Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PAPER 2 - PSYCHOLOGY > RESEARCH METHODS 2 > Flashcards

RESEARCH METHODS 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards AP® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

Define research methods

A

The process by which information or data is collected usually for the purpose of testing a hypothesis and/or a theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define correlation

A

A mathematical technique in which a researcher investigates an association between two variables, called co-variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of variables for the two co-variables have to be

A

Continuous variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of graph is correlation usually plotted on

A

Scattergram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does each axis represent in a scattergram

A

One of the variables investigated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define correlation coefficient

A

A number between -1 and +1 that represents the direction and strength of a relationship between co-variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What two things does a correlation coefficient tell us about the relationship between co-variables

A

The direction and strength of correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does a coefficient of +1 represent

A

A perfect positive correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does a coefficient of -1 represent

A

A perfect negative correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The closer the coefficient is to +1 or -1 the ——-

A

Stronger the relationship between the co-variables is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which correlation coefficient is stronger -0.5 or +0.5

A

They are as strong a relationship as each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can coefficients that appear to indicate weak correlation still be statistically significant
What does it depend upon

A

Yes - the side of the data set

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define case studies

A

An in-depth investigation, description and analysis of a single individual, group institution or event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What data does connecting a case study usually involve

A

Qualitative data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hat might researchers construct of the individual concerned

A

A Case history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What three things may be used to construct a case history

A

Interviews, observations and questionnaires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What two things might a person be subject to to assess what they are (are not) capable of

A

Experimental or psychological testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of data would experimental or psychological testing produce from a case study

A

Quantitative data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do you call a case study if it takes place over a long period of time

A

Longitudinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who else might data be gathered from rather than just the individual in a case study

A

Family and friends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define content analysis

A

A research technique that enables the indirect study of behaviour by examining communications that people produce.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Give 5 examples of examined communication that people produce

A

Texts, emails, tv, film or other media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of research is content analysis

A

Observational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the aim for content analysis to have conclusions draw

A

For it to be summarised and described in a systematic way so overall conclusions can be drawn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define coding

A

The stage of a content analysis in which the communication to be studied is analysed by identifying each instance of the chosen categories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What stage is coding in content analysis

A

The initial stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What would large data sets be categorised into

A

Meaningful units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How might words in text be manipulated to produce quantitative data

A

Counting up the number of times a word is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define thematic analysis

A

An inductive and qualitative approach to analysis that involves identifying implicit or explicit ideas within data.themes will often emerge once the data has been coded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When will themes often emerge form data

A

Once the data has been coded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is the outcome of thematic analysis qualitative or quantitative

A

Qualitative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does a theme in content analysis refer to

A

Any idea, explicit or implicit that is recurrent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Are themes more likely to be more or less descriptive than coding units

A

More descriptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What might researchers do after they are happy with the themes they have developed

A

May collection a new set of data to test the validity of the themes and categories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What will the reseracher do if the themes explain the new data adequately

A

Write up the final report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What will a final report typically use in thematic analysis to illustrate each theme

A

Direct quotes from the data to illustrate each theme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the four strengths of case studies

A

Offer detailed insights on very unusual and atypical forms of behaviour.
Contribute to our understanding of ‘typical’ functioning.
Generation of hypothesis for future study
One solitary contradictory instance may lead to the revision of an entire theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the three limitations to case studies

A

Generalisation of findings on research of small sample sizes.
Information in the final report is based on the subjective selection and interpretation of the researcher.
Personal accounts from participant, family or friends may be prone to inaccuracy and memory decay.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the three strengths of content analysis

A

Avoids many ethical issues, no issues with obtaining permission.
Such communications have the benefit of being high in external validity.
Can produce both qualitative and quantitative data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the limitation of content analysis

A

May suffer from a lack of objectivity, especially when more descriptive forms of thematic analysis are employed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What do modern analysts do to evaluate and show their own biases

A

Clear about how their own biases and preconceptions influenced the research process.
Often make references to them as part of their final report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the name given to the process of referencing biases in final reports

A

Reflexivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define reliability

A

Refers to how consistent a measuring device is - and this includes psychological tests or observations which assess behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If a test or measure in psychology assessed some ‘thing’ on a particular day what would we expect to be the case on another day
If this is not the case what do we assume has happened

A

Expect it to be the same
The thing has changed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What do psychologists tend to measure rather than concrete things
(4 examples)

A

Abstract things
Attitudes, aggression, memory and IQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What have psychologists developed to assess whether their measuring tools are reliable

A

Test-retest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Define test-retest reliability

A

A method of assessing the reliability of a questionnaire or psychological test by assessing the same person on two separate occasions. This shows to what extent the test produces the same answers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the method for test-retest

A

Administering the same test or questionnaire to the same person on different occasions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If the test is reliable what should be the case in the test-retest method

A

The results obtained should be the same or very similar each time they are administered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the test-retest method most likely to be used on
What is another example of where it can but usually wont be applied

A

Psychological tests and questionnaires
Interviews

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What 2 reasons are there for leaving the right amount of time between test and re-test

A

The participant cannot recall their answers to the questions to a survey
Not so long that the participant’s attitudes, opinions or ability’s might have changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How would two data sets from test-retest be manipulated

A

Two sets of scores would be correlated to make sure they are similar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What correlation should be present to indicate a reliable measuring instrument

A

Significant and positive correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Define inter-observer reliability

A

The extent to which there is agreement between two or more observers involved in observations of a behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is inter-observer reliability measured

A

By correlating the observations of two or more observers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the maths sum applied to inter-observer reliability

A

(Total number of agreements) / (total number of observations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What number does the result from the maths sum for inter-observer reliability have to be higher than to have a good reliability

A

+0.80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What type of research is inter-observe reliability important in

A

Observational reserach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the main issue in observational research

A

One observers interpretation may differ greatly form anothe s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What 3 negative things are introduced into data collection if one observers interpretation is different from another’s

A

Subjectivity, bias and unreliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How can inter-observer reliability be tested before the actual experiement

A

With a pilot-study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In the pilot-study what is being checked to be applied in the same way

A

Behavioural categories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the reliability test called when applied to content analysis

A

Inter-rater reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the name of the reliability test done on interviews

A

Inter-interviewer reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What should the correlation coefficient exceed in both test-retest and inter-observer reliability for them to be deemed reliable

A

Exceed +0.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What two things can be done to improve a questionnaire if it produces a low test-retest reliability

A

Some of the items to be ‘deselected’ or rewritten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What type of questions can be replaced with another type of question in questionnaires to make them more reliable
Why

A

Open questions can be changed to closed questions
Will be less ambiguous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the best way to ensure reliability in interviews

A

To use the same interviewer each time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What should be done if the same interviewer cannot be used every time
What does this prevent

A

Interviewers must be trained
Prevents one particular interviewer from asking too leading or ambiguous questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What two words describe a type of interview that is less likely to be reliable

A

Unstructured and more free-flowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What can be properly operationalised to improve the reliability of observations

A

Behavioural categories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What two things must behavioural categories be

A

Measurable and self-evident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What must behavioural categories do

A

Overlap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

All possible behaviours must be ____

A

Covered on a check list

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What will happen if categories are not operationalised well, or are overlapping or absent

A

Different observers have to make their own judgements of what to record where and may end up with different and inconsistent records.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What two things can the observers do if reliability is low

A

Training in using behavioural categories
May wish to discuss their decisions with each other so they can apply categories more consistently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

In an experiment was is the focus for reliability

A

The procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the goal in an experiment to ensure a high reliability

A

Standardised procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Define validity

A

The extent to which an observed effect is genuine - does it measure what it is suppose to, and can it be generalised beyond the research setting within which it was found.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

For high validity what must represent what is out in the real world

A

Observed effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the word given to whether the researcher had managed to measure what they intended to

A

Internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the word that refers to the extent to which findings can be generalised beyond the research setting

A

External validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Give an example of how reliable data from a research might not be valid
(study on weight is it reliable? Is it valid?)

A

A broken set of scales may tell someone’s weight consistently but it may always be 5kg more than their actual weight.
The scales are reliable but the weight is not true so lacks validity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What does internal validity refer to

A

Whether the effects observed in an experiment are due to the manipulation of the independent variable and not other factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is one major threat to the internal validity of a study

A

If participants respond to demand characteristics - acting in a way they think is expected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Give an example of a study in which demand characteristics are expected to have influenced results

A

Milgram’s shock study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What does external validity refer to
(What are the 3 others)

A

Factors outside the investigation.
Generalising to other settings, other populations of people and other areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What type of validity does ecological validity come under

A

It is a type of external validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Define ecological validity

A

The extent to which findings from a research study can be generalised to other settings and situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What type of experimental setting would have a high ecological validity

A

A more natural setting - one that is likely to be seen in everyday life
E.g. a field study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is one example of a setting that people believe will have low ecological validity

A

A lab setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

In an experiment a task that is used to measure the ____ variable will have low ecological validity
What term is given to this

A

Dependent variable
Low mundane realism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Give an example of a field study in which you would expect high ecological validity but it is actually low
(Memory)

A

A list of words to remember in a shopping mall.
Using a word list makes the study lack ecological validity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What must be looked at to decide whether findings can be generalised beyond the setting of reserach

A

All sorts of aspects of the research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Define temporal validity

A

The extent to which findings from a research study can be generalised to other historical times and eras.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What type of validity does temporal validity fall under

A

External validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Give an example of a study that have low temporal validity.
Why is it the case

A

Asch’s research having high rates of conformity
They took place in a particularly conformist era in American history (1950s / post WW2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Define face validity

A

A basic form of validity in which a measure is scrutinised to determine whether it appears to measure what it is suppose to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What two things can be done to determine face validity

A

By simply ‘eyeballing’ the measuring instrument or by passing it to an expert to check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Define concurrent validity

A

The extend to which a psychological measure relates to an existing similar measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How can concurrent validity be tested (example with intelligence)

A

The new-intelligence test will be given to participants alongside a well-established test and IQ scores they achieve may be compared.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What would close agreement between a set of data using an old test and a set of data from a new test mean

A

The new test has high concurrent validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Close agreement between the new and old test is indicated if the correlation between two sets is what

A

Exceeds +0.80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are two examples looked in more detail of things that can be done to improve validity

A

Control group
Standardised procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What can a control group allow researchers to better assess when looking at validity

A

Whether changes in the dependent variable were due to the effect of the independent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

The impact of what two things are minimised when standardising procedures

A

Participant reactivity and investigator effects on the validity if the outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What two types of procedures may help achieve minimised participant reactivity and investigator effects

A

Single-blind
Double-blind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the case in single-blind procedures
What does it reduce the effects of

A

Participants are not made aware of the aims of a study until they have taken part to reduce the effect of demand characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the case in a double-blind study
What two things does this reduce the effects of

A

A third party conducts the investigation without knowing its main purpose
Reduces demand characteristics and investigator effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What two things does the introduction of a lie scale into questionnaires and psychological tests assess

A

The consistency of a respondent’s response
Control for the effects of social desirability bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What can be promised to respondents to further enhance reliability
Why

A

Data submitted will remain anonymous
They wont hide negative truths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What type of observations can produce high ecologically valid findings due to minimal intervention by the researcher

A

Covert observations - behaviour of those observed is likely to be natural and authentic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What can have a negative impact on the validity of observational data collection if they are too broad or overlapping

A

Behavioural categories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Which method of data collection and research is thought to have a higher ecological validity than the otehr

A

Qualitative methods have higher ecological validity than quantitative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Why is detail and depth associated with case studies and interview more likely to have higher ecological validity

A

It is better able to reflect a participants reality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Define interpretive validity

A

The extent to which the researcher’s interpretation of events matches that of their participants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What two things can interpretive validity be demonstrated through

A

Coherence of the researcher’s narrative
The inclusion of direct quotes from participants within report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Define triangulation

A

The use of a number of different sources as evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What does triangulation do to validity

A

Enhances it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Give 3 examples of what can be combined and used in triangulation

A

Data complied through interviews with friends and family, personal diaries and observations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What two words and one phrase can be used to describe validity

A

Whether a test is legitimate and genuine
Whether findings can be generalised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Define statistical testing

A

Used in psychology to determine whether a significant difference or correlation exists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What does a statistical test determine about null hypothesis

A

Whether it should be rejected or retained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are the three factors to consider when deciding which statistical test to use

A

Whether the researcher is looking for a difference in correlation
In the case of a difference, what experimental design is being used
The level of measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Define levels of measurement

A

Quantitative data can be classified into types or levels of measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are three example types of measurement quantitative data can be classified into in levels of measurement

A

Nominal, ordinal and interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the first thing to consider when deciding which statistical test to use

A

Is the researcher looking for a difference or correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Where should it be obvious if the researcher is looking for a difference or correlation

A

In the wording of the hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is not an issue if the investigation is looking for a correlation rather than a difference

A

Experimental design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What are the three types of experimental design

A

Independent groups
Repeated measures
Matched pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Which two types of experimental designs are referred to as related designs

A

Repeated measures and matched pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is the case with participants in a repeated measures design
Is this classed as related

A

Same participants are used in all conditions of the experiment
Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is the case with participants in a matched pair design
Is this classed as related

A

Participants in each condition are not the same but have been matched on some variable that is important for the investigation.
Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is the case with participants in a independent design
Is this classed as related

A

Participants in each condition are different
No - unrelated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What must the researcher choose between in decision 2 of experimental design

A

Whether participants will be related or unrelated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is the third factor influencing the choice of statistical tests

A

The levels of measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

How is nominal data represented

A

In the form of categories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

why is nominal data discrete

A

One item can only appear in one category

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Give an example of a question asked in nominal data and the possible answers

A

Do you like dogs?
Yes or no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

How is ordinal data represented

A

It is data that can be ordered in some way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Give an example of a question asked for ordinal data and potential answers

A

Rate how much you like dogs on a scale of 1 to 10
10 - i love dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Does ordinal data have to have equal intervals between each unit

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Which type of data has to have equal intervals between each unit

A

Interval data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Why does ordinal data lack precision

A

It is based on subjective opinion rather than objective measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Why does an IQ test lack precision when looking at ordinal data

A

IQ test questions are derived from a view of what constitutes intelligence rather than any universnl measurement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Why is ordinal data not used as part of statistical testing
What is done with ordinal data instead, can this be used

A

Due to its unsafe nature
Raw scores are converted to ranks and ranks are used in the calculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

How is interval data represented

A

Based on numerical scales that include equal units, precisely defined size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What is the most precise and sophisticated for of data in psychology

A

Interval data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What type of test is interval data a necessary criterion for

A

Parametric tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What type of measurement is taken to produce interval data based on accepted units of measurement

A

Public scales of measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Give three examples of accepted units of measurement used in interval data

A

Time, temperature and weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is nominal data’s measure of central tendency

A

Mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is ordinal data’s measure of central tendency

A

Median

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is interval data’s measure of central tendency

A

Mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What is ordinal data’s measure of dispersion

A

Range

156
Q

What is interval data’s measure of dispersion

A

Standard deviation

157
Q

What is nominal data’s measure of dispursion

A

There is not one

158
Q

What are the 2 tests used for nominal data

A

Chi-squared. Sign test.

159
Q

What are the 3 tests used for ordinal data

A

Mann-Whitney. Wilcoxon. Spearman’s rho

160
Q

What are the 3 tests used for interval data

A

Unrelated t-test. Related t-test. Person’s r

161
Q

What are the 6 tests of difference

A

Chi-squared. Sign test. Mann-Whitney. Wilcoxon. Unrelated t-test. Related t-test

162
Q

What are the three tests of associated or correlation

A

Chi-squared. Spearman’s rho. Pearsons r.

