Perinatal Infections Flashcards

1
Q

______ of women have asymptomatic vaginal colonization with GBS, with the majority having ________carrier status

A

Thirty percent

intermittent or transient

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2
Q

Course of early onset GBS infection

A

This is usually vertical transmission from mother to neonate with a 30% mortality rate at or before
33 weeks but less than 5% at term.

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3
Q

Late onset GBS is characterized as

A

Late-onset infection is less common, occurring after the first week of life, and is characterized by meningitis. This is usually hospital acquired, with a 5% mortality rate

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4
Q

Intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis of neonatal GBS sepsis is given with _______

A

IV penicillin

G

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5
Q

T or F

All women with a positive GBS urine culture or a previous baby with GBS sepsis will receive intrapartum prophylaxis

A

T

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6
Q

In GBS Infection

Third-trimester vaginal and rectal cultures are
obtained at_______ weeks gestational age, and intrapartum prophylaxis is administered only to those with positive GBS cultures

A

35–37

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7
Q

GBS infection,

Intrapartum prophylaxis is given on the basis of risk factors being present:
1
2
3

A
preterm  gestation (<37 weeks), 
membranes ruptured >18 h, or maternal fever (>100.4°F) (38°C).
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8
Q

Up to______of pregnant women are toxoplasmosis IgG seropositive

A

40%

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9
Q

Toxoplasmosis

First-trimester infection risk is low (15%), but infections are _____ and _____

A

most serious, even lethal.

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10
Q

Third-trimester infection risk is high (50%), but infections are mostly _______

A

asymptomatic.

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11
Q

Tx of Toxo

_______ are used to treat a known infection.

______is used to prevent vertical transmission from the mother to the fetus.

A

Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

Spiramycin

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12
Q

in VZV

The greatest neonatal risk is if maternal rash
appears between ______ and ________

A

5 days antepartum and 2 days postpartum.

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13
Q

__________of patients with varicella will develop varicella pneumonia, which has a high maternal morbidity and mortality

A

10%

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14
Q

________ to a susceptible gravida within 96 h of exposure.

A

Administer VZIG (varicella zoster immune globulin)

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15
Q

T or F

Live-attenuated varicella virus (Varivax III) can be administered to nonpregnant or postpartum to varicella IgG-antibody–negative women.

A

T

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16
Q

_______ is a highly contagious RNA virus that is spread by respiratory droplets.

A

Rubella

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17
Q

Vertical transmission from mother to fetus or neonate can only occur during the _______because the result is residual lifelong immunity

A

viremia of a primary infection

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18
Q

Manifestations may include symmetric IUGR, microcephaly,

or ventriculoseptal defect (VSD

A

fetal infection with rubella

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19
Q

T or F

Rubella infection during pregnancy is generally a mild,
low-morbidity condition

A

T

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20
Q

T or F

All pregnant women should undergo rubella IgG antibody screening

A

T

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21
Q

Because rubella vaccine is made using a live attenuated virus, pregnancy should be avoided for_____

A

1 month after immunization

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22
Q

______is a DNA herpes virus that is spread by infected body secretions

A

CMV

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23
Q

Up to _____ of pregnant women are CMV IgG seropositive.

24
Q

Manifestations of Fetal infection of CMV may include:

A

nonimmune hydrops, symmetric IUGR, microcephaly,

and cerebral calcifications in a periventricular distribution

25
______ syndrome is the most common congenital viral syndrome in the United States
CMV
26
Neonatal infection of CMV SSx
which includes petechiae, mulberry skin spots, meningoencephalitis, periventricular calcifications, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, and jaundice.
27
CMV infection during pregnancy is generally a mild, | low-morbidity condition appearing as a ______
mononucleosis-like syndrome with hepatitis.
28
_____ is a DNA herpes virus that is spread by intimate mucocutaneous contact.
HSV
29
Up to ___ of pregnant women are HSV IgG seropositiv
50%
30
The most common route of fetal infection is contact | with ______ during a recurrent HSV episode
maternal genital lesions
31
Definitive Dx of HSV The definitive diagnosis is a positive HSV culture from fluid obtained from a________, but there is a 20% false-negative rate.
ruptured vesicle or debrided ulcer
32
Fetal infection with HSV
Manifestations may include spontaneous abortions, symmetric IUGR, microcephaly, and cerebral calcifications.
33
With passage through an HSV-infected birth canal, the neonatal attack rate is ____ with a primary infection, but ______ with a recurrent infection
50% <5%
34
HSV Neonatal infection SSx
meningoencephalitis, mental retardation, pneumonia, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, and petechiae.
35
A cesarean section should be performed in the presence of genital HSV lesions at the time of labor. If membranes have been ruptured______ the virus may already have infected the fetus and cesarean delivery would be of no value
>8–12 h,
36
______is an RNA retrovirus that is spread by infected body secretions.
HIV
37
HIV Transplacental infection occurs, but the major route of vertical transmission is _________
contact with infected genital secretions at the time of vaginal delivery
38
Without maternal azidothymidine (AZT) prophylaxis, the vertical transmission rate is ____, but with AZT the infection rate is lowered to _____ with vaginal delivery
30% 10%
39
In HIV, With elective cesarean section without labor and before membrane rupture, the perinatal infection rate may be ________
<5%.
40
The greatest benefit to the fetus of cesarean delivery is | probably in women with ______ and ____, making infection through a vaginal delivery much more likely.
low CD4 counts and high RNA viral loads
41
At birth neonates of HIV-positive women will have positive HIV tests from_______
transplacental passive IgG passage
42
T or F HIV-infected breast milk can potentially transmit the disease to the newborn
T
43
T or F Progression from HIV to AIDS in infants is more rapid than in adults
T
44
T or F Pregnancy in an HIV-positive woman enhances progression to AIDS.
F Pregnancy in an HIV-positive woman does not enhance progression to AIDS.
45
HIV Infected pregnant women should take________as part of their drug regimen, starting at 14 weeks and continuing throughout pregnancy, intrapartum, and after delivery
triple-drug therapy including the drug zidovudine | ZDV
46
Example of triple therapy in HIV
This includes 2 nucelotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) with either an NNRTI or a protease inhibitor. An example would be zidovudine, lamivudine, or ritonavir
47
_____ is caused by Treponema pallidum, a motile anaerobic spirochete that cannot be cultured
Syphilis
48
Transplacental infection is common with vertical transmission rates of ____ in primary and secondary syphilis
60%
49
What Syphilis stage Papules become painless ulcers with rolled edges (chancres) which appear 2–3 weeks after contact at the site of infection, most commonly the vulva, vagina, or cervix
Primary
50
What Syphilis stage? Two to three months after contact, fever, malaise, general adenopathy, and a maculopapular skin rash (“money spots”) are seen. Broad exophytic excrescences (condyloma lata) appear on the vulva.
Secondary
51
What stage? Darkfield microscopy of lesion exudate is positive for the spirochete, but the nonspecific serologic tests VDRL or rapid plasma reagin [RPR] test) are not yet positive
Primary
52
______is characterized by absence of symptoms or physical findings. One third of cases proceed to tertiary disease. The nonspecific and treponema-specific tests remain positive
Latent syphilis
53
______ is a symptomatic stage with symptoms dependent on which organ system is affected by the classic necrotic, ulcerative nodules (gummas
Tertiary syphilis
54
Tx of Syphilis
Benzathine penicillin 2.4 million units IM × 1 is given in pregnancy to ensure adequate antibiotic levels in the fetus.
55
How to ff-up serology in pts with syphilis
Follow serology titers at 1, 3, 6, 12, and 24 months. Titers should be decreased fourfold by 6 months, and should be negative in 12-24 months
56
In Syphilis Tx, The _______ is associated with treatment and occurs in half of pregnant women. It starts in 1-2 hours, peaks in 8 hours, and resolves in 24-48 hours
Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction