiment?

A

Too much control means the behaviour we are studying isn’t very uch like everyday life.

248
Q

What is an advantage of structured questionnaires/interviews?

A

Can be more easily repeated in exactly the same way than unstructured interviews.

249
Q

What is an unstructured interview?

A

Where the questions are developed by the interviewer as a response to the answers given by the interviewee.

250
Q

What are the advantages/disadvantages of open/closed questions?

A

Open questions permit a respondent to provide their own answer. Such questions can produce unexpected answers providing rich insights but they are more difficult to analyse than closed questions.

251
Q

What is a case study?

A

A detailed study of a single individual, institution or event. It uses information from a range of sources. Are generally longitudinal. Many techniques may be used, such as interviews, observations etc.

252
Q

What is the limitation of a case study?

A

It is difficult to generalise from indivudal cases as each one has unique characteristics. It is often necessary to use recollection of past events as part of the case study and such evidence may be unreliable.

253
Q

How do researchers start a study?

A

By identifying what they intend to study and then making a formal statement of their expectations using a hypothesis. A good hypothesis should be operationalised so that the variables are in a form that can be easily tested.

254
Q

What are investigator/experimenter effects?

A

Investigators may communicate their expectations unwittingly to participants, thus leading participants to fulfil the investigator’s expectation.

255
Q

What are demand characteristics?

A

Features of an experiment that may cue participants to behave in predictable ways

256
Q

What is social desirability bias?

A

When Participants wish to present themselves in a good light

257
Q

What is a pilot study?

A

A small-scale trial run of a research study to test any aspects of the design, with a view to making imrpovements in the main study

258
Q

How are reliability and validity related?

A

Validity is related to reliability because, if a measurement is not reliable (consistent), then a study cannot be valid. However, a measiruement may be reliable but still lack validity.

259
Q

How is inter-rater reliability calculated?

A

By dividing total agreements by the total number of observations. A result of 0.80 or more suggests good inter-rater reliability.

260
Q

How can the reliability of observations be increased?

A

Through training observers in the use of a coding system/behaviour checklist.

261
Q

What is internal reliability?

A

A measure to the extent to which something is consistent within itself, i.e. measuring the same thing.

262
Q

What is external reliability?

A

A measure of consistency over several different occasions.

263
Q

What is inter-interviewer reliability?

A

Whether two interviewers produce the same outcome.

264
Q

How can you assess reliability?

A
  1. The split-half method

2. Test-retest method

265
Q

What is the split-half method?

A

To compare a person’s performance on two halves of a questionnaire or test. If the test is assessing the same thing in all its questions then there should be a close correlation in the scores derived from both halves of the test, a measure of internal reliability.

266
Q

What is the test-retest method?

A

Where a person is given a questionnaire/interview/test on one occasion and this this is repeated again after a reasonable interval (e.g. a week or a month.) If the measure is reliabile (external) the outcome should be the same every time.

267
Q

What is internal validity?

A

Concerns what goes on inside a study- whether the researcher did test what they intended to test. Is affected by extraneous variables which may act as an alternative IV.

268
Q

What is external validity?

A

Concerns things outside a study- the extent to which the results of the study can be generalised to other situations and people.

269
Q

What is the internal validity of observations affected by?

A

Observations will not be valid (nor reliable) if the coding system/behaviour checklist is flawed. It is also affected by observer bias- what someone observes is influenced by their expectations. THis reduces the objectivity of observations.

270
Q

What is the target population?

A

Refers to all the people about whom a researcher wishes to make a statement.

271
Q

What is a representative sample?

A

From the target population a small group who represent the target population in terms of characteristics. A sample that is not representative is described as biased.

272
Q

Why do psychologists use sampling techniques?

A

To minimise cost whilst maximising generalisability.

273
Q

What is a systematic sample?

A

Taking every tenth person from a register etc.

274
Q

What is the external validity of self-report technique likely to be affected by?

