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Reproduction and biotechnology > Reproduction 2020 Exam > Flashcards

Reproduction 2020 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following symptoms is not characteristic for toxic puerperal metritis in cows

  • Fever
  • Decreased milk production
  • Thick yellow-white discharge
  • Recumbency
A
  • Thick yellow-white discharge
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2
Q

Which statement is false for artificial insemination of cows?

  • The insemination doses are stored in liquid nitrogen
  • The insemination doses are stored in straws
  • The insemination doses must be thawed before use
  • None of them
A
  • None of them
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3
Q

What percentage dilution of Betadine-solution do we use for uterine lavage

  • 1-3%
  • 5-10%
  • 10-20%
  • 20-25%
A
  • 5-10%
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4
Q

What is the usual histological finding in case of chronic degenerative endometriosis in mares

  • Periglandular endometrial fibrosis
  • Monocytic infiltration of the endometrium
  • Granulocytic infiltration of the myometrium
  • Necrosis of the myometrium
A
  • Monocytic infiltration of the endometrium
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5
Q

Choose the INCORRECT statement from the followings, concerning to uterine torsion of the cow

  • Through the soft birth canal we can manipulate the foetus
  • With caemerer torsion fork we manipulate the foetus
  • With a wooden pad we rotate the dam
  • We always do caecarean section
A
  • We always do caecarean section
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6
Q

In which animal is the hypothermia of neonates the most common

  • Horse
  • Sheep
  • Cattle
  • Swine
A
  • Swine
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7
Q

Which of the following pathogens is not the usual cause of metritis or endometritis in mares?

  • Streptococcus zooepidermicus
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • E. coli
  • Taylorella equigenitalis
A
  • Taylorella equigenitalis
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8
Q

In which animal do we use laparoscopy during artificial insemination with frozen semen?

  • Mare
  • Cow
  • Ewe
  • Cow
A
  • Ewe
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9
Q

Which of the following symptoms is not characteristic for toxic puerperal metritis in cows

  • Fever
  • Decreased milk production
  • Thick yellow-white discharge
  • Recumbency
A
  • Thick yellow-white discharge
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10
Q

The posture of the fetus is normal if

  • Extended before parturition
  • Extended at parturition
  • Flexed at parturition
  • Always flexed
A
  • Extended at parturition
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11
Q

What is NOT a physiological narrowment of the soft birth canal

  • The bifurcation
  • The cervix
  • The remaining tissue of the hymen
  • The vulva
A
  • The remaining tissue of the hymen
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12
Q

Which of the following pathogens is the most common cause of endometritis in cows?

  • Streptococcus bovis
  • Mycoplasma bovis
  • E. coli
  • Trueperella pyogens
A
  • E. coli
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13
Q

Which statement is TRUE about anovulatory cysts in cattle

  • They must be manually ruptured
  • They can be treated with a PG-injection
  • They have to be bigger than 2 cm and persist for at least 10 days to be correctly called a cyst
  • They have minimal effect on the fertilization of the animal
A
  • They have to be bigger than 2 cm and persist for at least 10 days to be correctly called a cyst
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14
Q

Which statement is TRUE about the examination of the ovary of a postpartum cow

  • The presence of follicle(s) indicate the return to cyclicity
  • The presence of a corpus luteum indicates the retunr to cyclicity
  • Examination of the ovaries is enough the decide if the involution of the animal is finished
  • If there are no strucutres on the ovaries at day 21, we have to apply hormonal treatment to induce cyclicity
A
  • The presence of follicle(s) indicate the return to cyclicity
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15
Q

Choose the INCORRECT statement from the followings, concerning C-section of the sow

  • After the operation constipation never occurs as complication
  • A PH (MMA) syndrome can lead to death of the dam
  • Recumbency can occur due to neurological disorders
  • Pregnancy vaginal prolapse worsens the prognosis
A
  • After the operation constipation never occurs as complication
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16
Q

How do we collect semen from a boar

  • Artificial vagina
  • Electroejaculator
  • Gloved hand
  • Condom
A
  • Gloved hand
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17
Q

Which of the following pathogens does not play a role in the pathogenesis of puerperal metritis in cattle

  • Mycoplasma bovis
  • Trueperella pyogens
  • Fusobacterium necrophorum
  • E. coli
A
  • E. coli
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18
Q

How do we get the direction of the traction (linea directiva)

  • We add the halfpoint of the halfpoint of the vertical diameters of the pelvis
  • We connect the highest and the lowest point of the pelvis
  • The force from the deepest point of the pelvis showing to tuber ischiadicum
A
  • We add the halfpoint of the halfpoint of the vertical diameters of the pelvis
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19
Q

Choose the INCORRECT statement from the followings, concerning the CS of the cow

  • We close the abdominal wound in minimum 3 layers
  • We close all muscle layers together with the peritoneum
  • We close the skin with knotted sutures
  • Postoperative 40-50 IU of oxitocin is adviced to give
A
  • We close all muscle layers together with the peritoneum
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20
Q

The solution of bilateral hock flexion

  • Traction without correction the position of the fetus
  • Manipulation with Caemerer’s torsion fork
  • In the same time pushing the hock backward and covering the feet by hand
  • Absolute indication to C-section
A
  • In the same time pushing the hock backward and covering the feet by hand
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21
Q

Choose the CORRECT statement from the followings, concerning to uterine torsion of the cow

  • Precervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation
  • Postcervical torsion can be palpated with vaginal palpation
  • Precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation
  • Ba manulal palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion
A
  • Precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation
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22
Q

In which animal is the acidosis of neonates the most severe normally?

  • Cattle
  • Horses
  • Swine
  • It occurs at the same rate
A
  • Cattle
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23
Q

What is the basis of obstetrical lubrication?

  • NADP
  • Methyl-malonil-coenzym A
  • Methyl-cellulose
  • Metil. Starch
A
  • Methyl-cellulose
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24
Q

Which of the following symptoms is characteristic for clinical endometritis in cows?

  • Anorexia
  • Severely decreased milk yield
  • Thick yellow-white discharge
  • Recumbency
A
  • Thick yellow-white discharge
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25
Q

The solution of head flexiom

  • With kuhn’s crutch
  • Can only be solved with foetotomy
  • Can be manipulated with Gagny’s loop
  • Can be solved with Caemerer’s torsion fork
A
  • With kuhn’s crutch
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26
Q

Which parameter is good for early pregnany diagnosis in cattle with high specificity

  • Vaginal citology
  • PAG
  • Oestron-sulfate
  • Rectal palpation
A
  • PAG
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27
Q

What cannot indicated by the increased pH of the ejaculate?

  • Inflammation of testicle
  • Inflammation of epididymis
  • Inflammation of prostate
  • Inflammation of urinary bladder
A
  • Inflammation of urinary bladder
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28
Q

Where can we find the epidydimis?

  • On the dorsomedial surface of testicle
  • On the dorsolateral surface of testicle
  • On the ventromedial surface of testicle
  • On the ventrolateral surface of testicle
A
  • On the ventrolateral surface of testicle
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29
Q

Mark the INCORRECT statement

  • Benign prostate hyperplasia predisposes to acute prostatitis
  • Bacteriological examination of urine is suitable in all cases for the detection of bacteria present in the prostate
  • Bacteriological examination of fraction 3 is suitable for the detection of the pathogen infecting the prostate
  • In case of prostatitis at least 4-6 weeks of antibiotic treatment with lipophilic and basic antibiotics are required
A
  • Bacteriological examination of urine is suitable in all cases for the detection of bacteria present in the prostate
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30
Q

What is not characteristic symptom of early stage benign prostate enlargement

  • Bloody preputial discharge
  • Stranguria
  • Hematuria
  • Deteriorating sperm quality, tail defects of sperm
A
  • Bloody preputial discharge
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31
Q

In which cycle phase can we detect the highest oestrogen values?

  • Prooestrus
  • Oestrus
  • Dioestrus
  • Anoestrus
A
  • Prooestrus
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32
Q

In which cycle phase is it typical: in the vaginal smear red blood cells may occur, and predominantly superficial cells can be seen

  • Early prooestrus
  • Late prooestrus
  • Dioestrus
  • Anoestrus
A
  • Dioestrus
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33
Q

Where do we make the incision when performing caesarean section in cattle?

  • Right flank
  • Left flank
  • Right paramedian
  • Left paramedial
A
  • Left flank
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34
Q

Choose the CORRECT statement from the followings, concerning to CS section of the cow

  • The closure of the uterine wound we perform in 4 layers
  • First suture layer penetrates the wall of the uterus
  • When suturing the uterus we use sutures with knots
  • When closing the uterine wounds we use seromuscular sutures
A
  • When closing the uterine wounds we use seromuscular sutures (?)
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35
Q

Which staining procedure is used to examine the morphology

  • Kovacs-Foote staining
  • Spermac staning
  • Both
  • None
A
  • Spermac staning
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36
Q

What can not indicate the thickening of the scrotum

  • Inflammation
  • Tumor
  • Granuloma
  • Genetic deffect
A
  • Genetic deffect
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37
Q

In which animal is it possible to diagnose the pregnancy before the next cycle

  • Sheep
  • Cattle
  • Horse
  • Swine
A
  • Cattle
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38
Q

What type of sperm do we use in artificial insemination of cows?

  • Fresh, chilled sperm
  • Fresh, native sperm
  • Fresh, extended chilled sperm
  • None of them
A
  • None of them
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39
Q

Which may be a characteristic symptom of hyperoestrogenism in male dogs?

  • Epithelial metaplasia in the prostate gland
  • Development of prostate tumor
  • Increase in ejaculate volume
  • Bone marrow hyperplasia
A
  • Development of prostate tumor
40
Q

What is NOT typical of epididymitis caused by Brucella canis?

  • Discospondylitis, polyarthritis, anterior uveitis and glomerulopathy may also occur
  • In acute cases it can also lead to orchitis
  • Scrotal dermatitis and lymphadenomegaly may also be characteristic
  • Clinical symptoms are more severe in cryptochid dogs
A
  • Clinical symptoms are more severe in cryptochid dogs
41
Q

mark the INCORRECT statement regarding pseudohermaphrodite individuals

  • Chromosomal and gonadal sex are in agreement but phenotype is abnormal (opposite or mixed)
  • In their case, both testies and ovaries are present
  • XX, female pseudothermaphrodite has ovaries and a masculinized external phenotype
  • XY, male pseudothermaphrodite has testes (often cryptochid), female external phenotype, or different degree of penis and scrotum malformation are characteristic
A
  • In their case, both testies and ovaries are present
42
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication for artificial insemination

  • Prevention of genital infections
  • Lower quality semen
  • Unwillingness to mate
  • Cryptochid male
A
  • Cryptochid male
43
Q

Mark the INCORRECT statement regarding prostatic retention cysts

  • More than 40% of them are infected with bacteria, so their presence may require AB treatment
  • These are surgical indications in all cases
  • Their development is induced by benign prostatic hyperplasia
  • Their development is induced by prostatic metaplasia
A
  • These are surgical indications in all cases
44
Q

Mark the INCORRECT statement regarding vestibulovaginal stenosis

  • Mild stenosis is still physiological
  • Its formation is characteristic of the area of junction of the Wolfian tube and the urogenital sinus
  • This may be formed by an incomplete perforation of the hymen or a vertical septum
  • Its formation is characteristic of the area of connection between the Mullerian and the urogenital sinus
A
  • Its formation is characteristic of the area of junction of the Wolfian tube and the urogenital sinus
45
Q

What does the term asthenozoospermia means

  • Lack of motile spermatozoa in the sperm
  • Lack of spermatozoa in the sperm
  • Blood or urine contamination
  • Increased pH of the sperm
A
  • Lack of motile spermatozoa in the sperm
46
Q

Primal abnormalities of the spermatozoa are believed to represent abnormalities during

  • Spermatogenesis
  • Transit in the duct system of the epidydimis
  • Sample collection
  • Preservation
A
  • Spermatogenesis
47
Q

In which cycle phase is the typical: small number of cells, >95% basal-parabasal cells

  • Prooestrus
  • Oestrus
  • Dioestrus
  • Anoestrus
A
  • Anoestrus
48
Q

What is the optimal color of the sperm

  • White/opalescent
  • Yellow
  • Clear
  • Red
A
  • White/opalescent
49
Q

What is NOT a characteristic of phimosis

  • It may cause urinary retention, inflammation, and inability to mate
  • It is a congenital stenosis of prepuse
  • Its surgical therapy is to narrow the opening of the prepuse
  • It can predispose to paraphimosis
A
  • Its surgical therapy is to narrow the opening of the prepuse
50
Q

Optically, what is the minimum % of spermatozoa with progressive forward motion in the sperm sample

  • 0,6
  • 0,7
  • 0,8
  • 0,9
A
  • 0,9
51
Q

Mark the CORRECT statment regarding vaginitis

  • Hyperplastic lymphoid follicles in the vestibule are typically signs of herpes infection
  • The pathogens that cause vaginitis are most often the constituents of the normal vaginal flora
  • E.coli and Stahylococcus aureus never appear as part of the normal vaginal flora
  • Gonadoectomy reduces the risk of chronic vaginitis
A
  • E.coli and Stahylococcus aureus never appear as part of the normal vaginal flora
52
Q

The bitch is a ….. species

  • Seasonal, monooestrus
  • Aseasonal, polioestrus
  • Seasonal, polioestrus
  • Aseasonal, monooestrus
A
  • Aseasonal, monooestrus
53
Q

Mark the CORRECT statement regarding juvenile vaginitis

  • Prepubertal gonadectomy is the only effective therapy
  • Brucella canis infection plays a major role in the pathogenesis
  • Herpes viral infection plays a major role in the pathogenesis
  • The problem heals spontaneously after the first heat
A
  • The problem heals spontaneously after the first heat
54
Q

When should we examine the sperm after collection?

  • Immediately after the collection
  • 1-2 hours after collection
  • 1-2 days after collection
  • It does not matter, time does not affect the motility and morphology of the sperm
A
  • Immediately after the collection
55
Q

What is the progesterone value at the time of ovulation

  • <1 ng/ml
  • What is the progesterone value at the time of ovulation
  • 5-8 ng/ml
  • 10-90 ng/ml
A
  • 5-8 ng/ml
56
Q

In which cycle phase is it typical: small vulva, pink, flat mucosa

  • Prooestrus
  • Oestrus
  • Dioestrus
  • Anoestrus
A
  • Anoestrus
57
Q

Mark the INCORRECT statement

  • Cryptochism predisposes to neoplastic transformation of the affected testis
  • In dogs, the testes can no longer pass through the inguinal ring after 6 mnd of age
  • The heritability of cryptochism in dogs has been confirrmed
  • In the case of unilateral cryptochidism, removal of the contralateral testis is not recommended
A
  • In the case of unilateral cryptochidism, removal of the contralateral testis is not recommended
58
Q

In which cycle phase is it typical: swollen vulva, the vaginal mucosa is whiteish, “dry” and wrinkled

  • Prooestrus
  • Oestrus
  • Dioestrus
  • Anoestrus
A
  • Oestrus
59
Q

How warm should the water be in the double wall container (in C)

  • 40
  • 26
  • 37
  • 39
A
  • 37
60
Q

What is the difference in P4 levels in case of pregnant and non-pregnant bitches

  • Nothing
  • Pregnant bitches have high progesteron levels during the whole pregnancy, while non-pregnany bitches progesteron values drop after the oestrus
  • In pregnant bitches placenta produces the progesterone, and it is responsible for the high P4 values during pregnancy
  • In non-pregnant bitches there is no-ovulation, so the progesterone level stays low
A
  • In pregnant bitches placenta produces the progesterone, and it is responsible for the high P4 values during pregnancy
61
Q

Which hormone stimulates the prolactin production in bitches?

  • Progesterone
  • Serotonin
  • Dopamin
  • Prolactin inhibitory factor
A
  • Progesterone
62
Q

Which statement is FALSE concerning the hormonal background of the luteal phase in bitches

  • During the second half of pregnancy, prolactin and LH are important luteotropic factors
  • Low LH levels cause abortion
  • Progesterone, produced by the corpus luteum and the placenta, is primarily responsible for maintaining pregnancy
  • The pregnancy-specific relaxin hormone has an indirect luteotropic effect
A
  • Low LH levels cause abortion
63
Q

What could be the consequence of spaying a dog in dioestrus

  • Formation of pyometra
  • Development of insulin resistance
  • Development of overt pseudopregnancy
  • It has no significant effect
A
  • It has no significant effect
64
Q

Mark the CORRECT statement! After spaying of bitch

  • A significant decrease in LH and FSH levels can be measured
  • Significant increases in oestrogen, LH and FSH can be measured
  • Oestrogen levels similar to those in intact animals during the anoestus period can be measured
  • The LH and FSH ratio changes
A
  • Oestrogen levels similar to those in intact animals during the anoestus period can be measured
65
Q

What is NOT characteristic of a cat’s reproductive cycle

  • Seasonally polyoestrus
  • Spontaneous ovulation also occurs
  • The start of the cycle is caused by a decrease in the amount of daylight hours
  • In case of hot summer or stress, the cycle could interrupt
A
  • The start of the cycle is caused by a decrease in the amount of daylight hours
66
Q

What is NOT characteristic of a cat’s reproductive cycle

  • In case of no ovulation occurs, the corpus luteum phase is missing and prooestrus begins again after the period of interoestrus
  • In the case of ovulation but mating was not fertile, an approx. 35 day pseudopregnancy follows
  • The pseudopregnant cat is characterized by the onset of milk production, so the non-pregnant cat can also nurse the kittens of other female cats
  • In case of fertile mating, the female cat becomes pregnant, the length of the pregnancy is approx. 65 days
A
  • The pseudopregnant cat is characterized by the onset of milk production, so the non-pregnant cat can also nurse the kittens of other female cats
67
Q

Choose a safe painkiller for pregnant or lactating bitches

  • Buprenorphine
  • Low lipid soluble morphine derivatives
  • NSAIDs
  • Alpha-2 agonists
A
  • Buprenorphine
68
Q

Choose the answer that contains the steps of care for newborn puppies in the correct order

    1. Cleaning the airway and oral cavity 2. reversing the effect of fentanyl 3. Gently rubbing the thorax and muzzle 4. Umbilical cord management
    1. Umbilical cord management 2. Gently rubbing the thorax and muzzle 3. Cleaning the airway and oral cavity 4. reversing the effect of fentanyl
    1. Umbilical cord management 2. Gently rubbing the thorax and muzzle 3. Reversing the effect of fentanyl 4. Clearing the airways and oral cavity
    1. Umbilical cord management 2. Clearing the airways and oral cavity 3. Reversing the effect of fentanyl 4. Gently rubbing the thorax and muzzle
A
    1. Cleaning the airway and oral cavity 2. reversing the effect of fentanyl 3. Gently rubbing the thorax and muzzle 4. Umbilical cord management (?)
69
Q

Which statement is FALSE concerning surgical therapy of mammary gland tumors?

  • Early vascular isolation and minimal manipulation is important
  • It is important to do the spaying, especially in case of grade 2 oestrogen receptor expressed tumors
  • During surgery, in the first place, we perform mammectomy and then ovariectomy/ovariohysterectomy
  • We always remove the inguinal lymphonode with the inguinal mammary gland
A
  • During surgery, in the first place, we perform mammectomy and then ovariectomy/ovariohysterectomy
70
Q

Mark the INCORRECT statement! During (in parallel with) the growth/progression of mammary gland tumors

  • The significance of the effect of sex hormones decreases
  • Oestrogen and progesterone receptor expression of tumor cells increases
  • COX 2 expression is likely increased
  • The degree of malignancy increases and the prognosis deteriorates
A
  • The significance of the effect of sex hormones decreases
71
Q

What is your diagnosis in case of a patient in good general condition with bloody vaginal discharge, 5 weeks after parturition

  • SIPS (Subinvolution of placental sites)
  • Normal uterine involution
  • Postpartum endometritis
  • Pyometra
A
  • SIPS (Subinvolution of placental sites)
72
Q

What is NOT a characteristic of Eclampsia (or Puerperal tetany) of bitch

  • It is most often observed 1-3 weeks after parturition, sometimes during late pregnancy
  • It is typical mainly in large breeds with a small litter
  • Acute, life-threatening disease caused by low blood calcium levels (hypocalaemia)
  • Initially typical symptoms are restlessness, panting, then tremor, later the formaiton of tonic-clonic muscle spasms
A
  • It is typical mainly in large breeds with a small litter
73
Q

What is your suspected diagnosis in case of mucoid vaginal discharge in a pregnant dog

  • Onset of parturition, flow away of foetal fluid.
  • Foetal death
  • Metritis.
  • Onset of parturition, flow away of mucoid plug
A
  • Onset of parturition, flow away of mucoid plug
74
Q

When do you NOT necessarily have to think acute dystocia

  • If greenish discharge is excreted from the vagina of the bitch approx 3 hours but no puppies have been born yet
  • The bitch has been panting, trembling, restless for 6 hours but nothing else is happening
  • The bitch has been panting, trembling, restless for 6 hours, the bitch bites backward, sometimes cries painfully, but no amniotic fluid flows from the vagina and no pups in the birth canal
  • The bitch has had abdominal contractions for 45 minutes without successfully expelling a puppy
A
  • The bitch has had abdominal contractions for 45 minutes without successfully expelling a puppy
75
Q

What is progesterone level is expected at Day 0 of oestrus cycle (LH peak) in the dog

  • > 6 ng/ml
  • > 2 ng/ml
  • 10 ng/ml
  • <1 ng/ml
A
  • > 2 ng/ml
76
Q

Where and when does the oocyte maturation process end, so when does the oocyte become fertilizable in bitch

  • In the ovarian follicle, 2-3 days after ovulation
  • In the uterine lumen, 2-3 days after ovulation
  • In the fallopian tube, 2-3 days after ovulation
  • In the fallopian tube, 4-5 days after ovulation
A
  • In the fallopian tube, 4-5 days after ovulation
77
Q

Between which cycle days does the corpus luteum sensitive to the PGF2a injection in the bovine

  • Day 1-5
  • Day 17-21
  • The bovine corpus luteum is not sensitive to the PGF2a
  • Day 6-17
  • During oestrus
A
  • Day 6-17
78
Q

What is the reason of pyometra development in dogs

  • Inconvenient hygiene at assistance of delivery
  • Placenta retention
  • Complications induced by sepsis due to infection of wound
  • Endometrium degeneration due to the combination effect of increased oestrogen and progesterone concentrations, and bacterial infections
A
  • Complications induced by sepsis due to infection of wound
79
Q

What is CORRECT statement. Pyometra

  • Can occur at any cycle stage, even during pregnancy
  • More common in animals showing clinical pseudopregnancy
  • In cats is less likely to occur in breeds prone to spontaneous ovulation
  • Can develop without a bacterial infection
A
  • Can develop without a bacterial infection
80
Q

What influences the changes in vaginal epithelium during the heat

  • The progesteron concentration
  • The oestrogen concentration
  • The LH concentration
  • The FSH concentration
A
  • The oestrogen concentration
81
Q

Regarding the small ruminant cervix choose the correct answer

  • Each catheter can be introduced through the cervix
  • Only until the first ring catheter can be introduced
  • Only the inseminator catheter can be introduced through the cervix
  • Catheter cannot be introduced
  • At delivery the cervix can be dilate easily
A
  • Only the inseminator catheter can be introduced through the cervix
82
Q

Is there any ovulation during non-breeding season

  • Yes
  • No
  • Rarely
  • We do not know
A
  • Rarely
83
Q

What is true for mare’s uterine torsion

  • Vagina is not involved
  • Vaginal examination has got pathognostic value
  • Rectal examination does not have pathognostic value
  • Transabdominal ultrasound has got pathognostic value
A
  • Rectal examination does not have pathognostic value
84
Q

Mark the INCORRECT answer! Care of pregnant goat

  • Duration of dry-off: 6-8 weeks
  • If mastitis occurs during lactation, we have to treat the goat at dry-off
  • 4 weeks before kidding we have to vaccinate them against tetanus and enterotoxaemia
  • In case of dilatation failure only calcium infusion is needed
  • If white muscle disease occurs in the region Vitamin E and Se treatment are suggested
A
  • In case of dilatation failure only calcium infusion is needed
85
Q

What is the main factor against polispermic penetration in the oocyte

  • Small number of spermatozoa present
  • Increasing oestrogene effect
  • Cytoplasmic reaction of oocyte
  • Modification of Zona pellucioda structure
A
  • Modification of Zona pellucioda structure
86
Q

What happens if a mare with 45 day old twin pregnancy is injected with 1 dose of PGF2a

  • One foetus dies
  • Both foetuses dies
  • Abortion
  • Nothing
A
  • Abortion
87
Q

Where the semen is deposited/put in the cow at the insemination

  • Vaginal
  • Cervix
  • Body of the uterus
  • Into the oviduct
A
  • Cervix
88
Q

A testimeter is used for

  • fetal sexing in the mare
  • measure testes volume
  • measure testis dimensions (height, lenght, width)
  • detection of testosterone in the stalloin
A
  • measure testes volume
89
Q

What does azoospermia mean

  • No spermatozoa can be found in the ejaculate
  • No semen can be collected
  • The motility of the spermatozoa is zero
  • There are many abnormal spermatozoa in the collected semen
A
  • No spermatozoa can be found in the ejaculate
90
Q

When does embryos arrive into the lumen of the uterus after ovulation

  • Day 1-2 after ovulation
  • Day 3-5 after ovulation
  • Day 7-8 after ovulation
  • Day 9-10 after ovulation
A
  • Day 3-5 after ovulation
91
Q

What is the correct place of the abdominal incision during CS in cow

  • Right flank, vertically
  • Left flank, vertically
  • Right flank, horizontal
  • Left flank, horizontal
  • Ventral paramedian laparotomy
A
  • Left flank, vertically
92
Q

Development of the gonadal sex. Mark the INCORRECT statement

  • The Sertoli-cells produce anti-Mullerian hormone
  • The Sertoli-cells support the development of Leydig cells
  • Leydig cells produce testosterone which is partially converted into dihydro-testosterone by Sertoli cells
  • Leydig cells produce oestrogen which is partially converted into dihydro-testosterone by Sertoli cells
A
  • Leydig cells produce oestrogen which is partially converted into dihydro-testosterone by Sertoli cells
93
Q

The GnRH is produced

  • In the adenohypophysis
  • In the hypothalamus
  • In the neurohypophysis
  • In the ovaries
A
  • In the hypothalamus
94
Q

In how many fraction does the dog ejaculate the semen

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
A
  • 3
95
Q

Which insemination technique is not used in the ewe

  • Vaginal
  • Cervical
  • Intrauterine
  • Retrovaginal
A
  • Retrovaginal
96
Q

What is the temperature of liquid nitrogen?

  • -196
  • -60
  • -280
  • -20
A
  • -196

Reproduction and biotechnology (4 decks)

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