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1538 - Test 2 (Reproduction + Human Development) > Reproduction Quizzes > Flashcards

Reproduction Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

The first period of reactivity in newborn transition extends to 8 hours after birth and is characterized by stabilization to extrauterine life.

A

FALSE

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2
Q

At 1 minute after birth an infant has a heart rate of 94, weak cry, some flexion of extremities, grimace, and pink body with blue extremities. What is the priority action of the nurse?

A

CALL FOR THE NEONATAL RESUSCITATION TEAM

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3
Q

Slight nasal flaring with a respiratory rate of 24 are expected findings in the term neonate.

A

FALSE

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4
Q

The nurse’s assessment of an infant 1 hour after birth reveals a fluid filled area on the scalp that crosses suture lines. What education does the nurse provide the parents? Select all that apply.

A
  • this swelling typically resolves without causing problems
  • the babys scalp has a small amount of swelling
  • the swelling is caused by the babys head resting on the cervix during birth
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5
Q

A short lingual frenulum is an expected finding in the term neonate.

A

FALSE

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6
Q

By the third day of life, the term neonate should have 6-8 wet diapers per day.

A

TRUE

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7
Q

The term neonate is expected to lose up to what percentage of weight following birth?

A

10%

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8
Q

What reflexes are expected in the term infant? Select all that apply.

A
  • plantar
  • babinski
  • moro
  • rooting
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9
Q

Physiological jaundice of the newborn is a common finding in term newborns and is visible during the first 24 hours after birth.

A

FALSE

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10
Q

What comfort measures are appropriate for the infant experiencing a circumcision procedure? Select all that apply.

A
  • provide oral sucrose solution on a pacifier
  • apply topical lidocaine before the procedure as ordered
  • prepare supplies for lidocaine injection by the provider of care
  • swaddle the upper body
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11
Q

Placenta previa is characterized by bright painless bleeding after 20 weeks gestation. True or false.

A

TRUE

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12
Q

What are the risk factors for placenta previa? Select all that apply.

A
  • large placenta
  • smokes
  • previous surgical delivery
  • advanced maternal age (AMA)
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13
Q

A woman has a surgical delivery due to placenta previa. Her contracted uterus after surgery will prevent uterine hemorrhage. True or false

A

TRUE

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14
Q

Placental abruption describes the condition where the placenta completely separates from the uterine wall. True or false.

A

FALSE

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15
Q

When vasa previa occurs, the fetal vessels are covered in Wharton’s jelly. True or false.

A

FALSE

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16
Q

A woman who has experienced gestational trophoblastic disease must use a reliable form of _____________ for at least 1 year after treatment. Fill in the blank.

A

CONTRACEPTION

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17
Q

Expectant care vs. active management of placental abruption is determined by fetal maturity and ____________ ____________. Fill in the blanks.

A

BLOOD LOSS

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18
Q

A woman being actively managed for placental abruption receives an indwelling catheter to keep the bladder empty. True or false.

A

FALSE

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19
Q

What are the risk factors for abnormal placental attachment? Select all that apply.

A
  • 35 years of age +
  • previous surgical delivery
  • smoking
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20
Q

Nuchal cord is a serious and rare occurrence in vaginal deliveries. True or false.

A

FALSE

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21
Q

When would the nurse anticipate giving Rh(o) D immune globulin? Select all that apply.

A
  • Rh- woman experiencing a miscarriage at 10 weeks
  • Rh- pregnant woman at 27 weeks gestation (receive at 26-28 weeks gestation)
  • Adult Rh- female who received Rh+ blood by transfusion
  • Rh- mother who gave birth to a Rh+ infant 20 hours ago(receive within 72 hours of birth)
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22
Q

A Rh- woman in her first pregnancy does not need to receive the Rh(o)D immune globulin

A

FALSE

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23
Q

Fetal RBCs may enter the maternal bloodstream at birth through the placenta or during placental disruption.

A

TRUE

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24
Q

If the Rh- woman in her first pregnancy does not receive Rh(o) D immune globulin at 26-28 weeks gestation, she will make antibodies that will attack the RBCs of the current fetus.
Group of answer choices

A

FALSE

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25
Q

What are the effects of Rh incompatibility and RBC attack by maternal antibodies on the fetus? Select all that apply.

A
  • mental impairment
  • anasarca
  • cardia failure
  • hydrops fetalis
  • hemolytic disease of newborn
  • erythroblastosis fetalis
  • jaundice
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26
Q

When applying a condom, an empty space should be created at the tip and air should be removed by gently pressing air out toward the base. True or false.

A

TRUE

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27
Q

Women with a history of frequent urinary tract infections or latex allergy should not use a diaphragm for contraception. True or false.

A

TRUE

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28
Q

The contraceptive sponge does not need any preparation prior to use. True or false.

A

FALSE

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29
Q

If a woman forgets to take 1 oral contraceptive pill, she needs to take 2 pills a day for 2 days and no backup method is needed. True or false.

A

FALSE

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30
Q

What symptoms require the woman to stop taking the oral contraceptive pill immediately? Select all that apply.

A
  • headaches
  • eye problems
  • abd pain
  • chest pain
  • severe leg pain
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31
Q

What symptoms require the woman to stop taking the oral contraceptive pill immediately? Select all that apply.

A

TRUE

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32
Q

The contraceptive patch may be placed anywhere on the torso and changed weekly for 3 weeks followed by a patch-free week. True or false.

A

FALSE

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33
Q

The contraceptive rod is inserted in the inner aspect of the non-dominant upper arm and prevents most ovulatory cycles. True or false.

A

TRUE

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34
Q

Emergency contraception is most effective if taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. True or false.

A

TRUE

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35
Q

What are the signs that a woman with an intrauterine device needs to abstain from intercourse and see her healthcare provider right away? Select all that apply.

A
  • period late, abnormal bleeding
  • string missing, shorter or longer
  • infection exposure
  • abd pain
  • not felling well, fever
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36
Q

Preterm labor is predictable based on identifiable risk factors in the pregnant woman. True or false.

A

FALSE

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37
Q

Pelvic pressure and a dull backache in a pregnant woman in the second trimester are signs of false labor. True or false.

A

FALSE

38
Q

A pregnant woman at 27 weeks gestation presents to the clinic with painless contractions every 8 minutes for the past 2 hours. Cervical exam reveals dilation at 2 cm with 80% effacement. This patient is experiencing preterm labor. true or false.

A

TRUE

39
Q

Feral fibronectin is detectable with a cervical swab at any time during a healthy pregnancy. True or false.

A

FALSE

40
Q

Magnesium sulfate is used in preterm labor primarily to provide fetal neuroprotection to reduce the risk of cerebral palsy. True or false.

A

TRUE

41
Q

What is the maternal landmark in determining the station of the fetus?

A

ISCHIAL SPINES

42
Q

When is the best time to administer a narcotic analgesic via IV to the patient in the labor and delivery unit?

A

DURING THE ACTIVE PHASE OF LABOR

43
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is 36 weeks pregnant. Leopold’s maneuvers indicate that the baby is vertex. Where will the nurse place the Doppler to listen to the fetal heart tones?

A

LOWER QUADRANTS OF THE MATERNAL ABDOMEN

44
Q

What is the most reliable sign of progressing labor?

A

PROGRESSIVE CERVICAL CHANGE

45
Q

What is the cause of early decelerations noted on the fetal strip during labor?

A

FETAL HEAD COMPRESSION

46
Q

Lightening is the maternal sensation of fetal movement in the abdomen.

A

FALSE

47
Q

Please match each Stage of Labor with the expected related process.

A
  • First Stage: Ends with full cervical dilation & effacement
  • Second stage: ends with fetal expulsion
  • Third stage: ends with placental expulsion
  • Fourth Stage: return to maternal homeostasis
48
Q

Leopold’s Maneuvers help the nurse to identify the number of fetuses, the fetal lie and expected location of the point of maximal intensity of the fetal heart rate.

A

TRUE

49
Q

External cephalic version is an option for all breech pregnancies to turn the fetus into a vertex or cephalic presentation.

A

FALSE

50
Q

An external uterine toco transducer can accurately reflect the pressure of uterine contractions in mmHg which can be calculated into MVUs.

A

FALSE

51
Q

Blood volume returns to prepregnancy volume 6 months after delivery. True or false.

A

FALSE (2 weeks after)

52
Q

What can cause late postpartum hemorrhage?

A

INFECTION

53
Q

What is a primary assessment finding in a postpartum patient that may indicate a hematoma?

A

PAIN

54
Q

A new mother should temporarily stop breastfeeding while mastitis is present. True or false.

A

FALSE

55
Q

A woman has light lochia serosa 6 days after a vaginal birth. Is this an expected finding?

A

YES

56
Q

What nursing interventions would be expected for a woman would delivered by Cesarean birth 2 hours ago?

A
  • indwelling foley
  • clear fluids diet
  • abd binder
  • sequential compression devices
57
Q

What assessment findings does the nurse anticipate when assessing the uterine fundal height of a woman 1 day after an uncomplicated vaginal birth?

A

MIDLINE and 1 CM BELOW UMBILICUS

58
Q

The rubella vaccine may be given during pregnancy.

A

FALSE

59
Q

Rho (D) immune globulin is given to a woman within 72 hours after birth if she has negative Rh factor blood and her newborn has positive Rh factor blood.

A

TRUE

60
Q

Prolonged labor is a risk factor for uterine atony

A

TRUE

61
Q

Once a person has progressed through all of the Tanner stages for sexual maturation, successful reproduction will occur. True or false.

A

FALSE

62
Q

A woman is monitoring her cervical mucous and basal body temperature to identify the most fertile time during her ovulatory cycle. What statement indicates that the woman understands the significance of her findings?

A

I HAVE OVULATED WHEN MY TEMP RISES 0.4-0.8 DEGRESS FAHRENHEIT

63
Q

Place the sexual maturation events provided below for females in the correct order from the beginning of pubertal development. Not all steps of sexual maturation are given and you may not use all of the options provided.

A

Event 1: THELARCHE
Event 2: ADRENARCHE
Event 3: AXILLARY HAIR
Event 4: MENARCHE

64
Q

A patient states she has menstrual-like pain that lasts 1 day beginning about 2 weeks after her period begins. What is the first action taken by the nurse?

A

EDUCATE THE PATIENT REGARDING THE REPRODUCTIVE CYCLE

65
Q

Access to a partner is required for human reproduction to occur.

A

FALSE

66
Q

In the female reproductive cycle, there are 3 ovarian phases and 4 endometrial phases.

A

TRUE

67
Q

A young woman may become pregnant before her first menses.

A

TRUE

68
Q

The nurse is explaining the female reproductive cycle to a young woman. What statement by the nurse is correct? Select all that apply.

A
  • After ovulation, the corpus luteum forms on the ovary and releases progesterone to support possible pregnancy
  • During the reproductive cycle, the pituitary gland releases follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • If pregnancy occurs, the corpus luteum makes progesterone throughout the first trimester of pregnancy
69
Q

Implantation must occur for human reproduction to exist.

A

TRUE

70
Q

Most other concepts in the RNSG 1538 course do not relate to the concept of Reproduction.

A

FALSE

71
Q

In a semen analysis, what is the minimum number of sperm per ejaculate required to be within the acceptable range?

A

39 MILLION

72
Q

The purpose of a hysterosalpingogram is to prepare the female reproductive tract for assisted reproductive technology procedures. True or false.

A

FALSE

73
Q

What infertility medication is used to directly stimulate ovarian follicle development?

A

MENOTROPINS

74
Q

What testicular factors may affect male fertility? Select all that apply.

A
  • trauma
  • variocele
  • torsion
  • STIs
75
Q

Infertility is the inability to conceive after 6 months of unprotected (without contraception) and regular intercourse. True or false.

A

FALSE

76
Q

A couple experiences all of the infertility interventions listed below. Place the interventions in the anticipated care sequence. Match Intervention 1 with the corresponding first action, Intervention 2 with the corresponding second action, etc.

A
  • Intervention 1: semen analysis
  • Intervention 2: hysterosalpingogram
  • Intervention 3: intrauterine insemination
  • Intervention 4: IVF
77
Q

An intact hypothyroid-pituitary-gonadal axis is only needed in the female partner of a couple trying to conceive. True or false.

A

FALSE

78
Q

What statement is true regarding antisperm antibodies? Select all that apply.

A
  • previous vasectomy is a risk factor for antisperm antibody development
  • they can prohibit sperm from penetrating the ovum
  • they are found in the testicles of affected men
79
Q

Vaginal pH is acidic and semen pH is basic. True or false.

A

TRUE

80
Q

Spinnbarkeit mucous at the cervical opening is an abnormal finding just prior to female ovulation. True or false.

A

FALSE

81
Q

A pregnant woman reports her LMP as May 16. What is her EDB?

A

FEB 23rd

82
Q

A woman who is currently pregnant with twins reports a history of 1 miscarriage at 8 weeks gestation and currently has 1 living child born at 37 weeks gestation. How does the nurse report the patient’s obstetrical history?

A

G3P1:

The P=1 as it reflects the 1 completed pregnancy that has made it to 20 weeks (the pregnancy that ended at 37 weeks). The current pregnancy is not included in the P until the completion of the pregnancy.

83
Q

Ballottement is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. True or false.

A

FALSE

84
Q

Parity identifies the number of live births. True or false.

A

FALSE:

Parity indicates the number of completed pregnancies after 20 weeks gestation. Outcome (living or not) is not a factor in parity.

85
Q

What are the antepartum emergency warnings? Select all that apply.

A
  • vaginal leaking
  • visual changes
  • contractions
  • backache
86
Q

The nurse assesses the fundal height of a pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation with a singleton gestation. The patient emptied her bladder just prior to the assessment. The fundal height is 35 cm. What is the next best action of the nurse?

A

-CONTACT HEALTHCARE PROVIDER

87
Q

The prudent obstetrical nurse must always assess both the expectant mother and __ __ __ __ __ .

A

FETUS

88
Q

Match the common discomforts of pregnancy to the correct patient teaching.

A
  • Nausea: eat dry carbs in the am
  • Urinary frequency + urgency: limit fluid intake before bed
  • Leukorrhea: avoid douching
  • Rest with feet elevated: pedal edema
89
Q

Vaginal bleeding is not a concern in the first trimester of pregnancy.

A

FALSE:

False! Bleeding in the first trimester could indicate an ectopic pregnancy which could be life threatening to the woman. It could also indicate miscarriage or implantation bleeding. It must be evaluated by the health care provider.

90
Q

Fetal birth defects will not occur if the pregnant woman avoids teratogens during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy.

A

FALSE

1538 - Test 2 (Reproduction + Human Development) (14 decks)

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