A

The sampling strategies used, which may create a biased sample.

275
Q

How can the internal validity of self-report techniques be assessed?

A
  1. Face validity

2. Concurrent validity

276
Q

What is face validity?

A

Does the test look as if it is measuring what the researcher intended to measure?

277
Q

What is concurrent validity?

A

This can be established by comparing performance on a new questionnaire or test with a previously established test on the same topic. If the participants’ performance on both tests show a high correlation, this is evidence of high concurrent validity.

278
Q

What did Sieber and Stanley define socially sensitive research as?

A

“…studies in which there are potential social consequences or implications, either directly for the participants in research or the class of individuals represented by the research”

279
Q

What are some examples of socially sensitive research?

A

The consideration of inter-racial differences in IQ. Research on drug abuse or sexual orientation.

280
Q

What are the ethical concerns with socially sensitive research?

A

Whether or not such research should be conducted. If research is not conducted, such groups may miss out on any potential benefits from the research. Also, ignoring these important areas of research would amount to an abdication of the ‘social responsibilites’ of the psychological researcher. THey should focus more clearly on the implications of their findings and the worrying potential.

281
Q

Where does ethical considerations in psychological research originate?

A

Concern for the protection of human participants in research has its roots in the Nuremberg Code, a document designed to protect against the unethical Nazi practices. It was the first ethical code of practice.

282
Q

WHat four ethical prcinoples does the BPS code of ethics and conduct include?

A
  1. Respect
  2. Competence
  3. Responsibility
  4. INtegrity
283
Q

What does the BPS code of ethics and conduct say on respect?

A

Respect for the dignity and worth of all persons, including privacy, confidentiality and informed consent. And right to withdraw. Observations in public without informed consent are only acceptable in situations where the people being studied would reasonably expect to be observed by strangers. Intentional deception is only acceptable when it is necessary to protect the intergrity of research and when the nature of the deception is disclosed to participants are the earliest opportunity.

284
Q

What does the BPS code of ethics and conduct say about competence?

A

Psychologists should maintain high standards in their professional work.

285
Q

What does the BPS code of ethics and conduct say about responsibility?

A

Psychologists have a responsibility to their clients, the general public, and to the science of psychology. THis include protection of participant from harm as well as debriefing to inform clients of the nature and conclusions of the research to identify any unforeseen harm, and to arrange for assistance if needed.

286
Q

What does the BPS Code of ethics and conduct say about integrity?

A

Psychologists should be honest and accurate. This includes reporting the findings of any research accurately and acknowledging any potential limitations. It also includes bringing instances of misconduct by other psychologists to the attention of the BPS>

287
Q

Why are animals used in research?

A
  1. They are cascinating and such research may ultimately benefit animals
  2. They offer the opportunity for greater control and objectivity
  3. We may use animals when we can’t use humans
  4. Human beings and non-humans animals have enough of their physiology and evolutionary past in common to justify conclusions drawn from one experiment involving one, to the other (although it could be argued that animals tested under stressful conditions may provide very little useful info)
288
Q

What are the moral justification/issues in using animals for research?

A
  1. Sentient Beings
  2. Speciesism
  3. Animal Rights
289
Q

What is the problem with animal research and sentient beings?

A

In terms of pain there is evidence that animals respond to pain but this may not be the same as conscious awareness. THere is some evidence that animals other than primates have self-awareness though. Plus, some humans, such as brain-damaged individuals, lack sentience but wouldn’t be used in research without content.

290
Q

What is the problem with animal research and speciesism?

A

Peter Singer argued that discrimination on the basis of species is no different from racial or gender discrimination and thus suggests that the use of animals is an example of ‘speciesism’, similar to racism or sexism.

291
Q

Why did Gray argue against Singer’s view of speciesism?

A

Argues that we have a special duty of care to humans, then speciesism is not equivalent to, for example, racism.

292
Q

What is the issue with animal research and animal rights?

