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Year 1 Body Systems > Reproductive 1 > Flashcards

Reproductive 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between GRAVIDA and PARITY?

A 
Gravida = the number of times a woman has been pregnanat
Parity = The number of children a woman has given birth to
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2
Q

What is the purpose of a booking visit in antenatal care and who is it carried out by and when?

A

8-12 weeks
Carried out by the midwife
Build up a picture of any ‘risks’ of the pregnancy
Take a sample of blood to do screening tests on

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3
Q

When does a dating scan take place, what information is given here, what else happens?

A

8-14 weeks
Estimated due date given
Screened for abnormalities and take specific blood tests

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4
Q

When does an anatomy scan take place and what is its purpose?

A

18-20 (+6) weeks

Check physical development, check there are no physical abnormalities, and find out the sex of the baby

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5
Q

When can the parents find out the sex of the baby?

A

At the anatomy scan at 18-20 weeks

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6
Q

How many antenatal appointments with the midwife are offered to first time parents?

A

Up to 10

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7
Q

At what point in the pregnancy do antenatal appointments become more frequent and what happens here?

A 
24 weeks
Check urine and BP
Palpate to check foetal position
Check foetal growth
Listen to foetal heart beat
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8
Q

How is babies growth measured (not using ultrasound)?

A

From the top of the womb to the pubic bone (symphasis-fundal height)

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9
Q

What is average gestation?

A

40 weeks

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10
Q

When do post natal checks happen, with which professional, what is the purpose?

A

6 weeks after birth
GP
Ensure women are well and recovering
A good time to discuss contraception which can be started at this time

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11
Q

In the booking visit when assessing risks to the pregnancy what 4 things may you want to find out?

A

1) Had complications in a previous pregnancy (Eg. pre-eclampsia or premature birth)
2) Mother is currently being treated for a chronic disease such as diabetes or hypertension
3) Has she or anyone in the family previously had a baby with an abnormality eg. spina bifida
4) Has a family history of inherited disease eg CF, sickle cell

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12
Q

If a pregnancy is deemed high risk what extra antenatal care may this mean? 4

A

1) Hospital appointments and addition ultrasound scans
2) Consultant-obstetrician led care
3) Hospital as a place of birth
4) May be delivered before 40 weeks by induction or C section

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13
Q

What continent has the highest maternal mortality?

A

Sub saharan africa

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14
Q

What is the difference between a still birth and a miscarriage?

A

Baby born before 24 weeks = miscarriage

Baby born after 24 weeks = still birth

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15
Q

How many pregnancies in the UK result in a stillbirth?

A

> 3600 a year
1 in every 200
Eleven babies everyday

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16
Q

What ethical criteria must screening tests meet?

A

Wilson’s criteria

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17
Q

What 4 infectious diseases and 3 other things are currently offered screening for in the antenatal period?

A 
Infectious disease = 
1) HIV
2) Hepatitis B
3) Syphilis
4) Rubella
Other things
1) Rhesus negative
2) Haemaglobinopathies (sickle cell and thalassemia)
3) Fetal anomalies
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18
Q

What a Rhesus negative women offered, when and what does it do?

A

Offered anti D at 28-30 weeks
Neutralises fetal Rh D+ antigens which would have entered maternal blood and prevents the formation of Ab
Another anti D after delivery if baby is Rh+ (cord blood tests at birth)

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19
Q

What 2 screening programmes happen for screening fetal anomalies?

A

1) Down syndrome screening

2) Anomaly scan

20
Q

What does down syndrome screening consist of and when is it carried out?

A 
Done in first trimester at dating scan
Nuchal translucency scan
Do a blood test for:
1) hCG  (Human chorionic gonadotrophin)
2) PAPP-A (pregnancy associated plasam protein A)
21
Q

How are downs syndrome results given, what is considered high risk and what is offered if women are deemed high risk?

A

Given as a risk factor
High risk is 1 in 150
Offered a definitive pre natal diagnosis
CVS from 11 weeks with a risk of miscarriage of 1%
Amniocentesis from 15 weeks with a miscarriage risk of 0.8%

22
Q

What infectious disease is not normally screened for but is in a history of drug abuse or obstetric cholestacis?

A

Hepatitis C

23
Q

What disease isnt routinely screened for but is encouraged to undertake optional screening in under 25s?

A

Chlamydia

24
Q

How many couples in the UK have difficulty conceiving>?

A

1 in 7

25
Q

What percentage of couples conceive within 1, 2 or 3 years?

