Repro basis Flashcards

1
Q

HCG

It is produced by the placental syncytiotrophoblast, first appearing in maternal
blood _____ days after fertilization, peaking at ____ weeks, and then gradually falling to a plateau level at ___

A

10

9–10

20–22 weeks

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2
Q

Fn of HCG
1
2
3

A

• Maintain corpus luteum production of progesterone until the placenta can take over
maintenance of the pregnancy.
• Regulate steroid biosynthesis in the placenta and fetal adrenal gland as well.
• Stimulate testosterone production in the fetal male testes

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3
Q

DDx for high HCG

A

twin pregnancy, hydatidiform mole, choriocarcinoma, embryonal
carcinoma.

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4
Q

DDx for low HCG

A

ectopic pregnancy, threatened abortion, missed abortion

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5
Q

Chemically it is similar to anterior pituitary growth hormone and prolactin.

A

HPL

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6
Q

Fn of HPL

A

It antagonizes the cellular action of insulin, decreasing insulin utilization, thereby
contributing to the predisposition of pregnancy to glucose intolerance and diabete

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7
Q

This is a steroid hormone produced after ovulation by the luteal cells of the corpus
luteum to induce endometrial secretory changes favorable for blastocyst implantation

A

Progesterone

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8
Q

Progesterone:

It is initially produced exclusively by the corpus luteum up to_____ menstrual weeks.

A

6–7

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9
Q

Between 7 and 9 weeks, both the_____ and _____ produce progesterone

A

corpus luteum and the placenta

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10
Q

After 9 weeks the corpus luteum declines, and progesterone production is exclusively by the _______

A

placenta.

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11
Q

Fn of progesteron in early pregnancy

A

In early pregnancy it induces endometrial secretory changes favorable for blastocyst
implantation

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12
Q

Fn of progesteron in late pregnancy

A

In later pregnancy its function is to induce immune tolerance for the pregnancy and
prevent myometrial contractions

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13
Q

Seen in Nonpregnant reproductive years

Produced by the Follicle Granulosa

A

Estradiol

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14
Q

Important enzyme used to produce estradiol

A

aromatase enzyme that completes the transformation into estradiol

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15
Q

Estriol is the main estrogen during pregnancy. ________
from the fetal adrenal gland is the precursor for 90% of estriol converted by _____
enzyme in the placenta

A

Dehydroepiandrosterone-sulfate (DHEAS)

sulfatase

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16
Q

___ is the main form during menopause. Postmenopausally, adrenal androstenedione is
converted in peripheral adipose tissue to estrone

A

Estrone

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17
Q

reason for Spider angiomata and palmer erythema during pregnancy

A

From increased skin vascularity.

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18
Q

Bluish or purplish discoloration of the vagina and cervix as a result of
increased vascularity during pregancy

A

Chadwick sign—

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19
Q

Pregancy changes

Systolic and diastolic values both decline early in the first trimester, reaching a nadir by _____weeks, then they gradually rise toward term but never return quite
to prepregnancy baseline

A

24–28

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20
Q

T or F

Arterial blood pressure is never normally elevated in pregnancy.

A

T

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21
Q

Central venous pressure (CVP) is ____with pregnancy, but femoral venous pressure (FVP) increases two- to threefold by 30 weeks’ gestation.

A

unchanged

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22
Q

Plasma volume increases up to ____ with a significant increase by the first trimester. Maximum increase is by___ weeks

A

50%

30

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23
Q

CO increases up to 50% with the major increase by ____ weeks.

A

20

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24
Q

CO is dependent on maternal position. CO is the highest in the ______

A

left lateral position.

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25
Q

A _______ murmur along the left sternal border is normal in pregnancy
owing to increased CO passing through the aortic and pulmonary valves

A

systolic ejection

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26
Q

RBC mass increases by _____ in pregnancy; thus, oxygen-carrying capacity increases.

A

30%

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27
Q

WBC count increases progressively during pregnancy with a mean value of up to ______ in the third trimester

A

16,000/mm3

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28
Q

ESR increases in pregnancy because of the increase_________

A

in gamma globulins.

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29
Q

Platelet count normal reference range is _______ in pregnancy.

A

unchanged

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30
Q

___________ increase progressively

in pregnancy, leading to a hypercoagulable state

A

Factors V, VII, VIII, IX, XII, and von Willebrand Factor

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31
Q

Gastric motility decreases and emptying time increases from the ________
effect on smooth muscle.

A

progesterone

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32
Q

_______increases with pregnancy to 40%. It is the only lung volume that does not decrease with pregnancy.

A

TV

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33
Q

_______increases up to 40% with the major increase by 20 weeks.

This is also the product of respiratory rate (RR) and Vt

A

Minute ventilation (V • e)—

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34
Q

the volume of air trapped in the lungs after deepest expiration.

It decreases up to 20% by the third trimester

A

Residual volume

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35
Q

The rise in Vt produces a ______with a decrease in Pco2 from 40–30 mm Hg and an increase in pH from 7.40 to 7.45.

A

respiratory alkalosis

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36
Q

The kidneys increase in size because of the increase in renal blood flow. This
hypertrophy doesn’t reverse until ____months postpartum

A

3

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37
Q

Ureteral diameter increases owing to the progesterone effect on smooth muscle.
The _____ side dilates more than the left in 90% of patients.

A

right

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38
Q

Urine glucose normally increases. Glucose is freely filtered and actively reabsorbed.
However, the tubal reabsorption threshold falls from_______

A

195 to 155 mg/dL.

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39
Q

Proteinuria—Urine protein remains _____

A

unchanged

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40
Q

Adrenal gland size is unchanged, but production of______ increases two- to
threefold

A

cortisol

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41
Q

_____ increases, resulting in increased total T3 and T4, although free T3 and free T4 remain unchanged.

A

Thyroid binding globulin

TBG

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42
Q

Fetal Circulation

Three in utero shunts exist within the fetus.

  1. The _____ carries blood from the umbilical
    vein to the inferior vena cava.
  2. The _____ carries blood from the right to the left atrium, and
  3. the ______s shunts blood from the pulmonary artery to the descending aorta.
A

ductus venosus

foramen ovale

ductus arterioss

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43
Q

What causes the breasts to undergo dramatic changes which culminate in the
fully mature form

A

With the beginning of female puberty, however, the release of estrogen—at first
alone, and then in combination with progesterone when the ovaries functionally
mature

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44
Q

On average, there are _______lobes in

each breast, arranged roughly in a wheel-spoke pattern emanating from the nipple area

A

15 to 20

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45
Q

There is a preponderance of glandular tissue in the ________of the breast.
This is responsible for the tenderness in this region that many women experience
prior to their menstrual cycle.

A

upper outer portion

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46
Q

Ligaments called ________ which keep the breasts in their characteristic
shape and position, support breast tissue. I

A

Cooper’s ligaments,

47
Q

Hormones for breast development

  • Estrogen, released from the ovarian follicle, promotes the ______.
  • Progesterone, released from the corpus luteum, stimulates the development of ________
A

growth ducts

milkproducing alveolar cells.

48
Q

Hormones for breast development

  • Prolactin, released from the anterior pituitary gland, stimulates ______
  • Oxytocin, released from the posterior pituitary in response to suckling, causes______
A

milk production.

milk ejection from the lactating breast.

49
Q

_____ Ducts, nipples, fat

_____Lobules, alveoli

_____Milk production

_____Milk ejection

A

Estrogen

Progesterone

Prolactin

Oxytocin

50
Q

It contains more protein and less fat than subsequent milk, and contains IgA antibodies that impart some passive immunity to the infant.

A

colostrum

51
Q

The ______ at delivery initiates milk production and causes the drop
in circulating estrogens and progesterone.

_____ antagonizes the positive effect of
prolactin on milk production

A

expulsion of the placenta

Estrogen

52
Q

The most significant event of week 1 is the _______

A

implantation of the blastocyst on the endometrium

53
Q

Fertilization usually occurs in the distal part of the oviduct.

The egg is capable of being fertilized for ____

The sperm is capable of fertilizing for ___
hours.

A

12–24 hours.

24–48

54
Q

2 phases of Postconception Week 1

A

intratubal

intrauterine

55
Q

What phase during week 1 post concepction

A

It begins at conception (day 0) and ends with the entry of the morula into the uterine cavity (day 3).

The conceptus is traveling down the oviduct as it passes through the 2-cell, 4-cell, and
8-cell stages.

56
Q

What happens in the intrauterine phase

A

During this time the morula differentiates into a hollow ball of cells. The outer layer will
become the trophoblast or placenta, and the inner cell mass will become the embryo

57
Q

Post-Conception Week 2. What are the 3 most important events?

A
  • Starts with implantation
  • Ends with 2-layer embryo
  • Yields bi-laminar germ disk
58
Q

What week?

b-hCG pregnancy test now can be positive for the first time.

A

Postconception Week 2

59
Q

Post-Conception Week 3. What are the 3 most important events?

A
  • Starts with 2-layer embryo
  • Ends with 3-layer embryo
  • Yields tri-laminar germ disk
60
Q

During this time the major organs and organ systems are being formed. This is the period of major teratogenic risk.

A

Postconception Weeks 4–8

61
Q

What develops from the Ectoderm—

A

central and peripheral nervous systems; sensory organs of seeing and
hearing; integument layers (skin, hair, and nails).

62
Q

What develops from the Mesoderm—

A

muscles, cartilage, cardiovascular system, urogenital system.

63
Q

What develops from the Endoderm—

A

lining of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts.

64
Q

This duct is present in all early embryos and is the primordium of the female internal reproductive system. No hormonal stimulation is required

A

Paramesonephric (Müllerian) Duct

65
Q

In males the Y chromosome induces gonadal secretion of _____, which causes the müllerian duct to involute.

A

müllerian inhibitory factor (MIF)

66
Q

T or F

No hormonal stimulation is needed for differentiation of the external genitalia into labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, and distal vagina.

A

T

67
Q

This duct is also present in all early embryos and is the primordium of the male internal reproductive system.

Testosterone stimulation is required for development to continue to form the vas
deferens, seminal vesicles, epididymis, and efferent ducts.

A

Mesonephric (Wolffian) Duct

68
Q

In females, without androgen stimulation, the Wolffian duct undergoes______

A

regression

69
Q

_____stimulation is needed for differentiation of the external genitalia
into a penis and scrotum.

If a genetic male has an absence of androgen receptors, external
genitalia will differentiate in a female direction

A

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

70
Q

_______—> Anti-Müllerian hormone

Inhibits Müllerian duct development

A

Sertoli cell

71
Q

_______—>Testosterone–>Maintains Wolffian duct development

A

Leydig cell

72
Q

A _____ is any agent that disturbs normal fetal development and affects subsequent
function.

A

teratogen

73
Q

Teratogenesis

What are the effects:

From conception to end of second week—

A

The embryo will either survive intact or

die because the 3 germ layers have not yet been formed

74
Q

Teratogenesis

What are the effects:

Postconception weeks 3–8—

A

This is the period of greatest teratogenic risk from formation
of the 3 germ layers to completion of organogenesis.

75
Q

Teratogenesis

What are the effects:

After week 9 of postconception—

A

During this time teratogenicity is low, but adverse effects may include diminished organ hypertrophy and hyperplasia

76
Q

Chemotherapy: Risk is predominantly a_________

A

first-trimester phenomenon.

77
Q

______ is associated with intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and preterm
delivery, but no specific syndrome

A

Tobacco

78
Q

_____ is associated with placental abruption, preterm delivery, intraventricular
hemorrhage, and IUGR.

_____is associated with preterm delivery but not with any syndrome.

A

Cocaine

Marijuana

79
Q

What are Category A drugs

A

Controlled studies show no risk. Adequate studies show no risk to the fetus in any pregnancy trimester.

80
Q

Examples of CatA

A

This includes acetaminophen, thyroxine, folic acid,

and magnesium sulfate.

81
Q

Examples of Cat B

Category B—No evidence of risk in animals but human studies have not been done

A

penicillins, cephalosporins, methyldopa, insulin, Pepcid, Reglan, Tagamet, Vistaril, Paxil, Prozac, Benadryl, and Dramamine

82
Q

Examples of Category C—Risk cannot be ruled out. Risk is present in animals but controlled studies
are lacking in humans

A

This includes codeine, Decadron, methadone, Bactrim, Cipro, AZT, b-blockers, Prilosec, heparin, Protamine, Thorazine, Alupent, Robitussin, and Sudafed

83
Q

Category D—Positive evidence of risk. Studies demonstrate fetal risk, but potential
benefits of the drug may outweigh the risk.

A

This includes aspirin, Valium, tetracycline,

Dilantin, Depakote, and Lithium.

84
Q

Examples of Cat X

A

This includes Accutane (isotretinoin), Danocrine,

Pravachol, Coumadin, and Cafergot.

85
Q

What syndrome

IUGR, midfacial hypoplasia, developmental delay, short
palpebral fissures, long philtrum, multiple joint anomalies, cardiac defects.

A

Alcohol. Fetal alcohol syndrome

86
Q

What syndrome

T-shaped uterus, vaginal adenosis (with predisposition
to vaginal clear cell carcinoma), cervical hood, incompetent cervix, preterm delivery

A

Diethylstilbestrol. DES syndrome

87
Q

What syndrome

IUGR, craniofacial dysmorphism (epicanthal folds,
depressed nasal bridge, oral clefts), mental retardation, microcephaly, nail hypoplasia, heart
defects.

A

Dilantin. Fetal hydantoin syndrome

88
Q

What syndrome?

Congenital deafness, microtia, CNS defects, congenital heart defects.

A

Isotretinoin (Accutane

89
Q

Ebstein’s anomaly (right heart defect).

A

Li

90
Q

VIII nerve damage, hearing loss.

A

Strep

91
Q

After fourth month, deciduous teeth discoloration

A

Tet

92
Q

Phocomelia, limb reduction defects, ear/nasal anomalies, cardiac defects, pyloric or duodenal stenosis.

A

Thalidomide.

93
Q

Facial dysmorphism (short upturned nose, slanted eyebrows), cardiac defects, IUGR, mental retardation.

A

Trimethadione.

94
Q

Neural tube defects (spina bifida), cleft lip, renal defects.

A

Valproic acid (Depakote).

95
Q

Chondrodysplasia (stippled epiphysis), microcephaly, mental retardation, optic atrophy.

A

Warfarin (Coumadin).

96
Q

Advanced maternal age: women ≥35 years of age at increased risk of_________

A

fetal nondisjunction trisomies (e.g., trisomies 21 and 18)

97
Q

This refers to numeric chromosome abnormalities in which cells do not contain 2 complete sets of 23 chromosomes. This usually occurs because of nondisjunction.

A

Aneuploidy

98
Q

MC Aneuploidy

A

trisomy,

99
Q

The most common trisomy in first-trimester losses is ______

The most common trisomy at term is ______

A

trisomy 16.

trisomy 21.

100
Q

This refers to numeric chromosome abnormalities in which cells contain complete sets of extra chromosomes

A

Polyploidy

101
Q

The most common polyploidy is ______

A

triploidy with 69 chromosomes, followed

by tetraploidy with 92 chromosomes

102
Q

An example of triploidy is _______

pregnancies, which occurs from fertilization of an egg by two sperm

A

incomplete molar

103
Q

An example of a chromosomal deletion is del

(5p) or ______, which is a deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5.

A

cri du chat syndrome

104
Q

This refers to the presence of >2 cytogenetically distinct cell lines in the same individual

A

Mosaicism

105
Q

Gonadal mosaicism can result in ______

A

premature

ovarian failure and predispose the gonad to malignancy.

106
Q

This involves any two or more nonhomologous chromosomes, and occurs when there is
a breakage and reunion of portions of the involved chromosomes to yield new products.

A

Reciprocal translocation

107
Q

This always involves the acrocentric chromosomes, and is caused by centric fusion after loss
of the satellite region of the short arms of the original acrosomic chromosome

A

Robertsonian translocation

108
Q

Robertsonian translocation consequences

A

The karyotype
of a balanced Robertsonian translocation will appear to have only 45 chromosomes;
however, the full complement of genetic material is present, and there are no clinical effects

109
Q

Robertsonian translocation consequences if produces offspring

A

The offspring may have 46 chromosomes but have double the genetic material of a particular
chromosome.

110
Q

The 2 most common aneuploidies in miscarriages are ______ and _____

A

trisomy 16 and monosomy X.

111
Q

The majority of birth defects (70%) are _____ or _____ in origin, which means there is an interaction of multiple genes with environmental factors

A

multifactorial or polygenic

112
Q

The overall recurrence rate of multifactorial inheritance is ________

A

The overall recurrence rate is 2–3%.

113
Q

Pathophysio of NTD

A

These anomalies result from failure of neural

tube closure by day 22–28 postconception.