Reproduction Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Draw a schematic diagram of the male reproductive tract, showing correct positions of all tubes and glands:

A

(See PBL revision week 6 p1)

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2
Q

Describe the anatomy of the testes:

A

BLOOD:

  • testicular artery from aorta
  • pampiniform plexus forms from testicular veins which drain into IVC on RHS and renal vein on LHS
  • innervated by testicular plexus from the coeliac plexus formed by T10 nerve roots
  • lumbar plexus from L1/2 gives sensory innervation to the tunica vaginalis of the testes
  • DRAINAGE: scrotum by inguinal nodes and testes by para-aortic nodes
  • each contains 200-300 lobules separated by fibrous connective tissue
  • each lobule contains a coiled seminiferous tubule (250m long)
  • straight ends of seminiferous tubules -> retes testes -> efferent ductules -> epididymis -> ductus deferens
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3
Q

What type of epithelium lines the epididymis?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar - reabsorbs 90% of fluid as the sperm become motile

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4
Q

Describe the histology of the testes:

A
  • 2 regions in the testes: tubule and interstitium
  • tubule lined by barrier of peritubular myoid cells (a flattened cell layer surrounding the sertoli cells)

Sertoli cells surround the tubules and extend from the BM to the lumen

  • they are joined by tight junctions that form blood-testes barrier, preventing chemicals entering or leaving the lumen so a constant environment is maintained for germ cells to develop
  • provide nutritional support to developing germ cells
  • secrete ABP (attracts testosterone from interstitium into the tubule)
  • most mature sperm found near lumen of tubule where they are released and make their way to the epididymis

Leydig cells are in the interstitium and produce testosterone

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5
Q

Describe the anatomy of the penis:

A

BLOOD
- supplied by branches of pudendal artery (from internal iliac artery) called the DEEP/DORSAL PENIS ARTERIES and BULBOURETHRAL ARTERIES
- drained by superficial and deep dorsal veins
INNERVATION is S2-4
- sympathetic supply and sensory supply from pudendal nerve
- parasympathetic supply from prostatic nerve plexus

  • has glans, body and root
  • ROOT: attached to body by two ligaments
  • > fundiform ligament = sling attaching penis to pubic symphysis
  • > suspensory ligament = connects erectile tissue to pubic symphysis
  • BODY: made of three bundles of erectile tissue, each surrounded by tunica albuginea (2 corpus cavernosum and 1 corpus spongiosum)
  • GLANS: formed by extension of the corpus spongiosum
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6
Q

Describe the anatomy of the ductus deferens:

A
  • a continuation of the epididymis
  • each joins with a seminal vesicle forming two ejaculatory ducts
  • the ejaculatory ducts join with the ureter in the prostate forming the urethra
  • 35-40cm long
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7
Q

What are the parts of the male urethra and their lengths?

A
  • prostatic 3cm
  • membranous 1-2cm
  • spongy/penile 15-16cm
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8
Q

Describe the anatomy of the prostate and the contents of its secretions:

A
  • single, donut shaped, chestnut sized gland
  • produces secretions which are released into the urethra through 100’s openings called PROSTATIC DUCTS
  • secretion contents:
  • > alkaline (neutralisation)
  • > citrate (for ATP production)
  • > proteolytic enzymes and acid phosphatase (for liquefying coagulated sperm)
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9
Q

Describe the anatomy of the bulbourethral glands and the contents of its secretions:

A
  • 2 pea sized glands under the prostate that secrete into the spongy urethra
  • add MUCOUS to semen during ejaculation
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10
Q

Describe the anatomy of the seminal vesicles and the contents of its secretions:

A
  • 2 glands which develop as out-pouchings of the ductus deferens
  • secretion contents:
  • > alkaline (neutralisation of female acidic vaginal environment)
  • > fructose (ATP for sperm)
  • > prostaglandins (aid sperm motility)
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11
Q

Describe the anatomy of the scrotum and its layers:

A
  • sac supporting the testes
  • > skin and dartos muscle (gives wrinkles appearance)
  • > external spermatic fascia
  • > cremasteric muscle
  • > internal spermatic fascia
  • > tunica vaginalis (parietal and visceral layers between which a hydrocoele may form - fluid collection)
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12
Q

Describe the physiology of erection:

A
  • inhibition of sympathetic nerve supply (which normally releases NA) to the small arteries of the penis, causing them to dilate and fill with blood (normally they are constricted)
  • erect penis formed as 3 vascular tissue bundles fill with high pressure blood
  • mechanoreceptors in penis stimulate this REFLEX PATHWAY
  • can also be triggered by sight, smell, odour
  • higher brain pathways can cause NO (nitric oxide) release from autonomic neurons causing relaxation of the smooth muscle of arterioles and an erection
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13
Q

What prevents retrograde ejaculation or urination in ejaculation?

