People and illness Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the 7 steps in the metastatic cascade:

A
  1. Local invasion
  2. Neovascularisation/angiogenesis
  3. Detachment
  4. Intravasation
  5. Transport in blood or lymph
  6. Lodgement/arrest
  7. Growth at ectopic site
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2
Q

Describe the 7 steps of metastases:

A
  1. Reduced cell to cell adhesion = E.caadherin
  2. Altered cell to substratum adhesion = Integrins
  3. Increased motility = HGF
  4. Increased proteolytic ability = serine proteases and MMP’s
  5. Angiogenesis = VEGF
  6. Intra/extravasation = acting like WBC’s
  7. Proliferation in local/ectopic environments = TME (tumour microenvironment)
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3
Q

Describe step 1 = Reduced cell to cell adhesion = E-cadherin

A
  • e-cadherins are proteins that form zips at cells adherens junctions
  • e-cadherins bind to alpha/beta catenin molecules inside cells which are attached to the actin/myosin cytoskeleton
  • Calcium is needed to e-cad molecules to bind
  • the higher a tumour grade, the less e-cad binding there is between the tumour cells
  • in some carcinoma cells, e-cad promoter genes have been inactivated
  • metatasis occurs when:
    1. Mutations in e-cad
    2. Mutations in interacting proteins e.g. B-catenin
    3. Mutations in the transcription factors that switch E-cad on/off
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4
Q

Describe step 2 = Altered cell to substratum adhesion = Integrins

A
  • integrins are cell adhesions molecules found on plasma membranes of cells that bind to extracellular matrix molecules
  • they are heterodimers (made of 24 combinations of alpha/beta subunits)
  • integrins can be expressed on tumour cells
  • they allow attachment/detachment points and cells can be motile, are found in hemi/desmosomes
  • metastasis occurs when:
    1. reduced integrin binding to BM
    2. increased cell motility and migration through stroma
    3. increased cell adhesion to blood vessels
    4. integrins can provide binding points on cell membranes for proteolytic enzymes to work
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5
Q

Describe step 3 = Increased motility = HGF

A
  • hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) = scatter factor = induces epithelial cells to dissociate and migrate and become invasive
  • it is a mitogen (GF), morphogen (developmental role) and motogen (motility factor)
  • produced by stroma cells within the microenvironment
  • C-met is an RTK on tumour cells
  • C-met on tumour cell epithelium can bind to HGF on stromal cells and this causes increased phosphorylation of B-catenin molecules in the cell and causes disrupted e-cad adhesion
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6
Q

Describe step 4 = Increased proteolytic ability = serine proteases and MMP’s

A

SERINE PROTEASES:
- secreted by cell in tumour microenvironment and bind to receptors on tumour cell to help them move about

MMP’s: e.g. collagenases, stromelysins - (MMP3)
- produced by white blood cells
- involved in tissue and wound repair
- secreted as zymogens and tightly regulated as transcription factors
- MMP’s structurally similar to integrins -> MMP’s can bind to integrin receptors and allow tumour cells to be picked up and transported through stroma
Metastasis occurs when:
- tumour cells stimulate stromal cells to make MMP’s
- tumour cells can then bind to MMP’s through integrin receptors -> allowing tumour to break away and invade other body areas

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7
Q

Describe step 5 = Angiogenesis = VEGF

A
  • cells in necrotic core make HIF (hypoxia induceable factor)
  • HIF causes tumour cells to make VEGF
  • VEGF picks up epithelial cells with the VEGF receptor in the stroma
  • coagulation occurs around the tumour and a fibrin clot forms
  • fibrin clot = net that vascular endothelial cells can bind to and migrate on and start dividing on
  • endothelial cells can bind to MMP’s/integrins and move through the stroma to reach this fibrin net and then form new blood vessels which supply the tumour
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8
Q

Describe step 6 = Intra/extravasation = acting like WBC’s

A
  • cells that are metastasising copy the properties of other cells that migrate in the body e.g. WBC’s
    1) rolling adhesion: specific receptors on metastasising cells bind to selectin on endothelial cells
    2) tight binding: integrins on metastasising cells bind to ICAM’s on endothelial cells
    3) diapedesis when adhesions between cells weaken and cancer cells can move through and spread
    4) migration then occurs due to attraction by chemokines or other factors in the TME
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9
Q

Describe step 7 = Proliferation in local/ectopic environments = TME (tumour microenvironment)

A
  • there are various cells in a TME that include fibroblasts, pericytes and they may secrete GF’s, chemokines and enzymes
  • these cells and chemicals can work for/against the tumour to stop/aid metastasis
    1) seed-soil hypothesis: tumour cell is seed and TME is soil, both must be compatible for growth
    2) mechanical hypothesis: due to vascular and lymph pathways tumour cells will naturally be picked up and spread in a certain way
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10
Q

Which drug blocks VEGF binding and tries to stop tumour metastasis by preventing the growth of new blood vessels?

A

Avastin (bevacizumab) = a monoclonal antibody

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11
Q

What is BRAF and its normal function?

A
  • a human oncogene that encodes for the protein B-RAF
  • member of the MAP-kinase pathway
  • BRAF mutations seen in 60-70% melanomas
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12
Q

Describe the MAP kinase pathway and the involvement of BRAF in this:

A

1 - ligand binds to portion of RTK outside the membrane
2 - dimerisation and autophosphorylation of tyrosine portions of the RTK
3 - GRB2 (growth factor receptor bound protein 2) can bind to RTK and be phosphorylated
4 - various other secondary messengers are then activated (SOS) and eventually RAS is activated
5 - RAS activation involves change of bound GDP -> GTP
6 - Once activated, RAS can bind to other effector proteins and activate them (BRAF)
- BRAF phosphorylates and activates MEK
MEK then activates ERK (extracellular signal regulated kinases) by phosphorylation
- eventually nuclear transcription and gene expression can occur
- cell proliferation is stimulated
- normally BRAF- RAS-GTP complex is inactivated shortly after activation to stop continuous stimulation of MAP-K pathway and to stop uncontrolled cell proliferation

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13
Q

Describe how the MAP-kinase pathway is disrupted when there is a BRAF mutation:

A
  • in the mutation the BRAF-RAS-GTP complex is not inactivated and BRAF continues to activate and phosphorylate proteins downstream in the MAP-kinase cascade and there is continual uncontrolled cell proliferation
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14
Q

What is vemurafinib? (vem-yoo-raf-enib)

A
  • causes programmed cell death in melanoma cell lines
  • only effective in the V600 BRAF mutation where the amino acid at position 600 which is normally valine, has been replaced by glutamic acid
  • vemurafinib is a BRAF inhibitor and binds to the ATP binding sites of BRAF to slow cell growth and shrink tumours
    SIDE EFFECTS:
  • sensitivity to sun
  • vomiting
  • headaches
  • tired
  • hair thinning
  • taste changes
  • constipation
  • liver changes
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15
Q

How does normal immune surveillance of cancer work throughout our bodies?

A

3 phases of immune surveillance:
1) Elimination - body attacks and destroys any abnormal cells, uses innate (NK, phagocytes, dendritic cells) and adaptive (T and B lymphoytes, APC’s) to do this
2) Equilibrium - when tumours are unstable and fast growing, tumours are struggling to be kept under control by the body and are not being completely eradicated
IMMUNOEDITING OCCURS allowing the tumoutrs to start to thrive:
- loss of expression of specific antigens on tumour surface so they hide and an immune response cannot be mounted against them
- tumour cells stimulate host cells to make MMP’s which they can bind to and migrate about
- tumours express molecules to attract T-regulatory cells which switch off genes that produce protective factors in the cell cycle and allow cell proliferation
3) Escape - tumour evades normal immune control and clinical cancer develops with large uncontrolled tumours that undergo metastasis
- there are too many tumour cells for NK cells and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes to handle

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16
Q

What are the two branches of immunotherapy that can be used in to treat cancer and how do they work?

A

1) Non-cellular therapies (passive therapies) harness immune system components like cytokines and antibodies
2) Cellular = target specific cells in the body e.g. T-cells, stem cells

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17
Q

Describe the 9 non-cellular therapies, briefly describing how each works:

A

1) Cytokine therapy with interferons, IF type 1 are good for chronic myeloid leukaemia and make cancers more visible to the immune system by up-regulating MHC class 1 expression, multiple dosing needed and have flu like symptoms
2) IL-2 causes T-cells to grow and proliferate and attack the cancer, can also attach poison onto IL2 molecule so that certain cancers which have IL2 receptor will also be killed by the poison when they bind IL2
3) Bacteria injection = causes big inflammatory immune response
4) TLR- mediated immunity = TLR’s are found on IMMUNE cells and recognise PAMP’s on pathogens and cancerous cells. Can use drugs which are TLR’s to increase the innate response to infection
5) Vaccines - against certain proteins in the cancer e.g. HPV
6) Monoclonal antibodies - made against antigen on cancer, antigens on molecules in the TME needed for the cancer to survive, or antigens on receptors that are inhibiting the immune system and allowing cancers to thrive e.g. bevacizumab
7) PD inhibitors - healthy cells express PDL1 (programmed death ligand 1) to tell the immune system not to attack as they are good cells and the PDL1 binds to PD1 receptors on T cells = the T cells know not to attack. Make antibodies to block PD1 on T cells so that T cells destroy everything, or make PDL1 blockers so that T cells cannot recognise healthy or bad cells
8) Checkpoint inhibitors - when healthy cell binds to a T-cell, it tells the T cell to make CLTA4 = checkpoint molecule that switches off T cell. Tumour cells can tell T-cells to make CTLA4 and switch them off. Anti-CTLA4 drugs boost T-cell activity
9) BITE: bi-specific T-cell engagers = ‘glue’ = take an antibody that binds to receptor on T cells and stick it to an antibody that binds to receptor on tumour cells

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18
Q

Describe the two main cellular therapies used:

A

1) Engineering T cells: T-cells made with tumour receptor attached to them, issues as receptor can be too general and adverse effects caused in the body

2) Stem cell therapies: use of autogenic (self) or allogenic (from someone else)
- stem cells collected from bone marrow
- tumour cells killed off with radio/chemotherapy
- stem cells re-implanted and cause components of the immune system to reform and healthy new leukocytes are made to replace the cancerous ones and replenish the immune system

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19
Q

What is depression and describe clinical features?

A

3 core features

  • low mood
  • anhedonia
  • low energy
  • cognitive features: slow thought, suicidal thoughts, poor concentration and attention
  • biological symptoms: disturbed sleep, low appetite, low libido, low energy, constipation, amenorrhoea
  • psychotic symptoms: delusions, hallucinations
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20
Q

What factors are involved in causing/maintaining depression?

A

1) Biological - genetics
2) Psychological - behavioural, cognition distortions (maximisation of bad things, minimisation of good things)
3) Social - predisposing factors (family had it), precipitating factors (death)
- neurochemical theories with dopamine, serotonin and noradrenaline imbalances
- neuroendocrine theories with hypo -> pituitary -> adrenal/thyroid axis dysfunction

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21
Q

What are the treatment options available for depression?

A

1) Biological - various drugs (see other card)
2) Psychological - behavioural therapy where goals are set, CBT where you keep a diary, psychodynamic psychotherapy where you review the past with an aim to change the future
3) Social - housing, finances, family, relationship councelling

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22
Q

What is psychotic depression?

A

Depression + delusions/hallucinations

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23
Q

How do you diagnose depression?

A

ILD diagnosis criteria = 1 of the 3 defining features present every day for 2 weeks (only for one week of psychotic symptoms are also present)

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24
Q

How do you diagnose depression?

A

ILD diagnosis criteria = 1 of the 3 defining features present every day for 2 weeks (only for one week of psychotic symptoms are also present)

  • good history
  • blood tests (anaemia/thyroid issues)
  • other medication causes (OCP)
  • CT scan
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25
Q

Describe 5 drugs types that can be used to treat depression, name one and briefly how each works:

A

1) SSRI’s = sertraline = selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors = more serotonin in synapses
2) Tricyclic antidepressants = amytryptiline => increase NA and serotonin and reduce ACh to restore balance
3) SNRI’s = venlaflaxine
4) NASSA’s (noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants) = mirtazepine
5) NARI’s (noradrenergic reuptake inhibitors) = roboxetine

  • all have side effects of nausea, vomiting, weight gain, sweating
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26
Q

What are the effects of noradrenaline?

A

Stress

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27
Q

What are the effects of serotonin?

A

Sleep, eat, sexual drive and mood

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28
Q

What are effects of dopamine?

A

Reward and pleasure

29
Q

Describe the epidemiology of depression:

A
  • 2 females to 1 male

- one of the leading causes of worldwide disability

30
Q

Describe the chromosome abnormality in chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML):

A
  • Philadelphia chromosome forms as part of a translocation mutation
  • break in chromosomes 9 and 22
  • small part of cr9 joins with large part of cr22 and this is the philadelphia chromosome
  • the formation of this abnormal chromosome means that there are two genes next to each other that encode for different proteins
  • this leads to a FUSION PROTEIN being formed called bcr-acl (bcr from 22 and abl from 9)
  • this bcr-abl protein is the driving force in CML and this protein combination is a constant on switch that allows uncontrolled cell proliferation
  • abl is a kinase enzyme that phosphorylates proteins and leads to cell proliferation
31
Q

Describe how imatinib works:

A
  • you can target abl due to its dependence on ATP
  • imatinib sticks to the ATP binding sites on the brc-abl protein, ATP can not get in and the cancer processes are switched off
32
Q

Why is castration a good treatment for prostate cancer?

A
  • castration = removal of testes
  • the testosterone that is normally produced by the testes is what prostate growth and development is dependent on
  • castration is an example of targeted therapy e.g. you are not just targeting all metabolically active cells in the body with chemo/radiotherapy
33
Q

What are the advantages of targeted treatments?

A
  • more selective for cancer cells and less harm to normal cells
  • less side effects
  • higher doses can be given so potentially have more anti-cancer effects
34
Q

Describe personalised/precision medicine:

A
  • take a large groups of people and test them for the mutation on one specific gene
  • if they have one specific gene mutation then they can get a strong targeted drug
  • you can screen a large population to select certain suitable individuals and so the rest get chemo/radio therapy but some get specific therapy with less side effects
35
Q

What is a predictive marker?

A
  • a marker predicting which patients benefit from specific treatment
  • helps you choose which drug to use
36
Q

What is a prognostic marker?

A
  • something that tells you about the outcomes, regardless of treatment
  • a test that tells you how long a patient will live or not live
  • can help you decide which patients are most in need of treatment
37
Q

What are issues with precision medicine?

A
  • for 70-75% patients there is not a targeted drug available and they will have to get generalised chemotherapy/radiotherapy
38
Q

What are oncogenes and why are they targeted in cancer therapies?

A

Kinases that are over activated to cause cancer = cause uncontrolled cell proliferation

They are easy to target as you just need to make them less active/switch them off, whereas it is very difficult to target something like TSG as it is harder to replace or fix something that is missing

39
Q

What is a major barrier to cancer therapies?

A
  • drug resistance
  • > eventually CML patients taking imatinib become resistant to it and the cancer learns to overcome the drug
  • eventually kinase mutations emerge that mean the drug no longer sticks to the brc-abl complex and the abl-kinase remains active
40
Q

What is the mental state exam?

A
  • basic assessment of a persons current state of mind
  • includes normal psychiatric history taking with added questions and observations
  • standardised format
  • records symptoms and their severity
41
Q

What is the standardised format of the mental state exam?

A

“A Sudden Movement Though Protective Can Injure”

  • appearance and behaviour
  • speech
  • mood and affect
  • thought form and content
  • perception
  • cognition
  • insight
42
Q

What is assessed in appearance and behaviour?

A
  • ethnicity
  • age
  • are they well kempt?
  • evidence of self neglect?
  • are they physically unwell?
  • how do they act?
  • motor activity?
  • eye contact
  • body language
43
Q

What is assessed in speech?

A

Purely sound

  • rate and quantity
  • volume
  • rhythm
  • volume
  • tone
  • spontaneity
44
Q

What is assessed in mood and affect?

A
  • subjective (how they person tells you they are feeling) and objective (your impression of their mood)
  • affect = the moment to moment changes in their emotions that you observe e.g. do they laugh at appropriate times?
45
Q

What is assessed in thought form and content?

A
  • pattern of their thoughts, logical, flight of ideas

- thought content = are they delusional, suicidal, have an over-valued idea?

46
Q

What is assessed in perception?

A
  • what the patient tells you vs what you observe
  • hallucinations (perception without external stimuli)
  • illusion (false perception of a real stimuli e.g. seeing a person in a shadow)
47
Q

What is assessed in cognition?

A
  • is patient alert and orientated

- are they able to maintain concentration and attention during the interview

48
Q

What is assessed in insight?

A
  • the patients understanding of their presentation and need for treatment e.g. do they think they need treatment/admission to hospital?
49
Q

What are the 5 types of delusion?

A
  • paranoid (perceived threat from others)
  • grandiose (overestimating your abilities/special powers)
  • nilihistic (believing you are dead/do not exist)
  • delusions of reference (believing a TV programme is about you)
50
Q

What are the stages of change experienced after something like depression/death/grief?

A
1 - denial
2 - anger
3 - bargaining
4 - depression
5 - acceptance
6 - numbness
7 - pining
8 - disorganisation and despair
9 - reorganisation
51
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs?

A
  • bone marrow

- thymus

52
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

A
  • spleen
  • lymph nodes
  • tonsils
  • mucosa associated lymphoid tissue
53
Q

What is Di George’s syndrome?

A
  • congenital condition where a child is born without any thymus and they cannot mount an immune response
54
Q

Describe the anatomy of a lymph node:

A
  • bean shaped structures no larger than 5mm long
  • surrounded by capsule
  • afferent (incoming) and efferent (outgoing) lymphatic vessels
  • under capsule there is a subcapsular sinus and then the outer cortex, then deep cortex and then medulla
  • medula contains medullary cords and medullary sinuses
  • there is also a nodal artery and vein
  • there are trabeculae in the lymph node = inward extensions of the subcapsular sinus
55
Q

What is the first regional lymph node of an area?

A
  • the first lymph node reached by lymph vessels draining an area, common first sight for cancer to spread to
56
Q

Where are T lymphocytes found in the lymph node?

A

Deep cortex

57
Q

Where are B lymphocytes found in the lymph node?

A
  • medullary cords and outer cortex
58
Q

Describe the composition of the cortex of the lymph node:

A
  • made of densely packed small lymphocytes
59
Q

Describe the composition of the medulla of the lymph node:

A

inner zone made of strands of lymphoid tissue (medullary cords) and these branch with neighbouring strands forming mesh

60
Q

How does lymph flow through the lymph node?

A
  • can move round edge of subcapsular space and enter through to the medulla at the hilum
  • can flow through cortical sinuses allowing lymph to pass from the cortex to the medulla more directly
61
Q

Why are lymphatic vessels needed and where is lymph collected in the body?

A
  • to reabsorb fluid and protein that has not been reabsorbed back into blood vessels, and to return the fluid to the bloodstream
  • lymph is collected in the thoracic duct (then enters bloodstream where internal jugular vein meets subclavian vein at root of neck)
62
Q

How does filtration occur in lymph nodes?

A

1) Mechanical filtration
- when lymph from afferent vessels discharges into subcapsular sinus, it suddenly slows down as it is entering an area of much larger volume
- then when lymph reached medulla area the volume is even larger and cellular debris falls out

2) Biological filtration
- the cellular debris that has fallen out then gets digested by phagocytes and other immune cells

63
Q

How do you know if a lymphoid organ is active or not?

A
  • if there are lymphatic nodules present

lymphatic nodules = cortical nodules = lymphoid nodules

64
Q

Describe how a lymphoid nodule forms and its different parts:

A
  • lymphoid nodule formed from dividing B lymphocytes
  • antigen enters body, is picked up by APC’s and presented to T lymphocytes
  • T lymphocyte signals to B lymphocyte to start dividing = cluster of B cells formed
  • lymphoid nodule = germinal centre + cap (thicker area facing capsule)
  • light pole facing cortex where infection is, and dark pole facing medulla where macrophages, lymphocytes and APC’ are found
  • memory B cells are formed from lymphatic nodules and move to the medullary cords to finish their differentiation to plasma cells that are capable of secreting large amounts of AB in response to recurrent infection in the body
65
Q

Describe the immunological role of the spleen:

A
  • purple areas on slide = white pulp (would be white in a fresh sample)
  • red areas on slide = red pulp
  • small artery always runs through the WHITE PULP
  • if infection is present a lymphoid nodule may form within the white pulp
66
Q

What makes a tonsil different to areas of MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue)?

A
  • the tonsil has deep crypts = invaginations of the surface epithelium
67
Q

Is it primary or secondary lymphatic organs that are involved in the immune response?

A

Secondary

68
Q

Describe the immune role of the thymus:

A
  • 5cm wide x 4cm long x 6mm thick at birth
  • organ enlarges in childhood, then regresses in puberty
  • programmes T lymphocytes that have been made in bone marrow
  • there is a thymus-blood brain barrier and the central thymic cortex area is kept constant
  • cells of thymus release their contents into the central cortex to allow T-cells to mature in the right environment