A

1 year = 84%
Within 2 years = 92%
Within 3 years = 93%

26
Q

If couples haven’t conceived within 3 years what are there chances of conceiving in subsequent years?

A

25% or less

27
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary infertility?

A 
Primary = Has never conceived
Secondary = Has had one or more pregnancies in the past but is having difficulty conceiving
28
Q

What percentage of infertility has female and male cause?

A 
Female = 45%
Male = 30%
29
Q

What are the 3 type of female causes of infertility?

A

1) Ovulation disorders (some dont produce eggs at all)
2) Problems with the uterus and fallopian tubes (sacrring from surgery, fibroids, endometriosis)
3) Age (biggest decrease in fertility occurs in mid thirties)

30
Q

What are the 3 male causes of infertility?

A

1) Semen (decreased number of sperm, none at all, motility problems, abnormal morphology)
2) Ejaculation disorders
3) Alcohol

31
Q

When does a couple get referral for treatment for infertility?

A

After trying to conceive naturally unsuccessfully for a year, in the absence of any known cause of infertility

32
Q

What 7 lifestyle changes involved in pre treatment before treatment for infertility?

A

1) Alcohol intake cut
2) Stop smoking
3) Stop caffeinated beverages
4) Obesity - BMI reduced to under 30
5) Low body weight - brought up to above a BMI of 19
6) Tight underwear stopped
7) Folic acid supplementation given - 0.4 mg a day

33
Q

In investigations before fertility treatment what 4 investigations are carried out?

A

1) Semen analysis
2) Assessment of ovulation
3) Tubal damage and uterine abnormalities
4) Screening tests for abnormalities such as chlamydia

34
Q

In treatment for female infertility what 3 infertility treatments may be carried out?

A

1) The use of drugs for ovulation induction
2) Laparoscopy for ablation of endometriosis/ unblock tubes
3) Assisted reproduction techniques (ART)
eg, IVF/ ICSI

35
Q

In treatment for male infertility what 3 treatments may be carried out?

A

1) Medical treatment for erectile dysfunction
2) Surgical correction of tube blockage/sperm retrieval
3) IVF/ICSI

36
Q

What are the 6 stages of IVF treatment?

A

1) Pre treatment eg. lifestyle changes
2) Down regulation of womens hormones
3) Ovarian stimulation - to encourage eggs
4) Egg and sperm retrieval -USS guided
5) Embryo transfer 1 embryo
6) Early pregnancy support (progesterone for 8/40)

37
Q

What are the 5 risks of IVF?

A

1) Multiple pregnancy
2) Complications of procedure/medications
3) Psychological impact
4) Social impact
5) Ethics

38
Q

In pharmacology what is fetal dose and what is it affected by?

A

Amount of drug that reaches the foetal circulation

Affected by the drug concentration in the mother and the amount that crosses the placenta

39
Q

If a pregnant woman is given warfarin what percentage of feotuses are affected and what are the 4 possible effects?

A

10-20% of babies exposed are affected

1) Facial and bony deformities
2) Foetal haemorrhage
3) Blindness
4) Stillbirth

40
Q

What is sodium valporate used to treat?

A

Anti epileptic medication

41
Q

If sodium valporate is given to a pregnant woman what 4 possible defects can it cause in the foetus?

A

1) Neural tube defects
2) Skeletal defects
3) Hypospadias
4) Heart defects

42
Q

What are the 3 stages of labour and how long is each stage expected to be?

A 
1) First stage
Cervical dilation from 4cm to 10cm (fully dilated)
0.5cm per hour
2) Second stage
Fully dilated until delivery of baby
Expected within 2-3 hours 
3) Third stage 
From delivery of baby until delivery of placenta
Expected within 1 hour
43
Q

What are the 3Ps of labour?

A

Power - contractions
Passenger - Fetus
Passage - pelvis

44
Q

What are the primary and secondary forces of the 1st P ‘Power’?

A

Primary - uterine contractions

Secondary - maternal effort

45
Q

In cardinal movements, how should the babies head appear?

A

Oxiput-anterior (oxiput = back of head)

46
Q

Once the head has been delivered, what happens to allow the body to be born?

A

Head rotates 90 degrees to be born with body facing laterally

47
Q

What are the 8 cardinal movements?

A

1) Head floating before engagement
2) Engagement, descent, flexion (of the head)
3) Further descent (internal rotation of the head to be oxiput anterior)
4) Complete rotation beginning extension
5) Complete extension (of neck)
6) Restitution (external rotation of head to allow body to be delivered)
7) Delivery of anterior shoulder
8) Delivery of posterior shoulder

Year 1 Body Systems (17 decks)

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