A

The sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes before ejaculation

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14
Q

Describe the physiology of ejaculation:

A
  • stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the smooth muscle of the duct system
  • TWO PHASES:
  • > smooth muscle of epididymis, DD, prostatic ducts and seminal vesicles contracts and the sperm and secretions are emptied into the urethra
  • > 3ml of secretion with 300 million sperm is expelled from the urethra by contraction of urethral smooth muscle and penile skeletal muscle
  • is a reflex pathway also controlled by mechanoreceptors
  • rhythmic muscular contractions occur (orgasm) and BP and HR increase
  • there is a latent stage after ejaculation where a second erection is not possible
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15
Q

Describe the anatomy of the sperm:

A
  • head = contains nucleus and is covered by acrosome which is a protein filled vesicle containing several enzymes
  • midpiece = under the head and contains mitochondria providing the sperm with energy for movement
  • tail and end-piece = group of contractile axial filaments that produce whip-like movements and propel the sperm forwards at a rate of 1-4mm/min
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16
Q

Describe spermatogenesis in the male:

A
  • sperm are haploid and join with haploid egg forming full-complement embryo
  • spermatogenesis begins at puberty and continues until death
  • 100 million sperm are produced per day
  • formation of one sperm takes ~64 days
  • spermatogonia are the diploid germ cells that spermatozoa form from, and there are various types
  • spermatogonis divide into one new spermatogonia and a primary spermatocyte by mitosis (this is why supply of spermatogonia and sperm production never decreases)
  • primary spermatocytes become secondary spermatocytes by meiosis 1
  • secondary spermatocytes become spermatids by meiosis 2
  • spermatids undergo differentiation to form spermatozoa
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17
Q

Describe the types of spermatogonia and what they change into:

A
  • pale A -> mature into B spermatocytes
  • dark A -> divide into one dark A and one pale A
  • B spermatocytes -> mature into primary spermatocytes
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18
Q

Describe the number of chromosomes and number of chromatids in each of the developing sperm:

A

spermatogonia = 46 chromosomes and 2 chromatids
1 spermatocytes = 46 chromosomes and 2 chromatids
2 spermatocytes = 23 chromosomes and 2 chromatids
spermatids = 23 chromosomes and 1 chromatid
spermatozoa = 23 chromosomes and 1 chromatid

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19
Q

What happens in capacitation?

A

The ejaculated sperm cannot penetrate the oocyte until they undergo capacitation and the following changes occur in the uterine tubes:

  • > removal of glycoproteins covering the acrosome
  • > acrosomal enzymes activated and released
  • > plasma membrane of sperm altered to allow fusion with egg (membrane phospholipids reorganised)
  • > tail movements change from wave-like to whip-like giving the sperm stronger propulsion (due to influx of calcium)
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20
Q

What is the acrosome reaction?

A
  • is triggered when sperm head binds to the ZP of the egg
    1) PM of acrosome changes and acrosomal enzymes are exposed to the ZP
    2) acrosomal enzymes digest through the ZP and sperm progress using tail
    3) the first sperm to penetrate the ZP completely fuses with the egg’s PM
    4) the sperm then slowly enters the cytoplasm of the egg and the tail and outer coating of the sperm disintegrates
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21
Q

What are the sequence of steps in fertilisation?

A
  • egg released onto ovary surface
  • fimbriae on infundibulum of uterine tubes contract and egg is swept in
  • egg moves along uterine tube as cilia beat in direction towards the uterus (takes about 4 days)
  • semen deposited into vagina
  • cervical mucous becomes clear and stretchy to aid sperm movement up into the uterus
  • sperm take 1-2 days to reach uterus
  • only 100-200 sperm make it into the uterine tubes
  • sperm undergo capacitation
  • sperm moves between granulosa cells of oocyte and binds to ZP which has receptors for acrosomal proteins (this triggers acrosome reaction)
  • fertilisation is complete and oocyte completes meiosis 2
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22
Q

How is polyspermy prevented?

A

1 - membrane potential of egg changes after one sperm has bound
2 - cortical granules containing enzymes fuse with the PM after fertilisation and release their contents onto the ZP
3 - the ZP glycoproteins X-link and make a hard layer which is impermeable to sperm

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23
Q

Describe IUI and when it is used:

A
  • intrauterine insemination
  • for women with cervical defects, males with low sperm counts, erectile dysfunction, physical disability where intercourse is not possible, same sex couples etc.
  • sperm implanted into uterus using long tube
  • may be used in conjunction with female medications to stimulate ovulation
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24
Q

How does sperm donation work and when is it used?

A
  • for people with genetic, reduced sperm number or low sperm quality
  • IUI used to implant the sperm
  • if woman has normal ovulation, they are offered 6 cycles of donor insemination per year
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25
Q

What is the function of the “UK Guidelines for Medical Laboratory of Screening”?

A

To screen all donated eggs and sperm for infectious/genetic diseases

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26
Q

When is egg donation used?

A

Turner’s syndrome, premature menopause, ovarian failure, after chemo/radio therapy, to prevent transmission of genetic disease

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27
Q

When is cryptopreservation used?

A

used to preserve eggs/sperm before person has radio/chemotherapy which could make them infertile, or before they have a sex change

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28
Q

Describe the process of IVF and when it is used:

A
  • egg and sperm incubated together in lab to produce an embryo
  • used for infertile couples after 12 failed artificial insemination rounds

1) stimulation of egg maturation - woman takes FSH agonist to stimulate this and transvaginal ultrasound used to monitor egg development
2) hCG stimulates ovulation
3) egg retrieval - needle (guided with US) inserted through the vagina wall to the ovaries to suck eggs into the needle
4) fertilisation - carried out in lab if sperm are healthy, if not ICSI used.
5) embryo transfer - fertilised egg then placed back into the uterus 1-6 days later, embryo injected into the uterus and self-implants

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29
Q

What are the IVF success rates?

A
<35yrs = 32%
40-42yrs = 13%
44+yrs = 2%
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30
Q

What is ICSI?

A
  • intracytoplasmic sperm injection

- manually insert sperm into cytoplasm of egg, used in conjunction with IVF

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31
Q

What is surrogacy and what are the different types?

A
  • when a woman carried a baby for a couple who cannot conceive or carry child themselves e.g. same sex couple, IVF failure, premature menopause, hysterectomy, recurring miscarriage
  • Type 1 = traditional/straight: artificial insemination using surrogates own eggs, can be carried out in clinic or at home with insemination kit
  • Type 2 = host/gestational: IVF carried out with intended mothers eggs and then implanted into surrogate, always carried out in clinic
  • it is legal in the UK but there must be no 3rd party involved in a commercial basis
  • surrogate can only receive £ to cover the costs incurred with the process e.g. medications, time off work
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32
Q

Describe the surrogacy procedure:

A
  • egg collection and fertilisation occurs as it does in IVF in the lab
  • surrogate mother given oestrogen and progesterone to prepare her womb for the implantation
  • up to 2 embryos are implanted in the mother’s uterus and any remaining ones are frozen for future use
  • pregnancy test carried out
  • 6 weeks after +ve pregnancy test, the surrogate’s GP is informed
  • if not pregnant and procedure is unsuccessful, surrogate stops medications and will undergo a heavier than normal period
  • a meeting can be held with the relevant parties to discuss another transfer, but one month must be waited after a failed attempt before any further treatment can be continued
33
Q

What are the ethical considerations around surrogacy?

A
  • surrogacy children have access to their birth certificates once they are adults
  • heterosexual couples can apply for parental order through HFE (human fertilisation and embryology) Act 2008
  • parental orders must be completed within 6 months of the surrogate giving birth and the surrogate must give consent
  • emotional attachment
  • extended family of surrogate and expectant parents become attached and emotionally effected
34
Q

What makes up the holy triad of reproductive physiology?

A

1 - ovary
2 - uterine tubes
3 - sperm

35
Q

What are the W.H.O. defined parameters for semen quality and how long must abstinence be carried out before analysis?

A
  • 1.5ml sample
  • pH ~ 7.2
  • 15million sperm per ml semen
  • 39 million per ejaculate
  • 40% of sperm in sample are motile
  • 58% of sperm in the sample are alive
  • 4% os sperm in the sample are normal form
  • 3-5 days of abstinence
36
Q

What are the three groups people with anovulation can be classified into?

A

1) athlete (10% of people with anovulation) = hypothalamic pituitary failure
2) average person (85%) = have hypothalamic, pituitary, ovarian failure
3) irreversible genetic abnormality e.g. turner’s syndrome (5%) = have ovarian failure

37
Q

What would you include in a history of someone with fertility issues?

A
  • age
  • menstrual pattern
  • FH
  • past injuries
  • smoking/alcohol/drugs
  • females: parity, LMP, smear tests
38
Q

What is parity?

A

The number of times a woman has given birth to a child of 24 weeks gestation or more, alive or stillborn

39
Q

Why is a hysteron-salpingo contrast used?

A
  • can be used with USS or X-ray

- to assess if uterine tubes are healthy or to look for leakage of dye that looks abnormal

40
Q

How do the testes develop?

A
  • SRY and SOX9 genes control testes development
  • AMH is produced by the sertoli cells and causes regression of female structures (paramesonephric ducts)
  • testes develop from indifferent gonad
  • duct system of testes comes from mesonephros and mesonephric system (i.e. to make ductus deferens)
  • tunica vaginalis and scrotum are extensions of the abdominal cavity as the testes descend
41
Q

Describe the anatomy of the inguinal canal and what is transmits:

A
  • transmits spermatic cord in males and round ligament of uterus in females (gubernaculum)
  • 4cm long
  • lies superior to medial half of inguinal ligament
  • has superficial and deep ring
    4 WALLS:
  • upper wall = 2 muscles
    -> internal oblique Muscle
    -> transverse abdominus Muscle
  • anterior wall = 2 aponeurosis
  • > Aponeurosis of internal oblique
  • > Aponeurosis of external oblique
  • lower wall = 2 ligaments
  • > inguinal Ligament
  • > lacunar Ligament
  • posterior wall = 2T’s
  • > transversalis fascia
  • > conjoint tendon
42
Q

How do they testes descend?

A
  • develop beside mesonephros as an intra-abdominal organ
  • must descend as they need to remain 1-2 degrees cooler than the internal organs
  • descent controlled by physical and hormonal factors
  • CRANIAL SUSPENSORY LIGAMENT - anchors each testes at upper pole
  • GUBERNACULUM - anchors each testes at lower pole
  • > both these ligaments are derived from urogenital mesentery
  • in weeks 8-15 pregnancy, INSL-3 (from leydig cells) and AMH (from sertoli cells) are made and cause gubernaculum to swell
  • inguinoscrotal phase: descent of the testes from the inguinal ring to the scrotum
  • > controlled by androgens and CGRP (calcitonin gene related peptide)
  • > causes gubernaculum to shorten and migrate
  • testes reach scrotum a few weeks before birth
  • testosterone controls the final stages of descent between weeks 28-35 (so often undescended testes are common in premature boys)
43
Q

What would an indirect inguinal hernia feel like?

A

You cannot get your hand above it

44
Q

What is a varicocele and what does it feel like?

A

Enlarged squidgy veins at the back of the testicle, feels like bag of worms

45
Q

What is orchitis?

A

Infection causing large swollen testes

46
Q

What is epididymitis?

A

infection causing swollen epididymis, can lead to orchitis

47
Q

What is a hydrocoele?

A

Collection of fluid between the tunica vaginalis parietal visceral and parietal layers

48
Q

What clinical disorders can reduced leydig cell function lead to?

A
  • impaired testosterone and INSL3 secretion

- hypospadius and cryptorchidism

49
Q

What clinical disorders can reduced sertoli cell function lead to?

A
  • diminished capacity to nurture germ cells = infertility and testicular cancer
50
Q

Describe cryptorchidism:

A
  • undescended testes
  • can have long term consequences causing infertility or cancer
  • testes may be found on delayed normal route or ectopically
  • retracticle testes = move back and forth between scrotum and groin
  • acensus testes = ascent of testes after normal position at birth
51
Q

What are risk factors for cryptorchidism?

A
  • <2.5kg birth weight
  • maternal diabetes (gestational or other)
  • placental insufficiency
  • chemicals
  • smoking
52
Q

How would you investigate suspected cryptorchidism?

A
  • US
  • CT
  • MRI
  • karyotyping to check gender
  • biochemical tests
53
Q

How would you treat cryptorchidism?

A

1) operations by laparoscopy in 2 stages:
- > testes brought down to inguinal canal
- > testes brought down to scrotum
- short term complications = infection, pain, haematoma
- long term complications = testicular atrophy, recurrent cryptorchidism

2) hormonal = hCG stimulation and GnRH may cause natural descent
- can have side effects of: penile growth, pain, groin pain, inflammation, reduced testicular volume in adulthood

54
Q

Describe hypospadius:

A
  • ectopically placed urethral meatus which lies proximal on the ventral aspect of the penis
  • other common features include: chordee and hooded foreskin
  • the more proximal the opening the more difficult to repair (parents advised not to circumcise as the foreskin can be used for grafting in repair)
55
Q

What can cause hypospadius?

A
  • hormone fluctuations
  • IVF
  • advanced maternal age
  • teratogens/endocrine disruptors
  • genetics
  • reduced androgen sensitivity
56
Q

How is hypospadius treated?

A
  • surgery (with complications of strictures, scarring and fistulas)
  • hormonal treatment used prior to surgery to encourage penis growth (testosterone cream)
57
Q

What are the various names and positions of where hypospadius can occur?

A

1) glandular - on glans just under normal position
2) coronal - just under glans
3) midshaft
4) periscrotal - just where scrotum starts
5) scrotal
6) perineal - where scrotum joins body

58
Q

What is DSD?

A
  • disorders of sex development
  • an umbrella term for any congenital condition where development of the anatomical/gonadal/chromosomal sex is abnormal
  • may require psychosocial management and therapy for patient and family
59
Q

What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A
  • no 21-alpha-OHase enzyme = cortisol not made
  • negative feedback occurs and so XS DHT and testosterone are made
  • has no serious effects on males but can cause females to become masculinised
60
Q

What is 5-alpha reductase deficiency?

A
  • testosterone CANNOT be converted into DHT due to lack of 5-alpha reductase enzyme
  • causes feminisation of external genitalia
  • at puberty, hormone changes cause male features like deep voice to develop and can be confusion emotionally and physiologically
  • can be mistaken as female and then grow penis at puberty
61
Q

What is the difference between equality and diversity?

A

‘Diversity’ = acknowledgement of alterity (difference) between people including their cultural beliefs, individuality, community race etc.

‘Equality’ = fairness of opportunity between people, ensuring they are not being discriminated against because of their alterity

62
Q

How does diversity relate to equity?

A

‘Equity’ = being ‘fair’ in the sense of treating equals equally and unequals unequally e.g. people with higher paid job pay more tax, and people from better school’s have more challenges getting into university

63
Q

What is prejudice?

A

“a preconception without any experience or evidence”

- people can be discriminated against because of prejudice

64
Q

What are the 5 stages of allport’s prejudice scale and where can the law intervene?

A

1) anti-locution (saying something against someone)
2) avoidance
3) discrimination *government can intervene here
4) violence
5) murder

65
Q

What are the 9 diversity strands protected in law?

A
  • age
  • disability
  • marriage and civil partnerships
  • religion and belief
  • sex
  • sexual orientation
  • race and ethnicity
  • pregnancy and maternity
  • gender assignment
66
Q

What is an example of discrimination in clinical practice?

A
  • elderly patient can be easily discriminated against:
  • > talking over as if not there
  • > left in soiled clothes etc.
67
Q

Describe 6 categories of discrimination?

A
  • direct (treating someone less favourably due to protected characteristic)
  • indirect (putting someone at unfair disadvantage because of protected characteristic)
  • associative (due to someone elses protected characteristic)
  • perceived (discriminating someone because you ‘believe’ they have a protected characteristic)
  • harrassment = violating someone’s dignity
  • victimisation = detriment to a person making use of the equality act 2010
68
Q

What people are always classed as ‘disabled’ no matter the circumstances?

A
  • MS patients
  • cancer patients
  • HIV patients
69
Q

Where does the inguinal ligament run from/to?

A
  • from ASIS to pubic tubercle
70
Q

Where is the deep inguinal ring?

A

at transverse fascia

71
Q

Where is the superficial inguinal ring?

A

at external oblique muscle

72
Q

What are the coverings of the spermatic cord?

A
  • internal spermatic fascia
  • cremasteric fascia and muscle
  • external spermatic fascia
73
Q

How can abdominal wall weaknesses lead to herniation of the inguinal canal?

A

angle of inguinal canal protects against herniation as the inguinal rings are off set
- raised intra-abdominal pressure causes the rings to move position and no longer be off-set and this can increase the herniation risk

74
Q

What is a direct inguinal hernia?

A
  • abdominal wall is weak and abdominal contents herniate through weak spot of posterior wall (transversalis fascia)
75
Q

What is an indirect inguinal hernia?

A

abdominal contents protrude through deep inguinal ring, lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels

76
Q

Describe the anatomy of the femoral triangle:

A
  • hernias can also commonly occur here
  • base = inguinal canal
  • medial border = lateral border of adductor longus muscle
  • lateral border = sartorius muscle
  • apex = where sartorius and adductor longus cross
77
Q

What does the male gubernaculum become?

A

Deep ring of inguinal ligament

78
Q

What does the female gubernaculum become?

A

Round ligament of ovary