163
Q

What are the 3 unrelated design tests

A

Chi-squared. Mann-Whitney. Unrelated t-test

164
Q

Hat are the three related design test

A

Sign test. Wilcoxon. Related t-test

165
Q

Define Spearman’s rho test
(A test for what, data at what level)

A

A test for correlation when data is at least ordinal level

166
Q

Define Pearson’s r test
(A test for what, data at what level)

A

A parametric test for a correlation when data is at interval level

167
Q

Define Wilcoxon test
(A test for what, data at what level, what design)

A

A test for difference between two sets of scores.
Data should be at least ordinal level using a related design

168
Q

Define Mann-Whitney test
(A test for what, data at what level, what design)

A

A test for a difference between two sets of scores.
Data should be at least ordinal level using a related design

169
Q

Define related t-test
(A test for what, data at what level, what design)

A

A parametric test for difference between two sets of scores.
Data must be internal level with a related design

170
Q

Define unrelated t-test
(A test for what, data at what level, what design)

A

A parametric test for a difference between two sets of scores.
Data must be interval level with an unrelated design

171
Q

Define Chi-squared test
(A test for what, data at what level, what design)

A

A test for an association between two variables or conditions.
Data should be nominal level using an unrelated design

172
Q

What are the three criterion for the use of the parametric test

A

Data at interval level
Data must be drawn from a normally distributed population
Homogeneity of variance

173
Q

What three tests are known as parametric tests

A

Related and unrelated t-test and pearson’s r

174
Q

What does homogeneity of variance mean

A

The set of scores in each condition should have similar dispersion or spread.

175
Q

Why will researchers always choose a parametric test if able to

A

Able to detect significance within some data sets that non-parametric tests cannot

176
Q

What do researchers begin their investigation with writing

A

A hypothesis

177
Q

What two things might the hypothesis be depending on how confident the researcher is in the outcome of the investigation

A

Directional or non-directional

178
Q

What does a null hypothesis state

A

There is ‘no difference’ between the conditions

179
Q

What is the name given to the alternative of a null hypothesis

A

An alternative hypothesis

180
Q

What is an alternative hypothesis

A

A hypothesis that states there is a difference between conditions

181
Q

What does a statistical test determine about the hypothesis

A

Which hypothesis is true and whether we accept or reject the null hypothesis

182
Q

What do statistical testes work on the basis of rather than certainty

A

Probability

183
Q

Define probability

A

A measure of the likelihood that a particular event will occur where 0 indicated statistical impossibility and 1 statistical certainty

184
Q

What does a 0 result for a statistical test indicate for probability

A

Statistical impossibility

185
Q

What does a number 1 result form a statistical test indicate about probability

A

Statistical certainty

186
Q

What is the usual level of significance in psychology

A

P < 0.05 or 5%

187
Q

What does a significant result mean for the null hypothesis

A

It is rejected

188
Q

What is significance level

A

The point at which there is a large enough difference or correlation within the data to claim an effect has been found.

189
Q

Define significance

A

A statistical term that tells us how sure we are that a difference or correlation exists.

190
Q

What does p stand for in p < 0.05

A

Probability

191
Q

What does p < 0.05 mean within a population

A

The probability that the observed effect occurred when there is no effect in the population is equal to or less than 5%

192
Q

What does p < 0.05 mean for the chances that the correlation isn’t true for the target population from which the same was drawn

A

There is still up to a 5% chance

193
Q

Why is the probability 5% or less for the chance it is not true and not 0%
Or 95% or more true and not 100% true

A

Psychologists can never be 100% certain about a particular result they have not tested on all members of the population under all possible circumstances

194
Q

What is the name given to the number calculated at the end of a statistical test

A

Calculated value

195
Q

What must be the calculated vale be compared to at the end of statistical test to check statistical significance

A

Critical value

196
Q

Define critical value

A

When testing a hypothesis the number boundary or cut-off point between acceptance and rejection of the null hypothesis

197
Q

What does each statistical test have for critical values

A

Its own table of critical values

198
Q

For some statistical tests the calculated value must be what to the critical value
For others the calculated value must be what to the crictal value

A

Equal to or less than
Equal to or greater than

199
Q

What are the three criteria for deciding which critical value to use

A

One-tailed or two-tailed test
The number of participants in the study
The level of significant

200
Q

If a one-tailed test was used what is the hypothesis like

A

Directional

201
Q

If using a two-tailed test what is the hypothesis like

A

Non-directional

202
Q

What happens to probability levels when two-tailed tests are used and why

A

Probability levels double
They are a more conservative prediction

203
Q

What does the number of participants usually appear as on a table of critical values

A

N

204
Q

What might need to be calculated using number of participants in some statistical tests

A

Degrees of freedom

205
Q

What two things might cause a more stringent level of significance to be used such as 0.01

A

Studied where they may be a human cost - drug trials
One-off studies that could not be repeated in the future

206
Q

What will all researchers do if there is a large difference between the calculated and cricital values in the preferred direction
Why

A

They will check more stringent levels, as the lower the p value the more statistically significant the result

207
Q

Define type I error

A

The incorrect rejection of a true null hypothesis (a false positive)

208
Q

What are the two other names given to type I errors

A

Optimistic error or false positive

209
Q

Define type II error

A

The failure to reject a false null hypothesis

210
Q

What are the two other names given to a type II error

A

Pessimistic error or false negative

211
Q

When is a type I error more likely to be made

A

When the significance level is too lenient or too high

212
Q

When is a type II error more likely to be made

A

If the significance level is too stringent or too low

213
Q

Why do psychologists favour the 5% level of significance when it comes to type I and II errors

A

It best balances the risk of making a type I or type II error

214
Q

How many and what type of groups are used in Mann-Whitney

A

Two independent groups

215
Q

What type of design is in Mann-Whitney

A

Unrelated

216
Q

What is the level of measurement of data in Mann-Whitney

A

Ordinal data

217
Q

What are the 3 steps to a Mann-Whitney calculation

A

Step 1: table of ranks
Step 2: working out the value of U
Step 3: the calculated and critical values

218
Q

How do you produce a table of ranks in step 1 of a Mann-Whitney test

A

Data in both groups are ranked together.
The lowest number has a rank of 1
Calculate the sum of the ranks for Group A (Ra)
Calculate the sum of the ranks for Group B (Rb)

219
Q

What do you do in the ranking step of a Mann-Whitney test if two data items are the same
Do an example with a number appearing 4 times

A

Add up the rank they would get and give the mean for those ranks
The rating of 12 appears 4 times in the table at rank positions 7,8,9 and 10
They are all given a rank of 8.5

220
Q

Do you need to calculate the smallest or largest value of U in a Mann-Whitney test

A

The smallest value

221
Q

What group do you use to calculate the smallest value of U in a Mann-Whitney test

A

The group with the lowest sum of ranks

222
Q

If the group with the smallest number of ranks is group A in a Mann-Whitney what will the value of U now be called

A

Ua

223
Q

If the group with the smallest sum of ranks is Group A in a Mann-Whitney what will the number of participants now be called

A

Na

224
Q

What is the main task in step two of the Mann-Whitney test

A

Input the data found from the table of ranks into the given equation and calculate the smaller value of U

225
Q

What is the calculated value in a Mann-Whitney test

A

The smaller value of U

226
Q

How would you obtain the critical value of U in a two-tailed Mann-Whitney test

A

Use the table.
Find the number in the column corresponding to the number of participants in one group and the row of the number of participants in the other

227
Q

What must the calculated value be in comparison to the critical value for the result to be significant in a Mann-Whitney test

A

The calculated value must be equal to or less than the critical value

228
Q

If the calculated value is equal to or less than the critical value in a Mann-Whitney test what happens to the null hypothesis

A

It is rejected

229
Q

What type of measure design is used in Wilcoxon

A

Repeated measure design

230
Q

What type of data is used in a Wilcoxon test

A

Ordinal data

231
Q

What are the 3 steps to completing a Wilcoxon statistical test

A

Step 1: calculate a difference and rank the difference
Step 2: working out the T value
Step 3: the calculated and critical values

232
Q

In step 1 of the Wilcoxon test what is ranking based on

A

The difference between two sets of data

233
Q

Are signs taken into account during ranking in Wilcoxon test

A

No they are ignored

234
Q

What happens if the difference is zero in a Wilcoxon test

A

The data is not included and is deducted from the N value

235
Q

How do you calculate the valence of T in Wilcoxon test

A

Adding up the numbers with the less frequent sign
(Minus or plus)

236
Q

How do you find the critical value for the Wilcoxon test

A

Go down the column for the level of significant and across the row for number of participants (N)
The number that lines up with these is the critical value.

237
Q

What must the calculated value be in comparison to the critical value for the result to be significant in a Wilcoxon test

A

The calculated value needs to be equal to or less than the critical value

238
Q

What happens to the null hypothesis in the Wilcoxon test if the calculated valence is more than the critical value

A

It is accepted

239
Q

What is the unrelated t-test a test of

A

Difference between two sets of data

240
Q

What data does the unrelated t-test use

A

Interval level only

241
Q

The unrelated t-test is selected for what group design

A

Independent groups design

242
Q

The criteria for what test need to be fulfilled before using the unrelated t-test

A

Parametric test

243
Q

What can be assumed about the population and variance if the parametric test is fulfilled in unrelated t-test

A

Normally distributed population
Homogeneity of variance

244
Q

If there is a normal distributed population and homogeneity of variance what in both groups are similar in an unrelated t-test

A

The standard deviation in both groups

245
Q

What are the 3 steps in the unrelated t-test

A

Step 1: table of data
Step 2: working out the value of t
Step 3: the calculated and critical values

246
Q

Outline the 4 calculations that need to be made in step 1: the table of data for the unrelated t-test

A

Sum of scores for group A (Xa)
Sum of scores for group B (Xb)
Square each value in Group A (Xa²) and calculate sum of all squared values.
Square each value in Group B (Xb²) and calculate sum of all squared values.

247
Q

What is the equation for Sa and Sb using Xa and Xb in the unrelated t-test

A

Sa = sum of Xa² - (sum of Xa)² / Na

Same for Sb

248
Q

How do you work out the value of t after calculating Sa and Sb in the unrelated t-test

A

Place Sa and Sb into the given equation.
The result is t

249
Q

What is the calculated value in the unrelated t-test

A

T

250
Q

What is the calculated value in the Wilcoxon test

A

T

251
Q

When will t be a negative value in the unrelated t-test

A

When the mean for group b was larger than group a

252
Q

When you check the critical values table in the unrelated t-test do you take into account the sign for T

A

No - ignore it

253
Q

What do you have to calculate before using the critical values table in unrelated t-test

A

Degrees of freedom

254
Q

What is the equation for degrees of freedom

A

Df = (No. of participants in group A + No. of participants in group B) - 2

255
Q

How do you obtain the critical value in the unrelated t-test

A

Use critical value table
Find the type of tailed test you completed.
Go down the corresponding column for level of significance to the number that is in the row for the correct degrees of freedom

