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Repro > Repro+ 0514Q > Flashcards

Repro+ 0514Q Flashcards

1
Q

hepatocyte injury in viral hepatitis

A

diffuse swelling (ballooning degeneration)

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2
Q

hepatocyte death in viral hepatitis

A

lobular architectural disruption.

confluent hepatocyte necrosis (bridging necrosis).

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3
Q

what happens in response to hepatocyte injury and death in viral hepatitis?

A

mononuclear inflammation in sinusoids and portal tracts

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4
Q

nondisjunction in Down syndrome

A

most occur during maternal meiosis I (homologous chromosomes fail to separate)

*2 different bands from mother of RFLP

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5
Q

most common pathogen causing cystitis and acute pyelonephritis

A

E.coli

*second most common: S.saprophyticus

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6
Q

by what age does a woman have her full complement of oocytes?

A

5 months gestational age (arrested in prophase of meiosis I)

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7
Q

what should be performed following evacuation of hydatidiform mole?

A

serial measurements of beta-hCG.

persistently elevated or rising levels would signify development of invasive mole or choriocarcinoma.

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8
Q

what causes severe nausea and vomiting in pts with hydatidiform mole?

A

increased hCG secretion by proliferating trophoblast

*excessive hCG also stimulates ovarian growth (theca-lutein cysts)

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9
Q

what composes a choriocarcinoma?

A

atypical cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts with foci of hemorrhage and necrosis

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10
Q

serum potassium in DKA

A

normal to increased serum K

but low intracellular K (need to replenish)

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11
Q

anti-tumor effects of IL-2

A

via IL-2 stimulating activity of T cells and NK cells.

immunotherapy for metastatic melanoma and RCC.

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12
Q

what determines extent of feminization in Klinefelter?

A

estrogen:testosterone ratio

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13
Q

circumstances in which pt confidentiality can be breached

A
  1. suspected child or elder abuse.
  2. gunshot or stabbing injuries.
  3. dx of reportable communicable disease.
  4. threat to physically harm themselves or others.
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14
Q

features of S.pyogenes (Group A)

A

beta-hemolytic.

bacitracin susceptible.

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15
Q

features of S.agalactiae (Group B)

A

beta-hemolytic.

bacitracin resistant.

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16
Q

features of S.pneumoniae

A

bile-soluble (unable to be cultured in bile).

optochin susceptible.

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17
Q

tRNA wobble

A

each tRNA molecule is specific for an amino acid. many tRNA anticodons can bind to a few different codons that code for SAME amino acid.

*due to “degenerate” nature of genetic code: more codons (61) than amino acids (20)

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18
Q

primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

AR mutation in microtubule-assoc. protein DYNEIN.

can cause Kartagener’s syndrome (variable penetrance)

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19
Q

features of Kartagener’s syndrome

A

male infertility.
situs inversus.
recurrent sinusitis/otitis.
bronchiectasis (bronchial dilation).

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20
Q

para-aortic (retroperitoneal) nodes

A

drainage from testes

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21
Q

superficial inguinal nodes

A

drainage from scrotum

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22
Q

deep inguinal nodes

A

drainage from glans penis and superficial nodes

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23
Q

which nodes drain nearly all cutaneous structures inferior to umbilicus?

A

superficial inguinal nodes

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24
Q

eosinophil roles

A
  1. parasitic infx: stimulated by IgE bound to parasitic cell. destroy via ANTIBODY-DEPENDENT CELLULAR CYTOTOXICITY.
  2. regulate type I hypersensitivity rxns.
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25
Q

what other cells rely on Ab-dependent cellular cytotoxicity?

A

macrophages.

NK cells.

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26
Q

how do eosinophils regulate type I hypersens?

A

granules contain histaminase: degrades histamine to reduce atopic severity.

leukotrienes and peroxidases facilitate inflamm.

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27
Q

what cells mediate immediate (type I) hypersensitivity?

A

mast cells and basophils

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28
Q

toxic megacolon

A

complication of ulcerative colitis.
abd pain, distention.
fever, diarrhea, shock.

plain abd XR for dx.

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29
Q

what tests are contraindicated in toxic megacolon and why?

A

barium contrast.
colonoscopy.
due to risk of perforation.

30
Q

indirect indicators of chronic alcholism

A

macrocytosis.
AST:ALT > 2.
elevated GGT.

31
Q

what happens to endometrial cells when endocrine stimulation by progesterone is withdrawn?

A

APOPTOSIS

32
Q

what is the main source of bld glucose after 12-18 hrs of fasting?

A

gluconeogenesis - glycogenolysis of liver stores can only last 12-18 hrs before depletion

33
Q

what increases the activity of pyruvate carboxylase?

A

[converts pyruvate to OAA in mito]

high conc of acetyl coA increase activity

34
Q

what causes LH surge?

A

high estrogen in late follicular phase has positive feedback on LH prod.

35
Q

pituitary apoplexy

A

acute bleeding into preexisting pituitary adenoma

36
Q

what causes cardiovascular collapse in pituitary apoplexy?

A

ACTH deficiency leads to adrenocortical insufficiency

37
Q

what differentiates pituitary apoplexy from subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

bitemporal hemianopia - specific to pituitary lesions

38
Q

location of femoral hernias

A

inferior to inguinal ligament.
lateral to pubic tubercle.
medial to femoral vein.

39
Q

how does location of femoral hernias compare to other groin hernias?

A

femoral located BELOW inguinal ligament; direct and indirect inguinal hernias ABOVE inguinal ligament

40
Q

effects of progesterone during secretory phase

A

cause uterine glands to coil, secrete glycogen-rich mucus.

endometrial stroma becomes edematous, traversed by tortuous spiral aa. that extend from deeper layers to uterine lumen.

41
Q

TX of gestational diabetes

A

INSULIN - in pts who diet and exercise but still fail to control BG levels

42
Q

triad of late-stage hemochromatosis

A

BRONZE DIABETES

  1. skin hyperpigmentation.
  2. diabetes mellitus.
  3. pigment cirrhosis w/ hepatomegaly.
43
Q

ulcers arising in prox duo in assoc with severe trauma or burns

A

Curling ulcers

44
Q

ulcers arising in esophagus, stom, or duo in pts with high intracranial pressure

A

Cushing ulcers - esp prone to perforation

45
Q

what induces formation of Cushing ulcers?

A

direct stim of vagus n. by increased intracranial pressure = hypersecretion of gastric acid

46
Q

what is required for emergence of small adenomatous polyps from normal colonic mucosa?

A

APC mutation

47
Q

DCC gene

A

Deleted in Colon Cancer: part of final step in progression of large adenomatous polyps into adenocarcinoma

48
Q

MSH2

A

one of the DNA mismatch repair genes.

part of HNPCC/Lynch syndrome.

49
Q

what is most commonly affected by endometriosis?

A

ovaries

50
Q

inhibin has neg feedback on..?

A 
anterior pituitary (FSH)
but not on hypothalamus
51
Q

primary route for copper elimination

A

secreted into bile,

excreted into stool

52
Q

smooth ER contains enzymes for?

A

steroid and phospholipid biosynth.

all steroid-producing cells (adrenals, gonads, liver) contain a well-developed SER.

53
Q

main mech of GERD

A

gastroesophageal junction incompetence

54
Q

most common cause of infectious esophagitis

A

candida: oropharyngeal dysphagia/osynophagia in HIV pts

55
Q

hamartomatous polyps can cause…

A

bleeding.

intussusception.

56
Q

which adenomas may be velvety or cauliflower-like?

A

villous adenomas

57
Q

most common COD in diabetics?

A

myocardial infarction

58
Q

classic exposure hx for HCV

A

intravenous drug abuse - main transmission through inoculations and bld transfusions

59
Q

exposure hx for HBV

A

main transmission is blood but can be transmitted through any other body fluids (except stool)

*unprotected sex

60
Q

what prevents lactogenesis during pregnancy?

A

high circulating levels of estrogen and progesterone (while also promoting breast growth/development)

61
Q

estrogen prod during preg

A

tri1: corpus luteum.

tri2-3: fetal adrenal gland + placenta.

62
Q

progesterone prod during preg

A

tri1: corpus luteum.

tri2-3: placenta.

63
Q

what drains to superficial inguinal nodes?

A

ALL SKIN from umbilicus down,
including anus up to dentate line
but excluding posterior calf

64
Q

discharge of bacterial vaginosis

A

(Gardnerella vaginalis)
gray discharge with fishy odor.
clue cells on wet mount.

65
Q

Trichomonas discharge

A

yellow-green, foamy, foul-smelling discharge.

motile trophozoites with flagellae.

66
Q

common source of HepA in US

A

contaminated water or food - RAW/STEAMED SHELLFISH (fecal-oral transmission)

67
Q

transient central DI

A

damage to posterior pituitary

68
Q

permanent central DI

A

damage to hypothalamic nuclei or pituitary stalk

69
Q

genetic defect in MEN 1

A

MENIN gene (chromo 11)

70
Q

brown adipose tissue

A

several intracytoplasmic fat droplets.
many more mito that white tissue.

PRODUCE HEAT by uncoupling ox phos with thermogenin (no ATP synthesized)

Repro (8 decks)

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