A

Singer’s view is a Utilitarian one, i.e. whatever produces the greater good for the greater number is ethically acceptable, so if animal research can alleviate pain and suffering it is justfiable. THe concept of rights- having rights is dependent on having responsibilites in society, i.e. as citizens. It can therefore be said that as animals do not have responsibilites they have no rights.

293
Q

What does Tom Regan claim about about animal research and animal rights?

A

He argued that there are no circumstances under which animal research is acceptable. Regan claims that animals have a right to be treated with respect and should never be used in research.

294
Q

In the UK, what does the Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act (1986) require?

A

THat animal research only takes place at licensed laboratories with licensed researchers on licensed projects.

295
Q

What is necessary under the ANimals (Scientific Procedures) Act (1986) for licenses to be granted?

A
  1. Potential results are important enough to justify the use of animals
  2. The research cannot be done using non-animal methods
  3. The minimum number of animals will be used
  4. Any discomfort or suffering is kept to a minimum by appropriate use of anaesthetics or painkillers.
296
Q

Why does British Law require animal research?

A

The law requires that any new drug must be tested on at least two different species of live mammal.

297
Q

Who proposed the 3 Rs?

A

Russell and Birch

298
Q

What are the 3 Rs?

A

Reduction (use fewer animals), Replacement (where possible use alternative methods, such as brains cans) and refinement (use improved techniques to reduce stress.) The House of Lords endorsed the principle of the 3Rs with respect to animal research.

299
Q

Why are inferential tests used?

A

Inferential statistics allow us to determine whether a difference is significant. They allow you to work out, at a given probability, whether a pattern in the data from a study could have arised by chance or whether the effect occurred becuse there is a real difference/correlation

300
Q

What is the significance level?

A

The probability level chosen, i.e. P

301
Q

What significance level is generally used?

A

A 5% level of sgnificance. One reason for this is because it is a good compromise between Type 1 and Type 2 errors.

302
Q

What is type 1 errors?

A

When we reject the null hypothesis when we should have accepted it. Usually because we use a lenient level of significance (e.g. 10%)

303
Q

What is a Type 2 error?

A

When we accept the null hypothesis when it is in fact false. Usually because we are using a signifcance level that is too stringent (e.g. 1%)

304
Q

What are Degrees of Freedom (df)?

A

IN most cases you get this value by looking at the number of participants in the study (N)

305
Q

WHat is nominal data?

A

THe data are in separate categories

306
Q

What is ordinal data?

A

The data are ordered in some way. The ‘difference’ between each item is not the same.

307
Q

What is interval data?

A

Data are measured using units of equal intervals.

308
Q

When is a Spearman Rho Test used?

A
  1. The hypothesis states a correlation between two co-variables
  2. The two sets of data are pairs of scores from one person or thing, i.e. they are related
  3. The data are ordinal or interval (i.e. not nominal)
309
Q

How do you know if the observed value in a spearman’s Rho test is significant?

A

Observed value of rho must be equal to or greater than the critical value

310
Q

How do you calculate degrees of freedom for a Chi-Square test?

A

By multiplying (rows-1) X (Columns-1)= DF

311
Q

How do you draw a contingency table for Chi Square Test?

A

The first number is always rows and the second number is columns. I.e. 2X2 contingency table has two rows and two columns. A 3x2 contingency table has 3 rows and 2 columns.

312
Q

How do you know if the observed value in a chi-square test is significant?

A

Observed value of X^2 must be euqal to or greater than the critical value

313
Q

When is the Chi-Square test used?

A
  1. The hypothesis states a difference or association between co-variables
  2. The sets of data must be independent (no individual should have a score in more than one cell)
  3. The data are in frequencies (i.e. nominal). Frequencies must not be percentages.
314
Q

When is a chi-square test unreliable?

A

When the expected frequencies (i.e. the ones you calculate) fall below 5 in any cell i.e. you need at least 20 participants for a 2X2 contingency table.

315
Q

What are the tests of differences?