256
Q

What must the calculated value be in comparison to the critical value for the result to be significant in the unrelated t-test

A

The calculated value must be greater or equal to the critical value

257
Q

If the calculated value is greater or equal to the critical value what happens to the null hypothesis in the unrelated t-test

A

The null hypothesis is rejected

258
Q

A related t-test is selected when what design is being used

A

Repeated design

259
Q

What type of data is used in a related t-test

A

Interval level data only

260
Q

What type of population and variance are required for the related t-test

A

Normally distributed population
Homogeneity of variance

261
Q

What are the 3 steps for the related t-test

A

Step 1: the table of data
Step 2: working out the value of t
Step 3: the calculated and critical values

262
Q

What are the 4 calculations that need to be made for step 1: the table of data in the related t-test

A

The difference between scores for group A and B (d)
Square each difference (d²)
Add up the values of d to give the sum of d
Add up the values of d² to give the sum of d²

263
Q

What happens in step 2: working out the value of t for the related t-test

A

Input sum of d and sum of d² into the given equation and calculate

264
Q

What is the calculated value in the related t-test

A

T

265
Q

What needs to be calculated before finding critical value in related t-test

A

Degrees of freedom (Df)

266
Q

How do you find the critical value for related t-test in step 3

A

Use critical value table
Find the type of tailed test you completed.
Go down the corresponding column for level of significance to the number that is in the row for the correct degrees of freedom

267
Q

What must the calculated value be in comparison to the critical value for a significant result in the related t-test

A

Calculated value must be equal or greater than the critical value

268
Q

What happens to the null hypothesis if the calculated value of t is less than or equal to the critical value in the related t-test

A

It is accepted

269
Q

What is Spearman’s rank a test of between two sets of values

A

Correlation

270
Q

The spearman’s rank test is selected when one or both of the variables are what level of data

A

Ordinal

271
Q

Can the spearmans rank test also be used with another type of data
Is so which

A

Yes
Interval data

272
Q

What does not need to be considered with the spearmans rank test and why

A

Design type
Investigation is correlation and not experimental

273
Q

What are the 4 steps for Spearman’s test

A

Step 1: the table of ranks
Step 2: calculate the difference
Step 3: working out the value of rho
Step 4: the calculated and critical values

274
Q

What must be done in step 1 of spearmans rho test

A

Scores need to be ranked separately in each group from lowest to highest.

275
Q

Are groups/conditions ranked separately or together in spearmans test

A

Separately

276
Q

Are groups ranked together or separately in Mann-Whitney

A

Together

277
Q

What do you do in step 1 of the spearmans test if two or more scores share the same rank

A

Find the mean of their total ranks

278
Q

What 3 things must be done in step 2 of spearmans ranks

A

Find the difference between each individual pair of ranks (d)
Square the difference for each pair (d²)
Calculate the sum of the squared differences ( sum of d²)

279
Q

What happens in stage 3 of spearmans rank to calculate rho

A

Input sum of d² into the given equation and complete the calculation to get rho

280
Q

What is the calculated value in spearmans

A

Rho

281
Q

How do you find the critical value in spearmans rho

A

Use critical value table
Find the type of tailed test you completed.
Go down the corresponding column for level of significance to the number that is in the row for the correct number of participants

282
Q

What must the calculated value be in comparison to the critical value in spearmans rho for the result to be significant

A

The calculated value must be greater than or equal to the critical value

283
Q

What happens to the null hypothesis in spearmans rho if the calculated value is greater than or equal to the critical value

A

It is rejected

284
Q

What type of data is a pearson’s test selected for

A

Interval level

285
Q

What is not an issue for selection for a persons test
Why

A

Design
Investigation is correlational rather than experimental

286
Q

Can a pearon’s test meet the criteria for a parametric test

A

Yes

287
Q

What are the 3 steps for a pearson’s test

A

Step 1: the table of data
Step 2: working out the value of r
Step 3: the calculated and critical values

288
Q

What 3 stages of calculations must be made in step 1: the table of data for a Pearsons test

A

Calculate the sum of the scores for X (sum of X) and Y (sum of Y)
Square each x value and each y value. Calculate the sum of X² and Y²
Multiply X and Y for each participant. Add these values together (sum of XY)

289
Q

What happens in stage 2: working out the value of r in pearson’s test

A

Input the calculated sum of X, sum of Y, sum of XY, sum of x² and sum of Y² into the given equation.
Solve the equation to get r.

290
Q

What is the calculated value in Pearsons

A

R

291
Q

What must be calculated before the critical value in Pearsons

A

Degrees of freedom

292
Q

How do you find the critical value in stage 3 in pearson’s

A

Use critical value table
Find the type of tailed test you completed.
Go down the corresponding column for level of significance to the number that is in the row for the correct degrees of freedom

293
Q

What must the calculated value be in comparison to the critical valence for a significant result in Pearsons test

A

Calculated value more than or equal to the critical value

294
Q

What happens to the null hypothesis is the calculated value is less than or equal to the critical value in pearson’s

A

It is accepted

295
Q

What is chi-squared a test of

A

Difference or association

296
Q

What data is in a chi-squared test
How is it recorded

A

Nominal
Recorded as a frequency count of categories

297
Q

What are the two types of groups and therefore design in a chi-squared test

A

Independent groups
Unrelated design

298
Q

What are the 4 steps in a chi-squared test

A

Step 1: A 2x2 contingency table
Step 2: the table of expected frequencies
Step 3: working out the value of x²
Step 4: the calculated and critical values

299
Q

What happens in step 1 of the chi-squared test

A

Draw a 2x2 table showing the data that was collected in each cell and calculate the totals for each row, column and an overall total

300
Q

What is an expected frequency in chi-squared

A

The frequency that would be expected if there was no difference between two groups

301
Q

What happens in step 2 of the chi-squared test

A

Expected frequencies (E) are calculated

302
Q

How does you calculate expected frequencies (E) in step 2 of chi-squared

A

Multiply the total for the row by the total for the column divided by the grand total for each cell.
(Total of row x total of column) / grand total.

303
Q

What does o stand for in the chi-squared test

A

Observed frequencies - numbers originally recorded

304
Q

What does E stand for in the chi-squared test

A

Expected frequencies

305
Q

Give the equation used in step 3 of the chi-squared test

A

X² = sum of (O-E²) / E

306
Q

What happens in step 3 of the chi-squared test

A

O and E are inserted into the equation and X² is calculated

307
Q

What is the calculated value for the chi-squared test

A

X²

308
Q

What must be calculated before finding the critical value in the chi-squared test

A

Degrees of freedom

309
Q

How do you find degrees of freedom for the chi-squared test

A

Looking at the 2x2 table
(Rows -1) x (columns -1) = Df

310
Q

How do you find the critical value in step 4 of the chi-squared test

A

Use critical value table
Find the type of tailed test you completed.
Go down the corresponding column for level of significance to the number that is in the row for the correct degrees of freedom

311
Q

What is the calculated value in comparison to the critical value in the chi-squared test for a significant result

A

Calculate value must be greater than or equal to critical value

312
Q

What happens to the hypothesis in the chi-squared test if the calculated value is greater than or equal to the critical value

A

It is rejected

313
Q

Which statistical tests require the calculation of degrees of freedom before finding critical value

A

Unrelated t-test
Related t-test
Pearson’s
Chi-squared

314
Q

What statistical test is a test of association

A

Chi-squared

315
Q

What statistical tests are test of correlation

A

Spearman’s and pearson’s

316
Q

What tests are parametric test
What other test can be parametric

A

Unrelated t-test
Related t-test

Pearsons

317
Q

What are two non-parametric test

A

Mann-Whitney
Wilcoxon

318
Q

What are the 6 sections of a scientific report in order

A

Abstract
Introduction
Method
Results
Discussion
References

319
Q

What is the first section called in a scientific report

A

Abstract

320
Q

Define abstract in terms of scientific reports

A

The key details of the research report including all the major elements.

321
Q

How many words is an abstract on average

A

150-200 words

322
Q

What is the second section of a scientific report

A

Introduction

323
Q

Define introduction in terms of scientific reports

A

A look at past research (theories and / or studies) on a similar topic.

324
Q

What type of progression should an introduction follow in scientific reports

A

Logical progression beginning broadly and gradually becoming more specific

325
Q

What two major things are presented in the introduction of a scientific report

A

Aims and hypotheses

326
Q

What is the 3rd section of a scientific report

A

The method

327
Q

Define the term method in terms of scientific report

A

A description of what the researcher(s) did, including design, sample, apparatus, procedure, ethics

328
Q

What 5 key things must a method include in a scientific report

A

Design
Sample
Apparatus
Procedure
Ethics

329
Q

What must a scientific report include in terms of design within a method

A

Design is clearly stated (e.g. independent groups, naturalistic observations etc.)
Reasons / justifications given for the choices made

330
Q

What must a scientific report include in terms of sample within a method
When might something not be included

A

Information related to the people involved in the study: how many, biographical/demographic information, the sampling method and target population.

Something might not be included if it compromises anonymity

331
Q

What must a scientific report include in terms of apparatus within a method

A

Detail of any assessment instrument used and other relevant materials

332
Q

What must a scientific report include in terms of procedure within a method

A

A ‘recipe-style’ list of everything that happened from beginning to end.
Includes everything said to participants - briefing, standardised instructions and debriefings

333
Q

What must a scientific report include in terms of ethics within a method

A

An explanation of how these were addressed within the study

334
Q

What is the 4th section in a scientific report

A

Results

335
Q

Define results in terms of scientific report

A

A description of what the researcher(s) did, including descriptive and inferential statistics

336
Q

What 5 things are likely to be included as descriptive statistics in the results section of a scientific report

A

Tables
Graphs
Charts
Measures of central tendency
Measures of dispersion

337
Q

What 5 things are likely to be included as inferential statistics in the results section of a scientific report

A

Statistical test
Calculated values
Critical value
Level of significance
Final outcome for hypothesis

338
Q

What statistics do graphs and tables come under in results of a scientific report

A

Descriptive statistics

339
Q

What statistics do statistical tests come under in results of a scientific report

A

Inferential statistics

340
Q

Where does any raw data that was collected and any calculations appear in a scientific report

A

The appendix

341
Q

What are results in a scientific report likely to include if a researcher has used qualitative methods

A

Analysis of themes and/or categories

342
Q

What is the 5th section in a scientific report

A

Discussions

343
Q

Define discussions in terms of a scientific report

A

A consideration of what the results of the research study tell us in terms of psychological theory

344
Q

What are the 3 things a researcher should discuss in the discussion section of a scientific report

A

Summaries results in verbal form, these should be discussed in the context of evidence presented in the introduction and other relevant research.

Discuss limitations of the investigation and suggestions on how to address them for future studies.

Discuss the wider implications of the research - may include real-world applications.

345
Q

What is the 6th and final stage of a scientific report

A

Referencing

346
Q

Define referencing in terms of a scientific report

A

List of courses that are referred to or quotes in the article (e.g. books, websites) and their full details

347
Q

What is the format for journal referencing in scientific reports

A

Author(s), date, articles title, journal name (in italics), volume (issue), page numbers

348
Q

What is the format for book referencing in scientific reports

A

Author(s), date, title of book (in italics), place of publication, publisher

349
Q

What is the format for website referencing in scientific reports

A

Source, date, title, weblink and date accessed

350
Q

Which philosopher suggested what distinguishes scientific disciplines from non scientific disciplines

A

Thomas Kuhn (1962)

351
Q

What did Kuhn suggest separated scientific disciplines from non-scientific disciplines

A

A Paradigm - A shared set of assumptions and methods

352
Q

Define Paradigm

A

A set of shared assumptions and agreed methods within a scientific discipline

353
Q

What did Kuhn suggest that social sciences including psychology lacked
What a re they therefore best seen as

A

They lacked a universally accepted paradigm
Best seen as ‘pre-science’ and as distinct from natural sciences like biology or physics

354
Q

What two things does psychology have that marks it as a ‘pre-science’ and prevents it from qualifying as a science

A

It is marked by too much internal disagreement and has too many conflicting approaches.

355
Q

According to Kuhn when does progress occur within an established science

A

When there is a scientific revolution

356
Q

What are the 3 stages of scientific revolution in terms of paradigm according to Kuhn

A

Researchers begin to question the accepted paradigm
This critique begins to gather popularity and pace
Eventually a paradigm shift occurs when there is too much contradictory to ignore

357
Q

Define paradigm shift

A

The result of a scientific revolution when there is a significant change in the dominant unifying theory within a scientific discipline.

358
Q

What did Kuhn site as an example of a paradigm shift

A

Newtonian paradigm in physics towards Einstein’s theory of relativity

359
Q

What is a theory

A

A set of general laws or principles that have the ability to explain particular events or behaviours.

360
Q

Define theory construction

A

The process of developing an explanation for the causes of behaviour by systematically gathering evidence and then organising this into a coherent account.

361
Q

What two word describe a principle that makes a good theory
What should a theory appear to reflect

A

Simple and economical principle that appears to reflect reality

362
Q

What is an essential component of a theory

A

It can be scientifically tested

363
Q

How many hypothesis should a theory suggest

A

A number of possible hypothesis

364
Q

What is the term given when hypothesis are tested using systematic and objective methods

A

Hypothesis testing

365
Q

Define hypothesis testing

A

A key feature of a theory is that it should produce statements which can then be tested. Only in this way can theory be falsified.

366
Q

What will systematic and objective testing of a hypothesis determine

A

Whether it will be supported or refuted.

367
Q

What is the name given to the process of deriving new hypothesis from existing theories

A

Deduction

368
Q

Who made a different argument to Kuhn about what the key criterion is for a scientific theory

A

Karl Popper (1934)

369
Q

What was it that Popper argued was the key criterion of a scientific theory

A

Falsifiability

370
Q

Define falsifiability

A

The principle that a theory cannot be considered scientific unless it admits the possibility of being proven untrue.

371
Q

What is Poppers theory of falsification

A

Even when a scientific principle had been successfully and repeatedly tested, it was not necessarily true.
It had not been proven false yet.

372
Q

What did Popper call the science that couldn’t be falsified

A

Pseudosciences

373
Q

What did popper suggest was the strongest theories

A

Those that has survived the most attempts to falsify them.

374
Q

What two impacts has poppers theory of falsification had on psychology - particularly in scientific reports

A

Psychologists avoid phrases like ‘this proves’ and use ‘this supports’ instead
Alternative hypothesis must always be accompanied by a null hypothesis which allows for falsifying the hypothesis.

375
Q

What is the name given to Poppers method of attempting to falsify theories to prove the strongest ones

A

Hypothetico-deductive method

376
Q

What is an important element of Popper’s hypothetico-deductive method

A

Replicability

377
Q

Define replicability

A

The extent to which scientific procedures and findings can be repeated by other researchers

378
Q

What did popper suggest about how replication can be used to assess something else

A

Replication can be used to assess validity
By repeating a study over a number of different contexts and circumstances then we can see the extent to which findings can be generalised.

379
Q

What must scientific researchers strive to maintain as part of their investigations

A

Objectivity

380
Q

Define objectivity

A

All sources of personal bias are minimised so as not to distort or influence the research process.

381
Q

What type of methods in psychology tend to be the most objective
Give an example

A

The methods associated with the greatest level of control
Lab experiements

382
Q

What method is objectivity the basis of

A

Empirical method

383
Q

Define empirical methods

A

Scientific approaches that are based on the gathering of evidence through direct observation and experiences.

384
Q

What are two good examples of the empirical method in psychology

A

Experimental and observational methods

385
Q

What did John Locke see knowledge as
What does this mean about theory

A

Determined only by experience and sensory perception
A theory cannot claim to be scientific unless it has been empirically tested and verified.

PAPER 2 - PSYCHOLOGY (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions