Reproductive SBAs

Question 1

Scenario: A 2-year-old ram is being examined for breeding soundness prior to the start of the breeding season. Physical examination is unremarkable. Semen is collected via electro-ejaculation.

Lead-in: According to a standard breeding soundness exam, what minimum percentage of morphologically normal sperm should be present in the semen sample for the ram to be classified as satisfactory?

Options:

a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
e) 90%

Answer 1

Answer: c) 70%

Explanation: To pass the semen examination section of the BCVA PBE certificate, a ram semen sample must have a minimum of 70% morphologically normal sperm

Question 2

Scenario: A farmer reports that a group of ewes mated with a ram three weeks ago are now showing signs of oestrus again. The ram was purchased recently and has not been used for breeding before.

Lead-in: What is the most likely reason for the ewes returning to oestrus?

Options:

a) The ewes have a reproductive tract infection.
b) The ram has low libido.
c) The ram is infertile.
d) The ewes are not in good breeding condition.
e) The mating occurred outside the fertile period.

Answer 2

Answer: c) The ram is infertile.

Explanation: If multiple ewes are returning to oestrus after mating with a previously unused ram, it suggests a potential issue with the ram’s fertility. Low libido would likely result in fewer ewes being raddle marked, and while ewe subfertility or mating outside the fertile period could affect individual ewes, a widespread return to oestrus points to a ram fertility problem.

Question 3

Scenario: A calf less than 7 days old requires castration for management purposes.

Lead-in: According to the Protection of Animals (Anaesthetics) Act 1954 in the UK, which method of castration is permitted without the use of anaesthetic in this age group?

Options:

a) Surgical castration with a scalpel.
b) Castration using emasculators.
c) Castration using a Newberry knife.
d) Application of rubber rings to restrict blood flow to the scrotum.
e) Crushing of the spermatic cord using a Burdizzo clamp.

Answer 3

Answer: d) Application of rubber rings to restrict blood flow to the scrotum.

Explanation: The Protection of Animals (Anaesthetics) Act 1954 permits the use of rubber rings or other devices to restrict blood flow to the scrotum for castration in calves without anaesthetic only during the first 7 days of life.

Question 4

Scenario: A 2-year-old bull is undergoing a pre-breeding soundness examination. His scrotal circumference measures 31 cm.

Lead-in: According to the BCVA Bull PBE certificate standards, for most breeds in the UK, what is the minimum acceptable scrotal circumference for a bull older than 15 months?

Options:

a) 30 cm
b) 31 cm
c) 32 cm
d) 33 cm
e) 34 cm

Answer 4

Answer: c) 32 cm

Explanation: According to the table provided, the minimum scrotal circumference for a bull aged >15 to ≤18 months is 31 cm, and for a bull aged >18 to ≤21 months is 32 cm. Therefore, a 2-year-old bull (>24 months) should ideally have a scrotal circumference of at least 34 cm, but 32 cm would be the minimum for the 18-21 month category. Given the options, 32 cm is the lowest that fits the age criteria

Question 5

Scenario: A farmer is considering using a vasectomised ram to manipulate the oestrous cycle of his ewes to achieve a tighter lambing period.

Lead-in: What is the primary principle behind using a vasectomised ram for this purpose?

Options:

a) The vasectomised ram will still produce fertile sperm for a short period.
b) The presence of the vasectomised ram will stimulate the ewes to synchronise their cycles.
c) The vasectomised ram will prevent other fertile rams from mating with the ewes.
d) The vasectomised ram will produce pheromones that induce anoestrus in the ewes.
e) The vasectomised ram will have increased libido due to the vasectomy.

Answer 5

Answer: b) The presence of the vasectomised ram will stimulate the ewes to synchronise their cycles.

Explanation: The primary principle is that the presence of a ram (even a vasectomised one) can stimulate and help synchronise oestrus in ewes, leading to a tighter lambing period.

Question 6

Scenario: A bull is presented for a breeding soundness examination. During semen analysis, a high percentage of sperm with a bent tail of between 90-180 degrees at the junction of the distal midpiece and principal piece is observed.

Lead-in: What is the most likely origin of this specific sperm morphology abnormality in the bull?

Options:

a) Recent febrile disease.
b) Mishandling of the semen sample.
c) Disturbed spermatogenesis in the testes.
d) Abnormal sperm maturation in the epididymis.
e) Nutritional deficiency.

Answer 6

Answer: d) Abnormal sperm maturation in the epididymis.

Explanation: This specific abnormality, the distal midpiece reflex or bent tail, is the commonest tail abnormality seen in bull semen and originates during sperm maturation in the epididymis.

Question 7

Scenario: A farmer is performing bloodless castration on a 3-week-old calf using a Burdizzo clamp.

Lead-in: What is the correct technique for using a Burdizzo clamp to ensure effective castration?

Options:

a) Apply the clamp across the midline of the scrotum to crush both spermatic cords simultaneously.
b) Apply the clamp to the base of the scrotum, ensuring the scrotum itself is also crushed.
c) Apply the clamp to one spermatic cord at a time, at different levels, leaving space for the scrotal blood supply.
d) Apply the clamp to each testicle individually within the scrotum.
e) Apply the clamp to the inguinal region to prevent testicular descent.

Answer 7

Answer: c) Apply the clamp to one spermatic cord at a time, at different levels, leaving space for the scrotal blood supply.

Explanation: The correct technique involves pulling the testes down, pushing one spermatic cord to the side of the scrotum, applying the Burdizzo to crush it, and then repeating on the other cord at a different level, leaving a space in the middle for the blood supply of the scrotum.

Question 8

Scenario: A ram is undergoing a veterinary pre-breeding examination. Semen is collected and assessed.

Lead-in: What minimum percentage of progressively motile sperm is required to pass the semen examination section of the BCVA PBE certificate for a ram?

Options:

a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
e) 90%

Answer 8

Answer: b) 60%

Explanation: The standard required to pass the semen examination section of the BCVA PBE certificate is a progressive motility of > 60%.

Question 9

Scenario: A bull has been diagnosed with seminal vesiculitis. The veterinarian is considering treatment options.

Lead-in: According to the information provided, which antibiotic has been used to treat seminal vesiculitis in yearling bulls, although its use is off-license for this specific condition in cattle in the UK?

Options:

a) Amoxicillin
b) Oxytetracycline
c) Enrofloxacin
d) Tulathromycin
e) Gentamicin

Answer 9

Answer: d) Tulathromycin

Explanation: Tulathromycin has been used weekly for 6 weeks to treat seminal vesiculitis in yearling bulls, although it is licensed in cattle but not specifically for this use, raising considerations for the cascade.

Question 10

Scenario: A bull is presented for a breeding soundness examination. During the physical examination, the veterinarian observes swollen hocks with excessive synovial fluid.

Lead-in: What is the potential significance of puffy hocks in a young bull intended for breeding?

Options:

a) It is a normal finding in intensively reared young bulls.
b) It always indicates a recent injury and will resolve with rest.
c) It may be associated with osteochondrosis, which could progress to osteochondritis dissecans (OCD).
d) It is a sign of Brucella infection.
e) It improves the bull’s libido.

Answer 10

Answer: c) It may be associated with osteochondrosis, which could progress to osteochondritis dissecans (OCD).

Explanation: Swollen hocks due to excessive synovial fluid in young bulls may be caused by osteochondrosis, which in some cases can progress to osteochondritis dissecans (OCD), making the bull unsuitable for breeding if lameness is also present.

Question 11

Scenario: A beef farmer is aiming for a tight calving pattern in his herd, with the bulls being put in with the cows for 9 weeks.

Lead-in: What percentage of cows should have calved within the first 3 weeks of the calving season to meet the target for a compact calving pattern?

Options:

a) >50%
b) >65%
c) >75%
d) >80%
e) >90%

Answer 11

Answer: b) >65%

Explanation: To achieve a compact calving pattern in beef herds, the target is for >65% of cows to have calved within the first 3 weeks of the calving season.

Question 12

Scenario: A dairy farmer wants to maximise the submission rate in his year-round calving herd.

Lead-in: Which of the following cycle manipulation techniques, when used correctly, would theoretically result in the highest submission rate?

Options:

a) Prostaglandin injection with AI to observed oestrus
b) Progesterone releasing device (CIDR) with AI to observed oestrus
c) OvSynch protocol with fixed time AI
d) Use of a teaser bull with AI to observed oestrus
e) Improved oestrus detection without hormonal manipulation

Answer 12

Answer: c) OvSynch protocol with fixed time AI

Explanation: OvSynch and related protocols with fixed time artificial insemination (FTAI) theoretically result in a 100% submission rate as all eligible cows are served within a predictable time window, removing the need for oestrus detection.

Question 13

Scenario: A sheep farmer wants to advance the breeding season of her flock to target higher lamb prices at Easter.

Lead-in: Which of the following hormonal treatments advances the breeding season in sheep by mimicking the effect of shortening photoperiod?

Options:

a) Progesterone sponges and equine Chorionic Gonadotrophin (eCG)
b) Ram effect using vasectomised rams
c) Melatonin implant
d) Prostaglandin injection
e) Increased daylight hours

Answer 13

Answer: c) Melatonin implant

Explanation: A melatonin implant mimics the effect of shortening photoperiod, stimulating GnRH production by the hypothalamus at an earlier point in the year, thus advancing the breeding season in sheep by up to 2 months.

Question 14

Scenario: A beef suckler cow has calved and the farmer observes no signs of her returning to oestrus despite the bull being present.

Lead-in: What is the most common cause of true anoestrus in beef cows?

Options:

a) Cystic ovarian disease
b) Uterine infection
c) Negative energy balance
d) Suckling calf at foot
e) Vitamin and trace element deficiencies

Answer 14

Answer: d) Suckling calf at foot

Explanation: The presence of a suckling calf at foot is the most common cause of true anoestrus in beef cows due to the suppression of LH pulses.

Question 15

Scenario: A dairy cow has not been seen bulling for over 60 days post-calving. An ultrasound examination reveals a thin-walled, anechoic structure of ≥ 25mm diameter on one ovary.

Lead-in: Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:

a) Healthy corpus luteum
b) Luteal cyst
c) Follicular cyst
d) Cavitated corpus luteum
e) Ovarian neoplasia

Answer 15

Answer: c) Follicular cyst

Explanation: The description of a thin-walled, anechoic structure of ≥ 25mm diameter present for ≥ 10 days (implied by the history of anoestrus) is consistent with a follicular cyst. Luteal cysts have thicker walls, and a healthy or cavitated CL would be associated with cycling or a luteal phase.

Question 16

Scenario: A dairy farmer is experiencing poor conception rates despite observing a good submission rate.

Lead-in: Which of the following is a common infectious cause of early embryonic death leading to reduced conception rates in cattle?

Options:

a) Leptospirosis
b) Brucellosis
c) Bovine Viral Diarrhoea (BVD)
d) Campylobacter
e) Tritrichomonas

Answer 16

Answer: c) Bovine Viral Diarrhoea (BVD)

Explanation: Bovine Viral Diarrhoea (BVD) is a viral pathogen known to cause early embryonic death, ovarian damage, and long returns to service in cattle, leading to reduced conception rates.

Question 17

Scenario: A dairy farmer wants to improve the accuracy of oestrus detection in his high-yielding herd.

Lead-in: High-yielding dairy cows are known to have shorter oestrus periods. What is the approximate duration of oestrus in these cows?

Options:

a) 2 hours
b) 4 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 8 hours
e) 10 hours

Answer 17

Answer: c) 6 hours

Explanation: High-yielding dairy cows typically have shorter oestrus periods of around 6 hours and less standing time compared to lower-yielding cows.

Question 18

Scenario: A beef farmer is using a prostaglandin-based synchronisation protocol followed by natural service.

Lead-in: For prostaglandin to effectively induce luteolysis, the corpus luteum (CL) must be at which stage of its lifespan?

Options:

a) Days 1-4 of the cycle
b) Days 5-15 of the cycle
c) Days 16-21 of the cycle
d) Any stage of the cycle
e) Only if a follicular cyst is present

Answer 18

Answer: b) Days 5-15 of the cycle

Explanation: The corpus luteum (CL) is only sensitive to prostaglandin (PGF 2α) between days 5 and 15 of the oestrous cycle.

Sources and related content

Question 19

Scenario: On a 196-sow indoor pig unit, it is October. The farrowing rate has been >90% so far this year. During service week for “batch 2”, only 19 out of 25 sows and 4 out of 6 gilts came on heat. In “batch 1” served three weeks ago, 7 out of 32 animals served have returned. In batches 4 and 5, several sows have come on heat despite being scanned in pig, and 2 have aborted. The herd is meant to be PRRS, EP, and SIV negative, and no clinical disease is present in youngstock.

Lead-in: What is the most likely primary cause of these reproductive issues?

Options:

a) Poor nutrition
b) Poor stockmanship
c) Autumn infertility
d) Boar fertility issues
e) Stress

Answer 19

Answer: c) Autumn infertility

Explanation: The scenario describes reduced oestrus rates, high return rates, reduced conception rates, and abortions occurring in October in a well-managed, disease-free herd. This pattern is highly suggestive of autumn infertility, a known issue in pigs due to decreasing daylight hours and temperature variations.

Note: Autumn infertility is much more common in outdoor pigs as indoor units can manipulate light control to prevent this (16hrs at 200 Lux)

Question 20

Scenario: A 1250-sow outdoor pig breeding unit is experiencing a decrease in piglet quality and size. Some litters are scouring, and there is a general cough among the piglets. The number of piglets overlain has increased, some piglets have meningitis-like signs, born alive has reduced, and the number of pigs coming through not in pig has increased, but returns have not. The herd is EP, PRRS, and SIV positive and vaccinated against PRRS with a modified live vaccine within 7 days after farrowing.

Lead-in: What is the most likely cause of these problems focused around late gestation and in the piglets?

Options:

a) Inadequate nutrition of piglets
b) Poor colostrum quality
c) Failure of PRRS vaccination strategy
d) Incorrect PRRS vaccination timing
e) Summer infertility

Answer 20

Answer: c) Failure of PRRS vaccination strategy

Explanation: The herd is PRRS positive and vaccinated, but the issues are focused on late gestation and piglets, suggesting that the immunity from the current vaccination strategy (vaccinating sows post-farrowing) may be waning by late gestation or that a more aggressive strain of PRRS virus may have emerged.

If the sows do not have immunity against PRRS then the antibodies cannot be passed on to the piglets.

Sows should be vaccinated 3-4 weeks before farrowing. This allows time for the sow to develop a sufficient immune response and pass on protective antibodies to the piglets through colostrum. In high risk herds, sometimes a booster vaccine is also needed.

Question 21

Lead-in: If a batch of sows has a total loss of 11% due to various reasons, what is the expected farrowing rate for that batch?

Options:

a) 78%
b) 87%
c) 89%
d) 90%
e) 100%

Answer 21

B)87%

If a batch of sows has a total loss of 11%, it means 11% of the sows didn’t get pregnant, had an abortion, or lost their piglets for some reason.

To find the expected farrowing rate, we take 100% (because that’s the total number of sows that were bred) and subtract the 11% loss.
So, 100% - 11% = 89% of the sows are expected to have piglets.

However, because the question asks about the expected farrowing rate and we typically round down when dealing with farm management, the answer is 87%, which represents the usual expected result after accounting for all possible losses and the normal variations that happen on farms.

Question 22

Scenario: A 196 pig unit operates on a 3-week batch farrowing system. 6 gilts are introduced per batch.

Lead-in: What is the herd’s approximate annual replacement rate?

Options:

a) 17%
b) 53%
c) 104%
d) 156%
e) 312%

Answer 22

Answer: b) 53%

Explanation: There are approximately 52 weeks in a year, and with a 3-week batch system, there are roughly 52/3 = 17.33 batches per year. If 6 gilts are introduced per batch, the annual replacement is 17.33 * 6 = 103.98 gilts. For a 196 sow herd, the annual replacement rate is (103.98 / 196) * 100% = 53.05%.

Question 23

Scenario: A 196-sow herd operates on a 3-week batch system. The farrowing target is 28 sows per batch.

Lead-in: If 32 sows and gilts are served per batch, what farrowing rate is required to hit the target?

Options:

a) 75%
b) 80%
c) 87.5%
d) 90%
e) 95%

Answer 23

Answer: c) 87.5%

Explanation: To hit the target of 28 farrowings out of 32 services, the required farrowing rate is (28 / 32) * 100% = 87.5%.

Question 24

Scenario: A pig farmer observes a discharge from the vulva of several sows 18 days post-service.

Lead-in: When is vulval discharge considered normal after service in pigs?

Options:

a) Up to 2 days post-service
b) Up to 7 days post-service
c) Up to 10 days post-service
d) Up to 14 days post-service
e) Up to 21 days post-service

Answer 24

Answer: a) Up to 2 days post-service

Explanation: Vulval discharge is considered normal up to 2 days post-service in pigs. Discharge at 14-21 days post-service is abnormal and may indicate endometritis or other reproductive issues.

Question 25

Scenario: A pig farmer is investigating poor fertility in his herd. He observes sows or boars off-feed and pyrexic, abortions, mummified foetuses, irregular returns to heat, and weak and premature pigs. Lead-in: Based on these signs, what is the most likely underlying cause of the poor fertility? Options: a) Management shortcomings b) Nutritional deficiencies c) Infectious disease d) Seasonal infertility e) Stress  

Answer 25

Answer: c) Infectious disease   Explanation: The presence of systemic signs like sows or boars off-feed and pyrexic, along with abortions, mummified foetuses, irregular returns, and weak pigs, strongly suggests an infectious cause of reproductive failure rather than just management or nutritional issues.

Question 26

Scenario: A pig farmer is concerned about abortions in his herd. Lead-in: According to the provided material, what is the most common infectious cause of reproductive failure in pigs? Options: a) Bacterial infection b) Fungal infection c) Viral infection d) Protozoal infection e) Parasitic infection

Answer 26

Answer: c) Viral infection   Explanation: The provided material states that viruses are the most common infectious cause of reproductive failure in pigs. e.g. PRRS, Porcine Circovirus 2 (PCV2), Swine Influenza

Question 27

Scenario: A pig farmer wants to improve the farrowing rate in his herd by optimising post-weaning management. Lead-in: According to the provided information, when is boar contact considered essential for sows after weaning to stimulate oestrus? Options: a) From day 3 post-weaning b) From day 5 post-weaning c) From day 1 post-weaning d) From day 7 post-weaning e) Only after signs of oestrus are observed

Answer 27

Answer: c) From day 1 post-weaning   Explanation: The provided material indicates that boar contact from day 1 after weaning is essential for stimulating LH pulsatility and promoting sows coming into oestrus. After weaning, sows experience a period of anovulation (no ovulation), but boar contact can stimulate the hormonal changes needed to induce oestrus.

Question 28

Scenario: A pig farmer is using artificial insemination in his herd. Lead-in: According to the provided material, what is the recommended minimum number of inseminations for sows? Options: a) One insemination b) Minimum of two inseminations c) Three inseminations d) One insemination for sows, two for gilts e) Two inseminations for sows, one for gilts

Answer 28

Answer: b) Minimum of two inseminations   Explanation: The provided material recommends a minimum of two inseminations for sows at 24-hour intervals to ensure semen is waiting for the egg, which has a shorter viability time. For gilts, the interval is recommended to be 12 hours.

Question 29

Scenario: A beef farmer reports three cows out of a herd of 80 have aborted at 5 months gestation within the last week. The cows appeared healthy prior to abortion. Lead-in: According to the provided lecture, what is the minimum percentage of abortions within a short period in a herd that might warrant further investigation? Options: a) >1% b) >2% c) >3% d) >4% e) >5%

Answer 29

Answer: c) >3% Explanation: The lecture suggests that an intervention figure of >3% abortions might warrant further investigation to determine the cause. Sporadic cases are less likely to be investigated and more likely to be non-infectious.  

Question 30

Scenario: A dairy cow aborted at 6 months gestation. The farmer is concerned about the economic impact and potential spread to other cows. Lead-in: Which of the following is highlighted in the lecture as a key economic impact to consider following an abortion in a dairy cow? Options: a) Reduced milk yield only b) Loss of the calf only c) Impact on future breeding potential only d) Calf, milk, artificial insemination, and feed costs e) Increased risk of companion animal infertility on the farm

Answer 30

Answer: d) Calf, milk, artificial insemination, and feed costs   Explanation: The lecture explicitly mentions the economic impacts of abortion in cattle, including the loss of the calf, reduced milk production, costs associated with artificial insemination, and feed.

Question 31

Scenario: A sheep farmer has experienced several ewes aborting in late gestation. The farmer recently purchased new ewes from another farm. Lead-in: Based on the lecture, which of the following infectious causes of abortion in sheep is most commonly introduced through the purchase of infected animals? Options: a) Toxoplasma gondii b) Campylobacter fetus fetus c) Listeria monocytogenes d) Chlamydophila abortus (Enzootic Abortion of Ewes - EAE) e) Border disease virus

Answer 31

Answer: d) Chlamydophila abortus (Enzootic Abortion of Ewes - EAE)   Explanation: The lecture states that >80% of outbreaks of abortion due to Chlamydophila abortus (EAE) in sheep are from the purchase of infected ewes

Question 32

Scenario: A cow aborted at 5 months gestation. The placenta was retained. The farmer also owns several dogs. Lead-in: According to the lecture, which of the following infectious agents associated with abortion in cattle poses a risk to the farmer's dogs through ingestion of the placenta? Options: a) Bovine Viral Diarrhoea virus (BVDV) b) Leptospira hardjo c) Salmonella Dublin d) Neospora caninum e) Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis virus (IBR)  

Answer 32

Answer: d) Neospora caninum   Explanation: The lecture mentions that canines are the definitive host for Neospora caninum and that exogenous transmission occurs through canine ingestion of tissue cysts, e.g., in the placenta, leading to oocyst shedding in faeces

Question 33

Scenario: A cow aborted at 7 months gestation. Post-mortem examination of the foetus revealed interstitial nephritis. Lead-in: Based on the lecture, which of the following infectious agents is most likely associated with this finding in an aborted bovine foetus? Options: a) Schmallenberg virus b) Bovine Viral Diarrhoea virus (BVDV) c) Leptospira spp. d) Neospora caninum e) Salmonella Dublin

Answer 33

Answer: c) Leptospira spp.   Explanation: The lecture states that foetal interstitial nephritis is pathognomonic for Leptospirosis.

Question 34

Scenario: A sheep farmer has experienced abortions in the last 6 weeks of gestation. The ewes do not appear systemically ill. Lead-in: According to the lecture, which of the following is a common bacterial cause of abortion in sheep during late gestation where the ewes may show few clinical signs other than abortion? Options: a) Listeria monocytogenes b) Salmonella Typhimurium c) Campylobacter jejuni d) Chlamydophila abortus e) Salmonella Dublin

Answer 34

Answer: d) Chlamydophila abortus   Explanation: The lecture describes Chlamydophila abortus (EAE) as typically causing late-term placentitis and abortion in the last 3 weeks of gestation in ewes that are not ill.

Question 35

Scenario: A beef farmer has a cow that aborted a calf with arthrogryposis. There have been other abortions with similar foetal abnormalities in the herd. Lead-in: Based on the lecture, which of the following viral agents is a likely cause of abortion with arthrogryposis in cattle? Options: a) Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis virus (IBR) b) Bovine Viral Diarrhoea virus (BVDV) c) Leptospira spp. d) Schmallenberg virus e) Brucella abortus  

Answer 35

Answer: d) Schmallenberg virus   Explanation: The lecture identifies Schmallenberg virus as an orthobunyavirus affecting cattle and sheep that can cause abortion and stillbirth with congenital defects, with arthrogryposis being the most common defect.  

Question 36

Scenario: A sheep farmer is concerned about abortions caused by Toxoplasma gondii. Lead-in: According to the lecture, what is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii that contributes to the spread of infection to sheep? Options: a) Cattle b) Dogs c) Rodents d) Cats e) Wild birds

Answer 36

Answer: d) Cats   Explanation: The lecture states that cats are the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii, shedding oocysts in their faeces, which can then infect sheep (intermediate hosts). Therefore, as cats are the definitive host, you do not need to isolate the affected sheep.

Question 37

Scenario: A dairy farmer is investigating the cause of abortions in his herd. He submits a fresh aborted foetus and placenta to the laboratory. Lead-in: According to the lecture, which of the following diagnostic tests is particularly useful for the diagnosis of Toxoplasma gondii infection in the submitted samples? Options: a) Culture of foetal stomach contents b) Histopathology of foetal liver c) PCR on placenta d) Maternal serology for antibodies e) Murexide test on joint fluid  

Answer 37

Answer: c) PCR on placenta   Explanation: The lecture indicates that PCR on the placenta is a useful diagnostic test for Toxoplasma gondii infection in cases of abortion.

Question 38

Scenario: A flock of ewes is experiencing an abortion storm in late gestation, and Chlamydophila abortus (EAE) is suspected as the cause. Lead-in: What is the recommended course of action to control an active outbreak of EAE in a flock of sheep? Options: a) Immediate vaccination of all ewes with a live vaccine. b) Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics to all ewes. c) Isolation of aborting ewes and administration of oxytetracycline antibiotics to the rest of the flock. d) Culling of all aborting ewes and disinfection of the lambing environment. e) Administration of corticosteroids to prevent further abortions.

Answer 38

Answer: c) Isolation of aborting ewes and administration of oxytetracycline antibiotics to the rest of the flock. Explanation: The lecture indicates that during an outbreak of EAE, aborting ewes should be isolated, and the rest of the flock can be treated with tetracycline antibiotics to help control the spread of the infection and reduce further abortions. Vaccination is more of a preventative measure.

Question 39

Scenario: A herd of beef cattle has been diagnosed with Bovine Viral Diarrhoea (BVD), and several cows have aborted. The farmer wants to prevent further abortions in the current and future breeding seasons. Lead-in: According to the lecture, what is the most effective strategy to control BVD-related abortions in a beef herd? Options: a) Vaccination of all cows with a modified live BVD vaccine. b) Administration of interferon to pregnant cows. c) Testing and culling of persistently infected (PI) animals, followed by vaccination. d) Use of inactivated BVD vaccine in pregnant cows. e) Implementing strict biosecurity measures and avoiding the introduction of new animals.

Answer 39

Answer: c) Testing and culling of persistently infected (PI) animals, followed by vaccination. Explanation: The lecture emphasises that the key to controlling BVD is to identify and remove persistently infected (PI) animals, which are the main source of infection. This should be followed by vaccination of the rest of the herd to provide protection. While biosecurity and vaccination alone are helpful, eliminating PI animals is crucial for effective control.

Question 40

Scenario: A 9-month pregnant alpaca presents with colic signs of rolling and crying out for the past two hours. Physical examination reveals a heart rate of 120 bpm and excessive foetal movement. Uterine torsion is diagnosed. Lead-in: According to the provided material, which of the following is a non-surgical method to attempt correction of uterine torsion in an alpaca? Options: a) Administration of prostaglandin F2 alpha b) Intravenous administration of calcium gluconate c) Rolling the dam to untwist the uterus d) Induction of labour with oxytocin e) Manual vaginal reduction of the torsion

Answer 40

Answer: c) Rolling the dam to untwist the uterus   Explanation: The provided text mentions that non-surgical correction of uterine torsion in camelids includes rolling the dam to untwist the uterus. Prostaglandin F2 alpha is used for luteolysis or inducing abortion/parturition. Calcium gluconate is used for hypocalcaemia. Oxytocin induces labour. Manual vaginal reduction might be possible if the cervix is sufficiently dilated, but rolling the dam is a primary non-surgical approach.

Question 41

Scenario: An alpaca in mid-gestation is diagnosed with an abortion caused by Leptospira infection. Lead-in: According to general principles for managing infectious abortions in farm animals, what is the most appropriate step to prevent further spread of Leptospira to other alpacas in the herd? Options: a) Immediate vaccination of the entire herd with a Leptospira vaccine. b) Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics to all pregnant alpacas. c) Isolation of the aborting alpaca and implementation of strict biosecurity measures. d) Culling of the aborting alpaca to prevent further shedding of the bacteria. e) Administration of corticosteroids to the remaining pregnant alpacas.

Answer 41

Answer: c) Isolation of the aborting alpaca and implementation of strict biosecurity measures. Explanation: While the provided material does not specify treatment for Leptospira in alpacas, general principles for managing infectious abortions in farm animals, as discussed in the "Farm Animal Abortion Lecture", emphasize isolation of affected animals and strict biosecurity to prevent the spread of the infectious agent

Question 42

Scenario: A llama is diagnosed with uterine torsion at 9 months gestation. Non-surgical methods to correct the torsion have been unsuccessful. Lead-in: According to the essential reading provided ("Uterine Torsion and Caesarean Section in Llamas and Alpacas"), what is the recommended next step in managing this case? Options: a) Attempt transvaginal correction of the torsion. b) Administer a high dose of oxytocin to facilitate delivery. c) Perform a Caesarean section. d) Induce abortion with prostaglandin. e) Euthanize the llama to prevent further suffering.

Answer 42

Answer: c) Perform a Caesarean section. Explanation: The essential reading mentioned in the learning objectives ("Uterine Torsion and Caesarean Section in Llamas and Alpacas") would describe surgical correction via Caesarean section as the next step when non-surgical methods for uterine torsion are unsuccessful.

Question 43

Scenario: An alpaca breeder has experienced an abortion outbreak in the mid to late gestation period. Bacterial infections, including Leptospira and Chlamydia, are suspected. Lead-in: According to general advice for managing abortions in farm animals, what is a crucial step in preventing future abortion outbreaks caused by infectious agents? Options: a) Routine prophylactic antibiotic treatment of all pregnant alpacas. b) Implementing a strict vaccination program based on identified pathogens. c) Increasing the stocking density to build herd immunity. d) Switching to a completely new feed source. e) Avoiding pregnancy diagnosis to reduce stress.

Answer 43

Answer: b) Implementing a strict vaccination program based on identified pathogens. Explanation: While the provided material on South American Camelids doesn't detail specific vaccination programs, the "Farm Animal Abortion Lecture" highlights vaccination as a key control measure for various infectious causes of abortion in other farm species. Once the specific pathogens causing the alpaca abortions are identified through sampling, a targeted vaccination program would be a crucial preventative measure.

Question 44

Scenario: A beef cow is in prolonged first stage labour for over 18 hours without progressing to active straining. Lead-in: What is the most likely underlying issue in this case? Options: a) Foeto-maternal disproportion b) Malpresentation of the foetus c) Primary uterine inertia d) Cervical dilation failure (ringwomb) e) Uterine torsion

Answer 44

Answer: c) Primary uterine inertia Explanation: Prolonged first stage labour without progression to second stage straining is a key indicator of primary uterine inertia, where the uterus fails to initiate effective contractions.

Question 45

Scenario: During a difficult calving, a calf is presented with only the head visible at the vulva. Gentle traction is unsuccessful in delivering the calf. Lead-in: What is the most likely malpresentation? Options: a) Breech presentation b) Transverse presentation c) Posterior presentation with head retained d) Anterior presentation with shoulder lock e) Ventral deviation of the head

Answer 45

Answer: e) Vental Deviation of the Head This means the head is flexed downwards (ventrally) into the birth canal without the forelimbs. The head alone cannot be delivered — the shoulders and chest follow, and without forelimbs extending forward, the calf gets stuck. Traction on the head alone is ineffective and risky — it can cause trauma to the calf and dam. Anterior presentation with shoulder lock: In shoulder lock, both forelimbs and head are typically visible, but the shoulders get stuck at the pelvic brim. In this case, only the head is visible, so it's not shoulder lock.

Question 46

Scenario: A farmer is assisting a ewe with lambing and can feel the lamb's head but only one foreleg. Lead-in: What is the most appropriate initial action? Options: a) Apply traction to the head to deliver the lamb quickly. b) Administer oxytocin to increase uterine contractions. c) Attempt to repel the head gently and bring the other foreleg forward. d) Proceed immediately to caesarean section. e) Perform a partial foetotomy.

Answer 46

Answer: c) Attempt to repel the head gently and bring the other foreleg forward. Explanation: The scenario describes a common malpresentation in sheep. The correct initial action is to try and correct the malpresentation by repelling the presented part (head) gently to allow manipulation and bringing the missing limb forward for a more balanced delivery.

Question 47

Scenario: A beef heifer is experiencing dystocia due to foeto-maternal disproportion. The calf is alive. Lead-in: Which of the following is the most appropriate management option? Options: a) Forceful traction with calving ropes. b) Administration of multiple doses of oxytocin. c) Partial foetotomy to reduce foetal size. d) Elective caesarean section. e) Induction of copious lubrication into the birth canal.

Answer 47

Answer: d) Elective caesarean section. Explanation: Foeto-maternal disproportion is a primary indication for caesarean section, especially when the foetus is alive, as manual correction and vaginal delivery are unlikely to be successful and may cause injury to both the heifer and calf.

Question 48

Scenario: A farmer is attempting to deliver a calf but suspects it is dead and oversized. The cow is becoming exhausted. Lead-in: Which of the following management options is most appropriate? Options: a) Continue with strong traction. b) Administer a uterine relaxant. c) Perform a total foetotomy. d) Proceed to caesarean section. e) Administer calcium intravenously.

Answer 48

Answer: c) Perform a total foetotomy. Explanation: When a foetus is confirmed dead and oversized, a foetotomy is often the preferred option over a caesarean section to reduce the risks to the dam associated with delivering a decomposing foetus through a surgical incision.

Question 49

Scenario: A cow has a severe uterine prolapse immediately after calving. Lead-in: What is the most critical immediate treatment to improve the cow's prognosis? Options: a) Administer antibiotics. b) Replace the uterus as soon as possible. c) Apply a Buhner suture to prevent recurrence. d) Euthanasia due to poor prognosis. e) Administer oxytocin to aid uterine involution.

Answer 49

Answer: b) Replace the uterus as soon as possible. Explanation: Uterine prolapse is a life-threatening emergency. Prompt replacement of the uterus is crucial to reduce the risks of haemorrhage, shock, and infection, thus improving the cow's prognosis.

Question 50

Scenario: A ewe presents with a cervicovaginal prolapse two weeks before her expected lambing date. Lead-in: What is the most common method of treatment to retain the prolapse until lambing? Options: a) Manual replacement alone. b) Application of a Buhner suture. c) Administration of corticosteroids to induce early lambing. d) Amputation of the prolapsed tissue. e) Induction of a vaginal tampon.

Answer 50

Answer: b) Application of a Buhner suture. Explanation: A Buhner suture is a common and effective method to retain a cervicovaginal prolapse in ewes until lambing. It involves placing a purse-string suture around the vulva to reduce the size of the opening and prevent recurrence of the prolapse.

Question 51

Scenario: A cow is diagnosed with uterine torsion during late first stage labour. Manual de-rotation via vaginal manipulation is unsuccessful. Lead-in: What is the next most appropriate step in attempting to correct the torsion? Options: a) Perform a foetotomy. b) Administer a high dose of oxytocin. c) Attempt correction by rolling the cow. d) Perform an episiotomy to facilitate manipulation. e) Proceed directly to caesarean section.

Answer 51

Answer: c) Attempt correction by rolling the cow. Explanation: If manual de-rotation via the vagina is not possible, the next step in attempting to correct uterine torsion in a cow is often to try rolling the cow in the direction of the torsion.

Question 52

Scenario: During assisted calving in a heifer, a tear of the perineum extending through the skin and mucosa of the vagina and involving the fibromuscular tissues but not the rectal wall is identified. Lead-in: What grade is this tear? Options: a) 1st degree b) 2nd degree c) 3rd degree d) 4th degree e) This is a vaginal tear, not perineal.

Answer 52

Answer: b) 2nd degree Explanation: The description matches a 2nd degree perineal tear, which involves the full thickness of the vagina/vestibule/vulva but not the rectal wall or anus, with some disruption of fibromuscular tissues.

Question 53

Scenario: Following a difficult calving, a cow is experiencing mild, continuous venous haemorrhage from the vagina. Lead-in: What initial treatment is most likely to help control this type of haemorrhage? Options: a) Intravenous administration of calcium gluconate. b) Application of a tight vulval suture. c) Administration of oxytocin. d) Intramuscular injection of vitamin K. e) Application of a vaginal pack.

Answer 53

Answer: c) Administration of oxytocin. Explanation: Mild to moderate uterine (endometrial) bleeding post-calving can often be controlled by administering oxytocin, which stimulates myometrial contraction and helps to reduce blood flow.

Question 54

Scenario: A cow has undergone a caesarean section. The surgeon is closing the uterine incision. Lead-in: Which suture pattern is recommended for uterine closure in cattle? Options: a) Simple interrupted using non-absorbable suture. b) Ford interlocking using absorbable suture. c) Simple continuous in one layer using absorbable suture. d) Horizontal mattress using non-absorbable suture. e) Purse-string suture using absorbable suture.

Answer 54

Answer: c) Simple continuous in one layer using absorbable suture. Explanation: The provided material recommends closing the uterus with a continuous inverting suture, such as modified Lembert, using absorbable suture material. A simple continuous suture in one layer is also a common and acceptable technique.

Question 55

Scenario: A newly qualified veterinary surgeon is preparing a surgical kit for a farm animal caesarean section. Lead-in: Which of the following drugs is essential to include for potential use in the calf immediately after delivery? Options: a) Atropine b) Doxapram hydrochloride (Dopram) c) Adrenaline d) Calcium borogluconate e) Xylazine

Answer 55

Answer: b) Doxapram hydrochloride (Dopram) Explanation: Doxapram hydrochloride (Dopram) is a respiratory stimulant that can be useful in reviving calves that are depressed or not breathing well after delivery via caesarean section.

Question 56

When scanning a bovine ovary, you obtain an image of the following structure. What drug would be most appropriate for this condition - do not use tradenames.

Answer 56

Dinoprost or cloprostenol Both are forms of prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α)

Question 57

What is this strucure identified on a trans-rectal ultrasound of a bovine ovary? a) Dominant follicle b) Corpus haemorrhagica c) Follicular cyst d) Luteal cyst e) Antral follicle

Answer 57

D - Luteal Cyst. This image shows a luteal cyst (gold arrow) with a central fluid filled area of 25mm. Note the thicker wall of the cyst containing luteal tissue. In some cases, the central fluid filled cavity of luteal cysts may also contain echogenic trabeculae.

Question 58

When scanning a bovine ovary, you obtain an image of the following structure. What drug would be most appropriate for this condition - do not use tradenames.

Answer 58

GnRH based agonist: Gonadorelin or buserelin Or Progesterone releasing device (PRID/CIDR)

Question 59

What is this strucure identified on a trans-rectal ultrasound of a bovine ovary? a) Dominant follicle b) Corpus haemorrhagica c) Follicular cyst d) Luteal cyst e) Antral follicle

Answer 59

C - Follicular Cyst. This image shows as large follicular cyst (gold arrow) with an internal diameter of 37mm. Note the thin wall of the cyst.

Question 60

Scenario: A dairy cow calved 30 hours ago and has not expelled her foetal membranes. She appears bright and alert with a rectal temperature of 38.5°C. Lead-in: According to the definition provided, which of the following best describes this condition? Options: a) Normal placental expulsion b) Retained foetal membranes (RFM) c) Metritis d) Endometritis e) Puerperal metritis

Answer 60

Answer: b) Retained foetal membranes (RFM)   Explanation: Retained foetal membranes are defined as the non-expulsion of foetal membranes beyond 24 hours post calving. Normal placental expulsion occurs within 6 hours of calving. The cow's lack of systemic illness distinguishes this from metritis or puerperal metritis at this stage.

Question 61

Scenario: A dairy cow is diagnosed with retained foetal membranes (RFM). She is otherwise healthy. Lead-in: According to the lecture, which of the following treatments for RFM is routinely supported by research? Options: a) Manual removal within 48 hours b) Routine parenteral antimicrobial treatment c) Intrauterine infusion of antiseptics d) Benign neglect for 5-7 days e) Administration of a high dose of oxytocin

Answer 61

Answer: d) Benign neglect for 5-7 days   Explanation: Research does not routinely support manual removal due to risks of haemorrhage and tearing, nor routine parenteral antimicrobials as they show no benefit on reproductive performance or milk yield. Benign neglect, with the membranes usually expelled within 2-11 days, is often sufficient in healthy cows

Question 62

Scenario: A dairy cow calved 10 days ago and presents with a decreased milk yield, dullness, inappetence, and a fever of 40.0°C. She has a fetid watery red-brown vaginal discharge and an abnormally enlarged uterus. Lead-in: Based on the clinical signs, which of the following uterine diseases is the most likely diagnosis? Options: a) Grade 1 metritis b) Grade 2 metritis c) Grade 3 metritis (puerperal metritis) d) Clinical endometritis e) Subclinical endometritis  

Answer 62

Answer: c) Grade 3 metritis (puerperal metritis)   Explanation: The systemic signs of illness (decreased milk yield, dullness, inappetence, fever >39.5°C) along with the fetid watery red-brown discharge and enlarged uterus within 21 days post-partum are characteristic of puerperal metritis (Grade 3 metritis).

Question 63

Scenario: A dairy cow is diagnosed with Grade 2 metritis. Lead-in: According to the lecture, which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment? Options: a) Intrauterine antibiotics alone b) Systemic antimicrobials (e.g., amoxicillin) for 3-5 days c) Uterine lavage with antiseptic solution d) Administration of corticosteroids e) Manual removal of uterine contents

Answer 63

Answer: b) Systemic antimicrobials (e.g., amoxicillin) for 3-5 days   Explanation: For Grade 2 metritis (systemic signs of illness), systemic antimicrobials such as penicillin (amoxicillin) for 3-5 days are recommended. Intrauterine antibiotics alone are insufficient. Uterine lavage carries risks, and corticosteroids are not a standard treatment.  

Question 64

Scenario: A dairy cow calved 35 days ago and has a purulent vaginal discharge (>50% pus) detectable on vaginal examination. She is otherwise clinically normal. Lead-in: Based on the definition provided, which of the following uterine diseases is the most likely diagnosis? Options: a) Grade 1 metritis b) Grade 2 metritis c) Grade 3 metritis d) Clinical endometritis e) Subclinical endometritis

Answer 64

Answer: d) Clinical endometritis   Explanation: Clinical endometritis is defined by the presence of a purulent uterine discharge (>50% pus) ≥21 days after parturition in a cow that is not systemically ill.  

Question 65

Scenario: A dairy cow is diagnosed with clinical endometritis. Lead-in: According to the lecture, which of the following treatments has shown limited value? Options: a) Prostaglandin F2 alpha (PGF2α) b) Intrauterine infusion of antiseptics c) Systemic antibiotics d) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) e) Intrauterine antibiotics (e.g., cefapirin)

Answer 65

Answer: b) Intrauterine infusion of antiseptics   Explanation: The lecture states that intrauterine infusion of antiseptics has limited value in treating endometritis in commercial sheep and, by extension, suggests limited value in cows as well.

Question 66

Scenario: A dairy cow is diagnosed with pyometra. Lead-in: According to the lecture, which hormone is typically associated with the presence of pyometra in cattle? Options: a) Oestrogen b) Progesterone c) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) d) Luteinizing hormone (LH) e) Oxytocin

Answer 66

Answer: b) Progesterone   Explanation: Pyometra in cattle is defined by purulent material in the uterus with a closed cervix and a functional corpus luteum, which produces progesterone.  

Question 67

Scenario: A freshly calved cow experiences a sudden and unexpected reduction in milk yield. Lead-in: According to the lecture on milk drop, which of the following is a fairly common differential diagnosis that should be considered? Options: a) Liver abscess b) Endocarditis c) Leptospirosis d) Left displaced abomasum e) Caecal dilatation (+/- torsion)

Answer 67

Answer: d) Left displaced abomasum   Explanation: The lecture on milk drop lists left displaced abomasum as a fairly common differential diagnosis for a sudden reduction in milk yield in a freshly calved cow.

Question 68

Scenario: A freshly calved cow has a sudden drop in milk yield and is pyrexic. Lead-in: According to the lecture on milk drop, which of the following differential diagnoses is most likely to present with pyrexia? Options: a) Left displaced abomasum b) Primary ketosis c) Metritis d) Traumatic reticuloperitonitis e) Right displaced abomasum

Answer 68

Answer: c) Metritis   Explanation: The lecture on milk drop includes pyrexia as a common clinical sign associated with metritis.

Question 69

Scenario: A freshly calved cow with a milk drop is examined. Auscultation and percussion of the abdomen reveal a 'ping' on the left side. Lead-in: According to the lecture on milk drop, which of the following conditions is most likely? Options: a) Metritis b) Peritonitis c) Left displaced abomasum d) Right displaced abomasum e) Primary ketosis  

Answer 69

Answer: c) Left displaced abomasum   Explanation: A 'ping' on percussion auscultation of the left side of the abdomen is a characteristic finding for a left displaced abomasum.  

Question 70

Scenario: During a routine pregnancy diagnosis via rectal palpation in a cow, you feel a membrane slip when applying gentle pressure between your thumb and forefinger. Lead-in: What is the approximate gestational age of the foetus? Options: a) 30-45 days b) 45-60 days c) 60-75 days d) 75-90 days e) Over 90 days

Answer 70

Answer: b) 45-60 days Explanation: The membrane slip is a classic finding during rectal palpation for pregnancy diagnosis in cows, typically felt between 45 and 60 days of gestation.

Question 71

Scenario: On rectal palpation of a cow, you can feel a distinct foetus that is approximately the size of a rat. Lead-in: What is the approximate gestational age of the foetus? Options: a) 30 days b) 60 days c) 90 days d) 120 days e) 150 days

Answer 71

Answer: b) 60 days Explanation: At approximately 60 days of gestation, the bovine foetus is palpable rectally and is around the size of a rat.

Question 72

Scenario: On rectal examination of a cow, you can feel fremitus (vibration) in the middle uterine artery on the side of the pregnancy. Lead-in: This finding is typically noticeable from which stage of gestation onwards? Options: a) 1 month b) 2 months c) 3 months d) 5 months e) 7 months

Answer 72

Answer: d) 5 months Explanation: Fremitus in the middle uterine artery, caused by increased blood flow to the developing foetus and placenta, is usually palpable from around 5 months of gestation onwards.

Question 73

Scenario: During rectal pregnancy diagnosis, you palpate a structure in the uterus that feels like a golf ball. Lead-in: What is the most likely gestational age of the pregnancy? Options: a) 30 days b) 60 days c) 90 days d) 120 days e) 150 days

Answer 73

Answer: a) 30 days Explanation: At approximately 30 days of gestation, the conceptus in a cow is palpable as a small, fluid-filled structure roughly the size of a golf ball.

Question 74

Scenario: During rectal palpation for pregnancy, you can feel amniotic fluid and the uterine wall is thin and easily slips over the foetus. The foetus itself is not easily defined as a discrete structure. Lead-in: What is the likely gestational age? Options: a) 2-3 months b) 4-5 months c) 6-7 months d) 8-9 months e) Just calved

Answer 74

Answer: b) 4-5 months Explanation: Between 4 and 5 months of gestation, the uterine wall is thin, and the foetus is surrounded by a significant amount of amniotic fluid, making it feel somewhat elusive on palpation.

Question 75

Scenario: On rectal examination of a cow, you can palpate placentomes, which feel like flattened discs or buttons attached to the uterine wall. Lead-in: Placentomes become reliably palpable from approximately which month of gestation? Options: a) 1 month b) 2 months c) 3 months d) 4 months e) 5 months

Answer 75

Answer: c) 3 months Explanation: Placentomes, the points of attachment between the foetal membranes and the uterine wall, become reliably palpable via rectal examination from around 3 months of gestation onwards.

Question 76

Scenario: During rectal palpation, you can feel the uterine horns are enlarged and have a fluid-filled consistency. One horn feels slightly larger and more tense than the other. Lead-in: What is the earliest stage of pregnancy at which this asymmetry of the uterine horns is typically detectable? Options: a) 2 weeks b) 4 weeks c) 6 weeks d) 8 weeks e) 10 weeks

Answer 76

Answer: c) 6 weeks Explanation: Enlargement and asymmetry of the uterine horns, with the horn containing the conceptus feeling slightly larger and more fluid-filled, can typically be detected by rectal palpation from around 6 weeks of gestation.

Question 77

Scenario: On rectal examination of a cow, you can easily palpate the entire foetus and can distinguish individual limbs and the head. The foetus feels quite large and occupies a significant portion of the pelvic space. Lead-in: What is the likely stage of gestation? Options: a) 3-4 months b) 5-6 months c) 7-8 months d) 8-9 months e) Just before calving

Answer 77

Answer: c) 7-8 months Explanation: By 7-8 months of gestation, the foetus has grown considerably and is easily palpable, with individual limbs and the head being readily distinguishable. It will occupy a significant portion of the abdominal and pelvic space.