A

the Mann-Whitney test and the WIlcoxon test.

316
Q

Why is a Wilcoxon test used for a matched pair design?

A

In a matched pairs study there are two groups of participants, however the groups are not indepedent, they are matched on characteristics, such as IQ, age, etc. Therefore, matched pairs experiments use repeated measures tests.

317
Q

WHen is a Mann-Whitney U Test used?

A
  1. The hypothesis states a difference between two sets of data
  2. The two sets of data are from separate groups of participants = independent groups
  3. The data are ordinal or interval (i.e. not nominal)
318
Q

When would you reject the alternative hypothesis even when the results are significant?

A

If you have a one-tailed hypothesis, but the difference isn’t in the direction that you stated (i.e. you got a negative correlation when you predicted a positive correlation) you cannot accept the alternative hypothesis and cannot reject the null hypothesis.

319
Q

When is a Mann-Whitney U test significant?

A

For any N1 and N2 observed value of U (look at number that lines up with the row and columns) must be equal to or less than the critical value.

320
Q

When is the Wilcoxon T test used?

A
  1. The hypothesis states a difference between two sets of data
  2. The two sets of data are pairs of scores from one person (or a matched pair) = related
  3. The data are ordinal or interval (i.e. not nominal)
321
Q

How do you know when the WIlcoxon T test is significant?

A

Observed value of T must be euqal to or less than the critical value. Results may be omitted if the difference between scores and rank is 0, which then changes the N (partipant) value.

322
Q

What should be concluded in a study design?

A
  1. Introduction
  2. Method
  3. Design and Materials
  4. Participants
  5. Ethics
  6. Procedures What will actually be done?
  7. Results
323
Q

When designing your own study what should you include in the introduction?

A

Consider past research. Decide on the research aims and/or hypothesis (directional or non-directional)

324
Q

When designing your own study what should you include in the method?

A

Decide on the target population and the overarching research method (e.g. experiment, questionnaire etc.). IN case of an experiment/correlational analysis you need to identify IV and DV or co-variables.

325
Q

When designing your own study what should you include in the design and methods?

A

Consider and describe what materials will be used. COnsider issues related to validity and reliability and how these will be dealt with. WHat type of experiment, what experiment design, what type of question, what tye of observation?

326
Q

When designing your own study what should you include in the participants?

A

Identify a suitable sampling technique and explain how it would be used. Consider size and composition of the sample. If using independent groups, explain how to assign participants to group. In observations study, also talk about how observations are recorded (time o revent sampling etc.)

327
Q

When designing your own study what should you include in the ethics?

A

Identify any ethical issues that might arise in the study and consider how they might be dealt with.

328
Q

When designing your own study what should you include in the procedures?

A

Cnsider replicability- to what extent could someone else follow your instructions and repeat exatly what you did? OUtline standardised instructions given to each participant. Decide whether a pilot study will be conducted.

329
Q

How should standardised instructions be written?

A

This includes informed consent. Explains when and what materials will be given, where the participants are tested, how long they will have, etc.

330
Q

When designing your own study what should you include in the results?

A

Consider what statistics to use. THis includes descriptive and inferential statistics (including the level of significance to be used) Consider analysis for questionnaire/interviews.

331
Q

What is include in reports of psychological investigations?

A
  1. Abstract
  2. Introduction
  3. Method
  4. Results
    5 Discussion
  5. References
332
Q

What is the abstract?

A

A summary of the study covering the aims, hypothesis, the method (procedures), results and conclusions (including implications of the current study(

333
Q

What is the introduction?

A

BEgins with a review of previous research, which should lead logically to the study to be conducted, so the reader is convinced of the reasons for this particular research. The researcher(s) states their aims, research prediction and/or hypothesis.

334
Q

What is the method?

A

A detailed description of what the researcher(s) did, providing enough information for replication of the study. Includes design (design decisions must be justified), participants (sampling methods, how many PP and their detials), apparatus/materials, procedures(standardised instructions, testing environment, order of events etc.) and ethics (ethical issues mention and solutions)

335
Q

What is the results?

A

What the researcher(s) found, including descriptive statistics and inferential statistics *justified, observed value and significance level reported). Statement of whether null hypothesis accepted or rejected. In case of qualitative research, categories and themes are described along with examples within these categories.

336
Q

What is the discussion?

A

The researcher aims to interpret the results and consider their implications for future research as well as suggesting real-world application. Summary of the results (explanation of what this shows), relationship to previous research, consideration of methodology (improvements may be suggested), implications (for theory ad real-world applications) and suggestions for future research.

337
Q

What are the references?

A

The full details of any journal articles or books that are mentioned.

338
Q

What are descriptive statistics?

A
  1. Measures of central tendency
  2. Measures of dispersion
  3. Graphs
339
Q

What are the measures of central tendency?

A
  1. The mean
  2. The median
  3. The mode
340
Q

WHat are the measures of dispersion?

A
  1. Range

2. Standard deviation

341
Q

What is the mean?

A

Averages. Is calculated by adding up all the scores and dividing by the number of scores.

342
Q

When should the mean be used?

A

It makes use of the values of all the data in the final calculation but can be unrepresentative of the data as a whole if there are extreme values. It is not appropriate for nominal data.

343
Q

What is the median?

A

The middle value in an ordered list.

344
Q

When should the median be used?

A

It is not affected by extreme scores but is not as ‘sensitive’ as the mean because not all values are reflected in the median. It is not appropriate for nominal data.

345
Q

WHat is the mode?

A

The value that is most common in a data set.

346
Q

When should the mode be used?

A

It is the only method appropriate when the data are in categories, i.e. nominal data, but can be used for all kinds of data. It is not a useful way of describing data when there are several mode.s

347
Q

What is the range?

A

Calculated by finding the difference between the highest and lowest score in a data set. THis is easy to calculate but may be affected by extreme values.

348
Q

What is standard deviation?

A

Expresses the spread of the data around the mean. THis is a more precise measure because all the values of the data are taken into account. However, some characteristics of the data are not expressed, such as the influence of extreme values.

349
Q

WHat is a bar chart?

A

THe height of the bar represents frequency. SUitable for both words and numbers, i.e. all levels of measurement.

350
Q

What is a scattergram?

A

Suitable for correlational data, a dot or cross is shown for each pair of values.

351
Q

How should you state the conclusions that can be drawn after using an inferential test?

A
  1. State the observed value
  2. Say whether this is greater than or less than the critical value
  3. State whether the null hypothesis can be rejected or must be accepted
  4. Restate the hypothesis you ae accepting.
352
Q

What do qualitative researchers believe about traditional quantitative methods?

A
  1. They do not produce results that are applicable to everyday life
  2. Qualitative methods emphasise subjectiveness because they aim to represent the world as seen by the individual.
353
Q

What is reflexitivity?

A

A term used to describe the extent to which the process of research reflects a researcher’s values and thoughts.

354
Q

How can the validity of qualitative research be demonstrated?

A

Using triangulation, comparing the results from a variety of different studies of the same thing or person. HTe studies are likely to have used different methodologies. If the results agree this supports their validity. If the results differ then this can lead to further research to enhance our understanding.

355
Q

What is the bottom-up approach to analyzing qualitative data?

A

Most qualitative analysis aims to be inductive or ‘bottom-up-‘ - the categories (‘themes) that emerge are based in the data. The categories/themes may lead to new theories (called ‘emergent theory’) Using a bottom-up approach ensures that this ‘order’ emerges from the data themselves rather than any preconceptions.

356
Q

What is the top down approach to analysing qualitative data?

A

A less common approach is a deductive or ‘top’ down one where the researcher starts with preset categories/themes. Such categories are likely to be generated by previous theories/research. The researcher would aim to see if the data are consistent with the previous theoretical viewpoint.

357
Q

How is qualitative data analysed?

A
  1. Read and reread (or look at) the data transcript dispassionately (no notes), trying to uderstand the meaning communicated and the perspective of the PP
  2. Break the data into meaningful units- small bits of test that independently convey meaning
  3. Assign a label or code to each unit, these are the intial categories that you are using. Each unit may be given more than one code/label. IN a top-down approach, categories will be provided by existing theories
  4. Combine simple codes into larger categories/themes
  5. A check can be made on the emergent categories by collecting a new set of data and applying the categories- they should ift well if t hey represent the topic area investigated
    6 Final report should discuss and use quotes/other material to illustrate the emergent themes
  6. Conclusions can be drawn, which may include new theories.
358
Q

What are the advantages of quantitative data?

A
  1. Easier to analyse because data in numbers

2. Produces neat conclusions

359
Q

What are the weaknesses of quantitative data?

A
  1. OVersimplifies reality and human experience (statistically significant but humanly insignificant)
360
Q

What are the advantages of qualitative data?

A
  1. Represents the true complexities of human behaviour
  2. Gains access to thoughts and feelings which may not be assessed using quantitative methods with closed questions
  3. Provides rich detail
361
Q

WHat are the disadvantages of qualitative data?

A
  1. Difficult to summarise
  2. More difficult to detect patterns and draw conclusions
  3. Analysis Can be affected by personal expectations and beliefs (although quantitative methods are equally affected by bias)
  4. Time consuming
362
Q

What is attrition?

A

The loss of participants from a study over time, which is likely to leave a biased sample or a smple that is too small.

363
Q

What are cohort effects?

A

The effects of being born at about the same time, exposed to the same events in society, and influenced by the same demographic trends and thus, having similar experiences that make the group unique from other groups. Cohort effects are most likely to be a problem during a cross-sectional study as it is difficult to separate effects of developmental changes from cohort effects when examining age effects across a wide range of ages

364
Q

What are cross-sectional studies?

A

One group of participants of a young age is compared with another, older group o fparticipants with a view to investigating the effect of age on the behaviour in question

365
Q

What is effect size?

A

A measure of the strength between two variables

366
Q

What is experimental realism?

A

The extent that an experimental situation is realistic

367
Q

What is the hawthorne effect?

A

defined as changes in behavior resulting from attention participants believe they are getting from researchers, and not the variable(s) manipulated by the researchers

368
Q

What is imposed etics?

A

A technique or theory developed in one culture and then used to study the behaviour of people in a different culture with different norms, values, experiences, etc.

369
Q

What is an intervening variable?

A

A variable that comes between two other variables that is used to explain the relationship between those two variables

370
Q

What is construct validity?

A

A means of assessing the validity of a psychological test by demonstrating the extent to which performance ont he test measures an identified underlying construct.

371
Q

What is interviewer bias?

A

The effect of an interviewer’s expectations, communicated unconsciously, or a respondent’s behaviour

372
Q

What are participant effects?

A

A general term used to acknowledge the fact that participants react to cues in an experimental situation, and that this may affect the validity of any conclusions drawn from the investigation

373
Q

What are participant variables?

A

Characteristics of individual participants that might influence the outcome of a study

374
Q

What is predictive validity?

A

A means of assessing the validity of a psychological test by correlating the results of the test with some later behaviour; the ability to predict something it should theoretically be able to predict

375
Q

What is presumptive consent?

A

Taking a random sample of the population and introducing them to the research including deception, if they agree that it would be ok then we can generalise from this to the general population

376
Q

What is prior general consent?

A

Obtaining prior consent of the participant to see if they would take part in a study that involved deception. If they agree then it would be ok to include them in future research involving deception

377
Q

What are situational variables?

A

Situational Variables are factors in the environment that can unintentionally affect the results of a study. Such variables include noise, temperature, odors, and lighting.

A2 Psychology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions