Cardiorespiratory SBAs Flashcards

1
Q

Scenario: A farmer presents a 5-year-old Simmental cow with a history of epistaxis. On examination, you find the cow has pale mucous membranes, tachycardia, tachypnoea, and melena.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:

a) Anthrax
b) Babesiosis
c) Caudal vena cava thrombosis
d) Factor XI deficiency
e) Rodenticide poisoning

A

Answer: c) Caudal vena cava thrombosis

Explanation: The cow’s clinical signs, including epistaxis, pale mucous membranes, and melena, are highly suggestive of a haemorrhagic condition. Given the signalment and history, caudal vena cava thrombosis is the most likely diagnosis.

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2
Q

Scenario: You are examining a 9-day-old female Holstein calf that is recumbent and has diarrhoea. She has a weak suckle reflex, prolonged skin tent, tachycardia, and cold extremities. Her palpebral reflex is present but slow.

Lead-in: What is the most appropriate fluid therapy plan for this calf?

Options:

a) Oral fluid therapy with a water with a ‘bovi-aid’ rehydration powder.
b) Intravenous fluid therapy with an haartmans (lactated ringers).
c) Intravenous fluid therapy with a 7.2% saline followed by oral fluids
d) No fluid therapy is required at this time
e) Intravenous fluid therapy with a 0.9% saline.

A

D

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3
Q

Scenario: A 50kg calf presents with lateral recumbency, CRT of 5 seconds, heart rate of 180 bpm, and dry mucous membranes.

Lead-in: What is the estimated fluid deficit for this calf?

Options:

a) 2.5 Litres
b) 5 Litres
c) 6 Litres
d) 7.5 Litres
e) 13.5 Litres

A

Explanation: The calf is showing signs of severe dehydration (12-15% deficit). The fluid deficit is calculated as a percentage of body weight: 15% of 50kg = 7.5 Litres.

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4
Q

Scenario: A 14-day-old calf presents with recumbency, an absent palpebral response, and diarrhoea. You estimate the base excess to be -20 mmol/L.

Lead-in: What is the total bicarbonate requirement for this calf?

Options:

a) 13g of bicarbonate of soda
b) 25g of bicarbonate of soda
c) 50g of bicarbonate of soda
d) 300 mmol of bicarbonate
e) 600 mmol of bicarbonate

A

Answer: e) 600 mmol of bicarbonate

Explanation: The bicarbonate requirement is calculated as follows: body weight (kg) x base deficit (mmol/L) x volume of distribution (L/kg) = 50 x 20 x 0.6 = 600 mmol

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5
Q

Scenario: You are treating a cow for acute ruminal acidosis. You have administered 4 ml/kg of a 7.2% hypertonic saline solution intravenously.

Lead-in: What is the most appropriate next step in the fluid therapy plan?

Options:

a) Administer a further 4 ml/kg of hypertonic saline intravenously.
b) Administer 20-40 Litres of oral fluids.
c) Administer an isotonic crystalloid intravenously.
d) No further fluid therapy is required.
e) Administer a colloid intravenously.

A

Answer: b) Administer 20-40 Litres of oral fluids.

Explanation: After administering hypertonic saline, it is crucial to follow up with a large volume of oral fluids to rehydrate the animal and prevent dehydration.

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6
Q

Scenario: A 35kg calf presents with a skin tent >3 seconds, heart rate of 120 bpm, cold extremities, and diarrhoea.

Lead-in: What is the calf’s total fluid deficit?

Options:

a) 2.1 Litres
b) 3.5 Litres
c) 4.2 Litres
d) 6 Litres
e) 10.5 Litres

A

b) 3.5 Litres
Explanation: The calf’s total fluid deficit is calculated as follows: body weight (kg) x % dehydration = 35kg x 10% = 3.5 Litres.

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7
Q

Scenario: A 400kg cow has a prolonged CRT (>3 seconds), dry mucous membranes, cold extremities, tachycardia >50% above normal, and very concentrated urine.

Lead-in: What is the cow’s estimated percentage dehydration?

Options:

a) 5-7%
b) 8-10%
c) 10-12%
d) 12-15%
e) >15%

A

Answer: c) 10-12%

Explanation: The cow’s clinical signs are consistent with moderate dehydration, which corresponds to an estimated fluid deficit of 10-12%.

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8
Q

Scenario: A 50kg calf has a base excess of -15 mmol/L.

Lead-in: How much bicarbonate of soda should be added to the intravenous fluids?

Options:

a) 13g
b) 18.75g
c) 25g
d) 37.5g
e) 50g

A

Answer: b) 18.75g

Explanation: The bicarbonate requirement is calculated as follows: body weight (kg) x base deficit (mmol/L) x volume of distribution (L/kg) = 50 x 15 x 0.6 = 450 mmol. Then, divide the total mmol of bicarbonate required by the mmol of bicarbonate per gram of bicarbonate of soda: 450 mmol / 12 mmol/g = 37.5g. Finally, divide the total grams of bicarbonate of soda by 2 to determine how much should be added to each 1L bag of saline: 37.5g / 2 = 18.75g.

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9
Q

Scenario: A 600kg lactating cow requires intravenous fluid therapy.

Lead-in: What is the minimum volume of intravenous fluids required to meet this cow’s daily maintenance needs?

Options:

a) 30 Litres
b) 36 Litres
c) 42 Litres
d) 48 Litres
e) 60 Litres

A

Answer: a) 30 Litres

Explanation: The minimum daily fluid requirement for an adult cow is 50 ml/kg/day. For a 600kg cow, this equates to 50 ml/kg/day x 600 kg = 30,000 ml/day = 30 Litres

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10
Q

Scenario: A 45kg calf with pneumonia requires treatment with oxytetracycline. You have a 50ml bottle of Vetericyn Oxytetracycline Injection at a concentration of 200mg/ml. The dose rate for oxytetracycline in calves is 20mg/kg.

Lead-in: What volume of oxytetracycline solution should you administer to this calf?

Options:

a) 2.25ml
b) 4.5ml
c) 9ml
d) 22.5ml
e) 45ml

A

Explanation: First, calculate the total dose of oxytetracycline required: 20mg/kg x 45kg = 900mg. Then, calculate the volume of the solution needed: 900mg / 200mg/ml = 4.5ml.

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11
Q

Scenario: A 40kg calf presents with severe dehydration and acidosis. You estimate the base deficit to be 25 mmol/L. You decide to administer a hypertonic solution of bicarbonate intravenously.

Lead-in: What is the most appropriate bicarbonate dose and administration rate for this calf?

Options:

a) 1 ml/kg/min for 4-5 minutes
b) 4 ml/kg rapidly over 5 minutes
c) 75g bicarbonate of soda over 2-6 hours
d) 125g bicarbonate of soda over 2-6 hours
e) 50g bicarbonate of soda over 24 hours

A

Answer: a) 1 ml/kg/min for 4-5 minutes

Explanation: This is the correct dose and administration rate for hypertonic bicarbonate in a calf. It provides rapid correction of acidosis and plasma expansion.

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12
Q

Scenario: A 2-week-old calf presents with watery diarrhoea and moderate dehydration. You decide to administer oral fluid therapy.

Lead-in: Which of the following features of the oral electrolyte solution is most important for successful rehydration in this calf?

Options:

a) Osmolality of 200 mOsm/kg
b) Sodium content of 50 mmol/L
c) Strong ion difference of 40 mmol/L
d) Presence of glucose
e) Strong ion difference of 80 mmol/L

A

Answer: e) Strong ion difference of 80 mmol/L

Explanation: A strong ion difference greater than 60 mmol/L is essential for effective rehydration in calves with diarrhoea.

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13
Q

Scenario: You are preparing to administer intravenous fluid therapy to a dehydrated calf. You have Hartmann’s solution and saline available.

Lead-in: Which of the following statements regarding fluid choice is most accurate?

Options:

a) Hartmann’s solution is preferred over saline in acidotic calves.
b) Saline is preferred over Hartmann’s solution when bicarbonate is being used.
c) Hypertonic saline should be used as the sole fluid therapy in dehydrated calves.
d) Hypotonic saline is ideal for rapid rehydration in hypovolaemic calves.
e) Hartmann’s solution is contraindicated in all cases of calf dehydration.

A

Answer: b) Saline is preferred over Hartmann’s solution when bicarbonate is being used.

Explanation: Calcium in Hartmann’s solution can react with bicarbonate, forming a precipitate and reducing the efficacy of both.

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14
Q

Scenario: A farmer is concerned about a group of piglets that appear pale and are not thriving as well as expected at one week of age.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most important question to ask the farmer?

Options:

a) Have the piglets been vaccinated against porcine circovirus?
b) Have the piglets been given an iron supplement?
c) Have the piglets been wormed?
d) What is the temperature in the farrowing house?
e) Are the piglets able to access creep feed?

A

Answer: b) Have the piglets been given an iron supplement?

Explanation: Piglets are born with low iron reserves and sow’s milk is a poor source of iron. Therefore, piglets require an iron supplement within the first few days of life to prevent iron deficiency anaemia.

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15
Q

Scenario: A group of 10-day-old piglets presents with pale mucous membranes, weakness, and elevated heart and respiratory rates. One piglet has died, and post-mortem examination reveals a thin heart wall and oedema of the lungs and muscle tissue.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:

a) Iron deficiency anaemia
b) Mycoplasma suis infection
c) Warfarin poisoning
d) Porcine proliferative enteritis
e) Vitamin E deficiency

A

Explanation: The clinical signs and post-mortem findings are consistent with iron deficiency anaemia in piglets.

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16
Q

cenario: A farmer reports that several of his weaned piglets are pale and unthrifty. He has been feeding them a commercial piglet diet and providing them with fresh water.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Options:

a) Recommend increasing the protein content of the diet.
b) Visit the farm to examine the piglets and investigate further.
c) Prescribe a broad-spectrum antibiotic to treat any underlying infection.
d) Advise the farmer to deworm the piglets.
e) Suggest supplementing the piglets with vitamin E.

A

Answer: b) Visit the farm to examine the piglets and investigate further.

Explanation: It is important to visit the farm to examine the piglets and gather more information before making any treatment or management recommendations.

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17
Q

Scenario: You are examining a group of piglets that are suspected to be suffering from iron deficiency anaemia.

Lead-in: Which of the following blood test results would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

Options:

a) Low packed cell volume (PCV), low mean corpuscular volume (MCV), low mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
b) Low PCV, high MCV, low MCHC
c) Low PCV, normal MCV, normal MCHC
d) Normal PCV, low MCV, low MCHC
e) High PCV, normal MCV, normal MCHC

A

Answer: a) Low packed cell volume (PCV), low mean corpuscular volume (MCV), low mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

Explanation: Iron deficiency anaemia is characterized by small, pale red blood cells, which result in a low PCV, low MCV, and low MCHC.

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18
Q

Scenario: A farmer asks for advice on preventing iron deficiency anaemia in his newborn piglets.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most effective method for preventing iron deficiency anaemia in piglets?

Options:

a) Providing the sow with an iron supplement during gestation.
b) Injecting the piglets with iron dextran within the first week of life.
c) Adding iron sulfate to the piglets’ drinking water.
d) Feeding the piglets an iron-rich creep feed.
e) Increasing the iron content of the sow’s milk by altering her diet.

A

Answer: b) Injecting the piglets with iron dextran within the first week of life.

Explanation: Injecting piglets with iron dextran is the most effective way to provide them with the iron they need to prevent iron deficiency anaemia.

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19
Q

Scenario: A group of 10-week-old calves housed in a well-ventilated barn with good hygiene practices develop clinical signs of respiratory disease, including coughing, nasal discharge, and fever. You suspect bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV) is involved.

Lead-in: Which of the following statements regarding BRSV infection in this group of calves is most accurate?

Options:

a) Natural infection will provide long-lasting immunity, preventing future BRSV infections.
b) Vaccination is not recommended in this age group due to interference from maternal antibodies.
c) Treatment with antimicrobials targeting BRSV is essential for recovery.
d) Reinfection with BRSV is possible, and while vaccination may not prevent it, it can reduce the severity of clinical disease.
e) BRSV infection is typically fatal, with most calves developing severe interstitial pneumonia and dying within 2-5 days.

A

Answer: d) Reinfection with BRSV is possible, and while vaccination may not prevent it, it can reduce the severity of clinical disease.

Explanation: BRSV reinfection is common due to short-lived immunity. Vaccination can reduce disease severity but may not completely prevent reinfection.

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20
Q

Scenario: A 2-year-old Texel ram presents with severe respiratory distress, laryngeal stridor, and open-mouthed breathing. The owner reports a sudden onset of clinical signs. You suspect laryngeal chondritis.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management strategy for this ram?

Options:

a) Administer a high dose of NSAIDs and send the ram for immediate slaughter.
b) Perform an emergency tracheostomy under general anesthesia to secure the airway.
c) Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics and advise the owner to reduce the ram’s concentrate feed intake.
d) Perform surgical debridement of the necrotic laryngeal cartilages to remove the obstruction.
e) Administer 20mg of dexamethasone intravenously, followed by an emergency tracheostomy under local anesthesia if necessary.

A

Answer: e) Administer 20mg of dexamethasone intravenously, followed by an emergency tracheostomy under local anesthesia if necessary.

Explanation: Immediate management of laryngeal chondritis involves securing the airway. Dexamethasone helps reduce laryngeal inflammation, and a tracheostomy may be necessary if obstruction persists. Local anesthesia is preferred to minimize stress.

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21
Q

Scenario: A group of 6-month-old dairy heifers are experiencing an outbreak of respiratory disease. Several heifers have a high fever (>40°C), bilateral conjunctivitis with epiphora, and a red nose. You suspect infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR).

Lead-in: Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate to confirm IBR infection in this group of heifers during the acute phase of the outbreak?

Options:

a) Serology to detect rising antibody titers against IBR.
b) Bulk milk tank testing for IBR antibodies.
c) Conjunctival swab submitted for PCR testing for IBR.
d) Skin testing to assess for IBR hypersensitivity.
e) Fecal sampling to detect IBR virus shedding.

A

Answer: c) Conjunctival swab submitted for PCR testing for IBR.

Explanation: During an acute outbreak, virus detection is key. Conjunctival swabs are a good source of virus for PCR testing in IBR.

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22
Q

Scenario: A farmer calls you about a group of 4-month-old lambs that have been housed for the winter. They are coughing, and some have a nasal discharge. You suspect pasteurellosis.

Lead-in: Which of the following antibiotics would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for this group of lambs?

Options:

a) Florfenicol
b) Tilmicosin
c) Procaine penicillin
d) Oxytetracycline
e) Enrofloxacin

A

Answer: d) Oxytetracycline

Explanation: For pasteurellosis in lambs, oxytetracycline is a good first-line choice due to its efficacy and category D status, minimizing the risk of antimicrobial resistance.

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23
Q

Scenario: A 5-year-old dairy cow presents with a chronic cough, weight loss, and enlarged supramammary lymph nodes. The cow has been grazing lush pasture with a herd of sheep. You suspect malignant catarrhal fever (MCF).

Lead-in: Which of the following statements regarding MCF is most accurate?

Options:

a) The disease is highly contagious between cattle, and the entire herd is at risk.
b) Treatment with high-dose corticosteroids is usually curative if started early in the course of the disease.
c) The disease is caused by a virus transmitted from sheep, and there is no effective treatment or vaccine currently available.
d) The cow will likely recover with supportive care, but it will remain a carrier and shed the virus for life.
e) The disease is zoonotic, posing a significant risk to human health.

A

Answer: c) The disease is caused by a virus transmitted from sheep, and there is no effective treatment or vaccine currently available.

Explanation: MCF is caused by a virus (OvHV-2) carried by sheep. The disease is typically fatal in cattle, and there is no effective treatment or vaccine.

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24
Q

Scenario: You are called to a farm with a group of 8-week-old calves experiencing an outbreak of pneumonia. The calves are housed in a poorly ventilated barn with a high stocking density. You suspect a multifactorial etiology with both viral and bacterial pathogens involved.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely sequence of events leading to the development of pneumonia in these calves?

Options:

a) Bacterial infection causing immunosuppression, followed by viral invasion of the lower respiratory tract.
b) Viral infection causing direct damage to the lungs, leading to bacterial pneumonia.
c) Viral infection causing upper respiratory tract disease, immunosuppression, and subsequent bacterial colonization of the lower respiratory tract.
d) Bacterial infection causing primary pneumonia, followed by viral invasion of the weakened lung tissue.
e) Fungal infection causing primary pneumonia, followed by secondary bacterial infection.

A

Answer: c) Viral infection causing upper respiratory tract disease, immunosuppression, and subsequent bacterial colonization of the lower respiratory tract.

Explanation: In BRD, a viral infection often initiates an upper respiratory tract disease (URTI), which can impair immune defenses and allow bacterial commensals to invade the lower respiratory tract, causing pneumonia.

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25
Q

Scenario: A 6-month-old calf presents with a severe, acute onset of respiratory distress. The calf is pyrexic (41°C), has a moist cough, and you auscultate crackles and wheezes in the cranioventral lung fields. You suspect acute bacterial bronchopneumonia.

Lead-in: Which of the following bacterial pathogens is most commonly associated with this clinical presentation in calves?

Options:

a) Mycoplasma bovis
b) Mannheimia haemolytica
c) Pasteurella multocida
d) Histophilus somni
e) Trueperella pyogenes

A

Answer: b) Mannheimia haemolytica

Explanation: Mannheimia haemolytica is the most frequent bacterial pathogen isolated from calves with acute bronchopneumonia.

26
Q

Scenario: A group of 6-week-old piglets in a nursery farm develop a wet cough and some are experiencing sudden deaths. On post-mortem examination, you find polyserositis with pleurisy, pericarditis, peritonitis, and extensive lung consolidation.

Lead-in: Which of the following pathogens should be considered as a primary differential diagnosis in this case?

Options:

a) Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
b) Streptococcus suis
c) Haemophilus parasuis
d) Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus (PRRSV)
e) Porcine circovirus type 2 (PCV2)

A

Answer: c) Haemophilus parasuis

Explanation: While other pathogens can cause polyserositis in pigs, H. parasuis (Glasser’s disease) is a primary differential in this case, especially given the presence of polyserositis and lung consolidation.

27
Q

Scenario: A commercial broiler flock at 2 weeks of age experiences a sudden increase in mortality. Birds are pyrexic, with nasal discharge, sneezing, and swollen heads. You suspect infectious coryza.

Lead-in: Which of the following management strategies would be most effective in preventing future outbreaks of infectious coryza in this poultry farm?

Options:

a) Increase the stocking density to reduce bird-to-bird transmission.
b) Implement strict biosecurity measures, including quarantine for new birds and disinfection of equipment.
c) Treat all birds with broad-spectrum antibiotics to eliminate the causative bacteria.
d) Vaccinate the birds against infectious coryza using the drinking water route.
e) Reduce ventilation to maintain a warmer and more humid environment.

A

Answer: b) Implement strict biosecurity measures, including quarantine for new birds and disinfection of equipment.

Explanation: Infectious coryza is a highly contagious bacterial disease. Biosecurity is crucial for prevention, including isolating new birds and disinfecting fomites to minimize pathogen spread.

28
Q

Scenario: A group of first-season grazing calves develop a persistent cough and tachypnea in late summer. You suspect lungworm infection (Dictyocaulus viviparus).

Lead-in: Which of the following diagnostic tests would be most appropriate to confirm a patent lungworm infection in these calves?

Options:

a) Thoracic ultrasound to visualize lungworm larvae in the airways.
b) Fecal examination using the Baermann technique to detect lungworm larvae.
c) Blood test for antibodies against D. viviparus.
d) Transtracheal wash to collect lung fluid for lungworm culture.
e) Nasal swab for PCR testing to detect lungworm DNA.

A

Answer: b) Fecal examination using the Baermann technique to detect lungworm larvae.

Explanation: The Baermann technique is a reliable method for detecting lungworm larvae in fecal samples, confirming a patent infection.

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29
Q

Scenario: A group of 5-month-old weaned beef calves are experiencing an outbreak of respiratory disease. Clinical signs include fever (40-41°C), coughing, and mucopurulent nasal discharge. Several calves are showing signs of dyspnea and have an increased respiratory rate.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most important first step in developing a control strategy for this outbreak?

Options:

a) Isolate the affected calves and treat them with long-acting antibiotics.
b) Vaccinate all calves immediately with a multivalent respiratory vaccine.
c) Perform diagnostic testing to identify the specific pathogens involved.
d) Cull the severely affected calves to prevent further spread of the disease.
e) Implement strict biosecurity measures to prevent the introduction of new pathogens.

A

Answer: c) Perform diagnostic testing to identify the specific pathogens involved.

Explanation: Identifying the specific pathogens involved is crucial for developing an effective control strategy, including targeted treatment and appropriate vaccine selection.

30
Q

Scenario: A 3-year-old ewe presents with a sudden onset of severe respiratory distress. The cow is febrile (41°C), has a swollen udder, and is producing discolored milk. You notice subcutaneous petechiae and coalescing hemorrhages in the thoracic region.

Lead-in: Which of the following differential diagnoses is most likely in this case?

Options:

a) Bibersteinia trehalosi infection
b) Mannheimia haemolytica pneumonia
c) Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae infection
d) Acute bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema (fog fever)
e) Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR)

A

Answer: a) Bibersteinia trehalosi infection

Explanation: The clinical signs, including subcutaneous petechiae and udder involvement, are highly suggestive of B. trehalosi infection, which can cause septicemia and mastitis.

31
Q

Scenario: A 4-month-old lamb is found dead in a field. On post-mortem examination, you find the following:

Lead-in: Which of the following pathogens is most likely responsible for this lamb’s death?

Options:

a) Mannheimia haemolytica
b) Bibersteinia trehalosi
c) Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae
d) Dictyocaulus filaria
e) Histophilus somni

A

Answer: c) Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae

Explanation: The post-mortem findings of dark red, raised areas on the apical and cardiac lobes are characteristic of M. ovipneumoniae infection in lambs.

32
Q

Scenario: A group of 1-year-old housed sheep develop a chronic cough and show poor growth rates. You suspect Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae infection.

Lead-in: Which of the following treatment options would be most appropriate for this group of sheep?

Options:

a) Florifenicol IM
b) Oxytetracycline IM
c) Oral administration of tilmicosin
d) Penicillin G IM
e) Amoxicillin IM

A

B

Mycoplasma has no cell wall.

33
Q

Scenario: A 6-month-old calf presents with a chronic cough and ill thrift. The calf is housed in a group pen with other calves of similar age. You suspect chronic bovine respiratory disease (BRD).

Lead-in: Which of the following diagnostic tools would be most useful in assessing the extent of lung damage in this calf?

Options:

a) Thoracic ultrasound
b) Bronchoalveolar lavage
c) Deep nasopharyngeal swab
d) Serological testing for respiratory viruses
e) Skin testing for tuberculosis

A

Answer: a) Thoracic ultrasound

Explanation: Thoracic ultrasound can help visualize lung lesions and assess the extent of lung damage in chronic BRD cases.

34
Q

Scenario: A 4-week-old piglet presents with lethargy, anorexia, and a high fever (41°C). You suspect septicemia.

Lead-in: Which of the following pairs of pathogens are most likely to cause these clinical signs?

Options:

a) PRRSV and PCV2
b) Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae and M. hyorhinis
c) Haemophilus parasuis and Streptococcus suis
d) Pasteurella multocida and Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
e) Bordetella parapertussis and Chlamydophila abortus

A

Answer: c) Haemophilus parasuis and Streptococcus suis

Explanation: Both H. parasuis and S. suis can cause septicemia in piglets, leading to the observed clinical signs.

35
Q

Scenario: A group of 2-week-old broiler chicks are showing signs of respiratory distress, including gasping and open-mouthed breathing. You suspect gapeworm infestation.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for gapeworm infestation in this group of chicks?

Options:

a) No treatment is necessary as the chicks will develop immunity.
b) Administer a broad-spectrum antibiotic in the drinking water.
c) Treat the affected chicks with an anthelmintic via the drinking water.
d) Cull the severely affected chicks to prevent further spread.
e) Vaccinate the chicks against gapeworm using the intraocular route.

A

Answer: c) Treat the affected chicks with an anthelmintic via the drinking water.

Explanation: Anthelmintics are effective against gapeworms. The drinking water route is suitable for treating large flocks of chicks.

36
Q

Scenario: A commercial layer flock at 40 weeks of age experiences a sudden drop in egg production. You observe some respiratory signs, including snicking and coughing.

Lead-in: Which of the following differential diagnoses should be considered first in this case?

Options:

a) Avian influenza
b) Newcastle disease
c) Infectious bronchitis
d) Infectious laryngotracheitis
e) Mycoplasma gallisepticum infection

A

Answer: a) Avian influenza

Explanation: A sudden drop in egg production with respiratory signs in a commercial layer flock warrants immediate investigation for notifiable diseases like avian influenza.

37
Q

Scenario: A 6-month-old calf with acute bronchopneumonia caused by Mannheimia haemolytica requires antibiotic treatment.

Lead-in: Which of the following antibiotics would be the most appropriate to administer intravenously in this case?

Options:

a) Oxytetracycline
b) Amoxicillin
c) Tulathromycin
d) Tilmicosin
e) Trimethroprim-Sulfadiazine

A

E

Explanation: While all the listed antibiotics can be used to treat BRD, none are suitable for intravenous administration. Tilmicosin and tulathromycin are specifically contraindicated for IV use due to the risk of fatal cardiovascular toxicity.

38
Q

Scenario: A group of first-season grazing calves are at risk of lungworm infection Dictyocaulus viviparus. The farmer wants to implement a preventative strategy.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for lungworm prevention in these calves?

Options:

a) Delay turnout until late spring to reduce larval levels on pasture.
b) House the calves permanently to avoid exposure to lungworm larvae.
c) Treat all calves with a macrocyclic lactone anthelmintic every 2 weeks.
d) Vaccinate the calves against lungworm at 6 weeks of age.
e) Do not implement any preventative measures as the calves will develop natural immunity.

A

Answer: a) Delay turnout until late spring to reduce larval levels on pasture.

Explanation: Delaying turnout reduces the risk of early exposure to high larval levels, allowing the calves to gradually develop immunity while minimizing the risk of clinical disease.

39
Q

A cow presents with the following ocular lesion:

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this cow?

Options:

a) Surgical excision of the mass with wide margins.
b) Cryotherapy to freeze and destroy the tumor.
c) Enucleation.
d) Topical chemotherapy to shrink the tumour.
e) No treatment is necessary as the tumour is benign.

A

C

40
Q

Scenario: A group of 6-month-old dairy heifers presents with ocular discharge, conjunctivitis, and corneal oedema. The farmer reports that several heifers have developed corneal ulcers. You suspect infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK).

Lead-in: Which of the following statements regarding IBK is most accurate?

Options:

a) IBK is caused by a virus transmitted through direct contact with infected animals.
b) The disease primarily affects the lens of the eye, leading to vision loss.
c) Treatment with topical corticosteroids is essential to reduce inflammation and prevent corneal scarring.
d) IBK is a highly contagious disease that can spread rapidly through a herd, causing significant economic losses.
e) The causative agent of IBK is a fungus that thrives in warm, humid environments.

A

Answer: d) IBK is a highly contagious disease that can spread rapidly through a herd, causing significant economic losses.

Explanation: IBK is a bacterial disease caused by Moraxella bovis and is highly contagious, leading to rapid spread and economic losses due to decreased production and treatment costs.

41
Q

Scenario: A 4-year-old dairy cow presents with a stiff gait, reluctance to move, and a distended jugular vein. You notice a prominent bulge in the left paralumbar fossa.

Lead-in: Which of the following conditions is most likely causing these clinical signs?

Options:

a) Traumatic reticulopericarditis (TRP)
b) Bacterial endocarditis
c) Congenital heart defect
d) White muscle disease
e) Babesiosis

A

Answer: a) Traumatic reticulopericarditis (TRP)

Explanation: The cow’s clinical signs, including distended jugular vein and paralumbar fossa bulge (suggestive of rumen distension), are indicative of TRP and its effects on cardiovascular function.

42
Q

Scenario: A 6-month-old calf presents with a chronic cough, weight loss, and decreased appetite. The calf is housed with other youngstock and has been receiving supplemental copper in its diet. You suspect chronic copper toxicity.

Lead-in: Which of the following clinical pathology findings would support your suspicion of chronic copper toxicity?

Options:

a) High packed cell volume (PCV) and haemoglobin concentration.
b) Low PCV, haemoglobinuria, and increased liver enzymes.
c) Normal PCV, hyperfibrinogenaemia, and neutrophilia.
d) Low PCV, hypophosphataemia, and increased creatinine.
e) High PCV, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia.

A

Answer: b) Low PCV, haemoglobinuria, and increased liver enzymes.

Explanation: Chronic copper toxicity can cause intravascular haemolysis, leading to anaemia (low PCV), haemoglobinuria, and liver damage (increased liver enzymes).

43
Q

Scenario: A commercial broiler flock at 3 weeks of age experiences a sudden increase in mortality. Birds are showing respiratory distress, with gasping and open-mouthed breathing. You suspect infectious laryngotracheitis (ILT).

Lead-in: Which of the following post-mortem findings would be most suggestive of ILT?

Options:

a) Pleurisy and pericarditis with extensive lung consolidation.
b) Haemorrhages and mucus in the trachea, with caseous plugs in the larynx.
c) Polyserositis with fibrinous exudate in the pericardium, peritoneum, and pleura.
d) Enlarged spleen and liver with multifocal necrosis.
e) Catarrhal exudate in the sinuses and nasal passages.

A

Answer: b) Haemorrhages and mucus in the trachea, with caseous plugs in the larynx.

Explanation: The presence of haemorrhages, mucus, and caseous plugs in the trachea and larynx is characteristic of ILT infection in poultry.

44
Q

Scenario: A 4-year-old dairy cow presents with a loud, pansystolic murmur heard loudest on the right side of the chest. The cow has a history of recurrent mastitis. You suspect bacterial endocarditis.

Lead-in: Which of the following valves is most likely affected in this case?

Options:

a) Pulmonary valve
b) Aortic valve
c) Mitral valve
d) Tricuspid valve
e) None of the above

A

Answer: d) Tricuspid valve

Explanation: The tricuspid valve is the most common site for bacterial endocarditis in cattle, especially in cases associated with recurrent infections like mastitis.

45
Q

Scenario: A group of first-season grazing calves develop a persistent cough and tachypnea in late summer. You suspect lungworm infection (Dictyocaulus viviparus).

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most reliable method for confirming a diagnosis of lungworm in these calves?

Options:

a) Clinical signs alone.
b) Blood test for antibodies against D. viviparus.
c) Faecal examination using the Baermann technique to detect lungworm larvae.
d) Transtracheal wash to collect lung fluid for lungworm culture.
e) Nasal swab for PCR testing to detect lungworm DNA.

A

Answer: c) Faecal examination using the Baermann technique to detect lungworm larvae.

Explanation: The Baermann technique is a specific and sensitive method for identifying lungworm larvae in faecal samples, providing definitive evidence of infection.

46
Q

Scenario: A 6-month-old lamb presents with a sudden onset of severe respiratory distress, open-mouthed breathing, and stridor. The lamb is febrile and has a history of rapid growth on a high-concentrate diet. You suspect laryngeal chondritis.

Lead-in: Which of the following treatment options would be most appropriate for this lamb?

Options:

a) Immediate slaughter on welfare grounds.
b) Supportive care with antibiotics and NSAIDs.
c) Emergency tracheostomy under local anaesthesia.
d) Surgical debridement of the necrotic laryngeal cartilages.
e) A combination of b and c.

A

Answer: e) A combination of b and c.

Explanation: Laryngeal chondritis requires immediate airway stabilization (tracheostomy) and medical management (antibiotics and NSAIDs) to reduce inflammation and infection.

47
Q

Scenario: A commercial layer flock at 50 weeks of age experiences a sudden drop in egg production. You observe respiratory signs, including snicking and coughing, and some birds have swollen sinuses.

Lead-in: Which of the following pathogens is most likely responsible for these clinical signs?

Options:

a) Mycoplasma gallisepticum
b) Infectious bronchitis virus
c) Infectious coryza
d) Avian influenza
e) Newcastle disease

A

Answer: c) Infectious coryza

Explanation: Infectious coryza is a bacterial disease characterized by respiratory signs, including snicking and coughing, and swelling of the face and sinuses.

48
Q

Scenario: A 3-year-old dairy cow presents with a history of weight loss, decreased milk production, and intermittent fever. You auscultate a faint heart murmur on the left side of the chest. You suspect bacterial endocarditis.

What is the most appropriate treatment?

a) Ampicillin, IM for 6 weeks.

b) Co-Amoxiclav, IM for 2 weeks.

c) Co-Amoxiclav, IM for 6 weeks

d) Ampicillin, IM for 2 weeks.

A

A

49
Q

Scenario: A 2-year-old ewe is found dead in a field. The ewe was pregnant and due to lamb in 2 weeks. On post-mortem examination, you find pale mucous membranes and a large blood clot in the abdominal cavity.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of death in this ewe?

Options:

a) Haemophilus parasuis septicemia
b) Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae pneumonia
c) Internal haemorrhage due to a ruptured uterine artery.
d) Chronic copper toxicity
e) Clostridium haemolyticum infection

A

Answer: c) Internal haemorrhage due to a ruptured uterine artery.

Explanation: The presence of pale mucous membranes (indicating blood loss) and a large blood clot in the abdomen of a pregnant ewe strongly suggests a fatal haemorrhage, possibly due to a ruptured uterine artery.

50
Q

Scenario: A group of 4-month-old lambs are experiencing an outbreak of respiratory disease. Clinical signs include coughing, nasal discharge, and fever. You suspect Mannheimia haemolytica pneumonia.

Lead-in: Which of the following antibiotics would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for this group of lambs, considering both efficacy and the risk of antimicrobial resistance?

Options:

a) Florfenicol
b) Tilmicosin
c) Procaine penicillin
d) Oxytetracycline
e) Enrofloxacin

A

Answer: d) Oxytetracycline

Explanation: Oxytetracycline is a good first-line choice for M. haemolytica pneumonia in lambs due to its efficacy and lower risk of resistance development compared to other options.

51
Q

Scenario: A 5-year-old Hereford cow presents with a grey-white plaque on the limbus of her left eye. The lesion appears to be growing slowly but is causing significant discomfort and occasional blepharospasm.

Lead-in: What is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:

a) Infectious Bovine Keratoconjunctivitis (IBK)

b) Bovine Iritis

c) Ocular Squamous Cell Carcinoma (OSCC)

d) Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)

e) Malignant Catarrhal Fever (MCF)

A

Answer: c) Ocular Squamous Cell Carcinoma (OSCC)

Explanation: The clinical presentation of a grey-white plaque at the limbus is highly suggestive of OSCC, particularly in a Hereford cow. While other conditions can cause ocular lesions, the location and appearance of the lesion point towards OSCC as the most likely diagnosis.

52
Q

Scenario: A group of 20 calves are housed indoors during the winter. Several calves develop pyrexia, ocular and nasal discharge, and swelling around the head and neck.

Lead-in: Which one of the following diseases is the most likely cause of these clinical signs?

Options:

a) Bluetongue

b) OSCC

c) IBK

d) Silage Eye

e) Trauma

A

Answer: a) Bluetongue

Explanation: Bluetongue is a viral disease that can cause a range of clinical signs, including pyrexia, ocular and nasal discharge, and swelling of the head and neck. The fact that the calves are housed indoors during the winter suggests that they may have been exposed to the virus through infected midges.

53
Q

Scenario: A 3-year-old dairy cow presents with an ulcerative keratoconjunctivitis. The cow is showing signs of ocular discomfort, including blepharospasm and epiphora. You suspect Infectious Bovine Keratoconjunctivitis (IBK).

Lead-in: What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?

Options:

a) Topical dexamethasone.

b) Subconjunctival oxytetracycline only

c) Topical cloxacillin and systemic flunixin.

d) Insect repellent and topical dexamethasone

e) Tarsorrhaphy and topical dexamethasone

A

Answer: c) Topical cloxacillin and systemic flunixin.

Explanation: Topical cloxacillin is effective against the bacteria that cause IBK, and systemic NSAIDs can help to manage the pain and inflammation associated with the condition. Topical steroids are contraindicated in cases of corneal ulceration, as they can worsen the condition.

54
Q

Scenario: A farmer reports a high morbidity rate in his sheep flock, with over 80% of the animals showing signs of ocular disease. The clinical signs include conjunctivitis, keratitis, and corneal ulceration.

Lead-in: Which one of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this outbreak?

Options:

a) Entropion

b) Infectious keratoconjunctivitis

c) Listeria

d) Photosensitivity

e) Hypovitaminosis A

A

Answer: b) Infectious keratoconjunctivitis

Explanation: Infectious keratoconjunctivitis, also known as “pink eye,” is a highly contagious disease that can cause a range of clinical signs, including conjunctivitis, keratitis, and corneal ulceration. The high morbidity rate and the presence of corneal ulceration in a significant number of animals point towards infectious keratoconjunctivitis as the most likely cause.

55
Q

Scenario: A 6-month-old Texel lamb presents with severe pruritus, fleece loss, and erythema around the shoulders. Skin scrapings reveal mites with the following characteristics: 0.5mm in length, oval-shaped, three-segmented pedicels, and funnel-shaped suckers.

Lead-in: Which treatment option is the most appropriate and effective, considering the most likely diagnosis and UK licensing regulations?

Options:

a) A single subcutaneous injection of doramectin
b) A single subcutaneous injection of moxidectin 1%
c) Two intramuscular injections of ivermectin 7 days apart
d) Full immersion organophosphate (diazinon) dip
e) Topical application of deltamethrin

A

Answer: d) Full immersion organophosphate (diazinon) dip

Explanation: The mite described is Psoroptes ovis, the cause of sheep scab. Doramectin and a single dose of ivermectin do not provide sufficient residual protection to eliminate mites in the environment (17 days). Moxidectin 1% requires two injections 10 days apart. Topical deltamethrin is used for lice and ticks, not Psoroptes ovis. A diazinon dip is licensed in the UK for sheep scab, provides immediate kill, and has residual activity.

56
Q

Scenario: You are called to a hill farm in Scotland with a history of tick infestation. Several sheep are showing neurological signs including ataxia, tremors, and seizures.

Lead-in: Which of the following diseases is the most likely cause of these clinical signs, considering the location and the presentation?

Options:

a) Tickborne fever
b) Tick pyaemia
c) Louping ill
d) Chlamydiosis
e) Toxoplasmosis

A

Answer: c) Louping ill

Explanation: Louping ill is a viral encephalomyelitis caused by a flavivirus transmitted by ticks. It is prevalent in Scotland and known to cause neurological signs. Tickborne fever and tick pyaemia are less likely to cause these specific neurological signs. While Chlamydiosis and Toxoplasmosis can cause abortions and neurological disease, they are not specifically associated with tick-borne transmission

57
Q

Scenario: A client with a flock of 50 sheep contacts you in May. One ewe is showing fleece loss around her back end and seems agitated. On examination, you diagnose flystrike. The client has been struggling to find someone to shear their sheep.

Lead-in: What advice should you give to the client to prevent future flystrike cases, considering the current situation and the time of year?

Options:

a) Advise immediate shearing and application of a synthetic pyrethroid pour-on to the whole flock.
b) Prescribe an oral macrocyclic lactone (ML) endectocide to all sheep.
c) Recommend the use of an insect growth regulator (IGR) ear tag on all sheep.
d) Suggest crutching, dagging, and application of a synthetic pyrethroid pour-on to the affected areas of the whole flock.
e) Advise the client to move the sheep to a different pasture with less dense vegetation.

A

Answer: d) Suggest crutching, dagging, and application of a synthetic pyrethroid pour-on to the affected areas of the whole flock.

Explanation: While shearing is ideal, crutching and dagging will remove the wool most attractive to flies in the short term. A synthetic pyrethroid will provide immediate and ongoing protection. ML endectocides are not effective against blowfly, and IGR ear tags are mainly preventative. Moving the sheep to a different pasture may not be feasible or effective.

58
Q

Scenario: A farmer has a flock of sheep with a history of sheep scab. They are concerned about the risk of re-infestation and want to implement a proactive monitoring strategy.

Lead-in: Which diagnostic test would be most appropriate for early detection of sheep scab in this flock?

Options:

a) Skin scraping of all sheep in the flock
b) Visual inspection of the flock for clinical signs
c) Blood antibody ELISA testing of a representative sample of sheep
d) Faecal egg count analysis
e) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing of skin biopsies

A

Answer: c) Blood antibody ELISA testing of a representative sample of sheep

Explanation: While skin scraping can identify mites, it is less sensitive in early infestations. Visual inspection is unreliable for early detection. Blood antibody ELISA tests can detect antibodies to Psoroptes ovis within 2-3 weeks of contact, even before clinical signs appear. Faecal egg counts are irrelevant for sheep scab, and PCR testing of skin biopsies is not a routine diagnostic method for this condition.

59
Q

Scenario: You are examining a group of sheep with suspected lice infestation. The farmer reports seeing small, dark grey/brown insects on the wool.

Lead-in: Which of the following clinical signs would be LEAST likely to be associated with a lice infestation in sheep?

Options:

a) Pruritus and rubbing
b) Fleece damage and loss
c) Anaemia in severe infestations
d) Rapidly progressing skin lesions
e) Asymptomatic infestation in some cases

A

Answer: d) Rapidly progressing skin lesions

Explanation: Lice infestations in sheep tend to be slowly progressive, unlike the rapid progression seen with flystrike. The other options are all recognized clinical signs associated with lice in sheep.

60
Q

Scenario: A farmer presents a group of lambs with lameness and swollen joints. You suspect tick pyaemia secondary to tick-borne fever.

Lead-in: Which of the following treatment protocols is the most appropriate for this case, considering the likely pathogens involved and UK licensing regulations?

Options:

a) Moxidectin 2%, 1ml/20kg, subcutaneous injection at the base of the ear
b) Oxytetracycline, 20mg/kg, intramuscular injection, single dose
c) Ivermectin, 1ml/50kg, subcutaneous injection, two doses 7 days apart
d) Organophosphate (diazinon) dip, full immersion
e) Penicillin G, 40mg/kg, intramuscular injection, daily for 5 days

A

Answer: b) Oxytetracycline, 20mg/kg, intramuscular injection, single dose

Explanation:

Tick pyaemia is commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus bacteria, often secondary to immunosuppression from tick-borne fever.
Oxytetracycline is effective against staphylococcal infections and licensed for use in sheep.
While moxidectin and ivermectin might help control the tick population, they do not address the bacterial infection.
An organophosphate dip would also help with tick control but is not the primary treatment for the bacterial infection.
Penicillin G could be effective against Staphylococcus aureus, but oxytetracycline is a broader-spectrum antibiotic and more suitable for this situation as it will also be effective against the Anaplasma phagocytophilum causing the tick-borne fever.

61
Q
A