Repro+ 0514Q Flashcards

1
Q

hepatocyte injury in viral hepatitis

A

diffuse swelling (ballooning degeneration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

hepatocyte death in viral hepatitis

A

lobular architectural disruption.

confluent hepatocyte necrosis (bridging necrosis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what happens in response to hepatocyte injury and death in viral hepatitis?

A

mononuclear inflammation in sinusoids and portal tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

nondisjunction in Down syndrome

A

most occur during maternal meiosis I (homologous chromosomes fail to separate)

*2 different bands from mother of RFLP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

most common pathogen causing cystitis and acute pyelonephritis

A

E.coli

*second most common: S.saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

by what age does a woman have her full complement of oocytes?

A

5 months gestational age (arrested in prophase of meiosis I)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what should be performed following evacuation of hydatidiform mole?

A

serial measurements of beta-hCG.

persistently elevated or rising levels would signify development of invasive mole or choriocarcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what causes severe nausea and vomiting in pts with hydatidiform mole?

A

increased hCG secretion by proliferating trophoblast

*excessive hCG also stimulates ovarian growth (theca-lutein cysts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what composes a choriocarcinoma?

A

atypical cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts with foci of hemorrhage and necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

serum potassium in DKA

A

normal to increased serum K

but low intracellular K (need to replenish)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

anti-tumor effects of IL-2

A

via IL-2 stimulating activity of T cells and NK cells.

immunotherapy for metastatic melanoma and RCC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what determines extent of feminization in Klinefelter?

A

estrogen:testosterone ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

circumstances in which pt confidentiality can be breached

A
  1. suspected child or elder abuse.
  2. gunshot or stabbing injuries.
  3. dx of reportable communicable disease.
  4. threat to physically harm themselves or others.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

features of S.pyogenes (Group A)

A

beta-hemolytic.

bacitracin susceptible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

features of S.agalactiae (Group B)

A

beta-hemolytic.

bacitracin resistant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

features of S.pneumoniae

A

bile-soluble (unable to be cultured in bile).

optochin susceptible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

tRNA wobble

A

each tRNA molecule is specific for an amino acid. many tRNA anticodons can bind to a few different codons that code for SAME amino acid.

*due to “degenerate” nature of genetic code: more codons (61) than amino acids (20)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

AR mutation in microtubule-assoc. protein DYNEIN.

can cause Kartagener’s syndrome (variable penetrance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

features of Kartagener’s syndrome

A

male infertility.
situs inversus.
recurrent sinusitis/otitis.
bronchiectasis (bronchial dilation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

para-aortic (retroperitoneal) nodes

A

drainage from testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

superficial inguinal nodes

A

drainage from scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

deep inguinal nodes

A

drainage from glans penis and superficial nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which nodes drain nearly all cutaneous structures inferior to umbilicus?

A

superficial inguinal nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

eosinophil roles

A
  1. parasitic infx: stimulated by IgE bound to parasitic cell. destroy via ANTIBODY-DEPENDENT CELLULAR CYTOTOXICITY.
  2. regulate type I hypersensitivity rxns.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what other cells rely on Ab-dependent cellular cytotoxicity?
macrophages. | NK cells.
26
how do eosinophils regulate type I hypersens?
granules contain histaminase: degrades histamine to reduce atopic severity. leukotrienes and peroxidases facilitate inflamm.
27
what cells mediate immediate (type I) hypersensitivity?
mast cells and basophils
28
toxic megacolon
complication of ulcerative colitis. abd pain, distention. fever, diarrhea, shock. plain abd XR for dx.
29
what tests are contraindicated in toxic megacolon and why?
barium contrast. colonoscopy. due to risk of perforation.
30
indirect indicators of chronic alcholism
macrocytosis. AST:ALT > 2. elevated GGT.
31
what happens to endometrial cells when endocrine stimulation by progesterone is withdrawn?
APOPTOSIS
32
what is the main source of bld glucose after 12-18 hrs of fasting?
gluconeogenesis - glycogenolysis of liver stores can only last 12-18 hrs before depletion
33
what increases the activity of pyruvate carboxylase?
[converts pyruvate to OAA in mito] | high conc of acetyl coA increase activity
34
what causes LH surge?
high estrogen in late follicular phase has positive feedback on LH prod.
35
pituitary apoplexy
acute bleeding into preexisting pituitary adenoma
36
what causes cardiovascular collapse in pituitary apoplexy?
ACTH deficiency leads to adrenocortical insufficiency
37
what differentiates pituitary apoplexy from subarachnoid hemorrhage?
bitemporal hemianopia - specific to pituitary lesions
38
location of femoral hernias
inferior to inguinal ligament. lateral to pubic tubercle. medial to femoral vein.
39
how does location of femoral hernias compare to other groin hernias?
femoral located BELOW inguinal ligament; direct and indirect inguinal hernias ABOVE inguinal ligament
40
effects of progesterone during secretory phase
cause uterine glands to coil, secrete glycogen-rich mucus. endometrial stroma becomes edematous, traversed by tortuous spiral aa. that extend from deeper layers to uterine lumen.
41
TX of gestational diabetes
INSULIN - in pts who diet and exercise but still fail to control BG levels
42
triad of late-stage hemochromatosis
BRONZE DIABETES 1. skin hyperpigmentation. 2. diabetes mellitus. 3. pigment cirrhosis w/ hepatomegaly.
43
ulcers arising in prox duo in assoc with severe trauma or burns
Curling ulcers
44
ulcers arising in esophagus, stom, or duo in pts with high intracranial pressure
Cushing ulcers - esp prone to perforation
45
what induces formation of Cushing ulcers?
direct stim of vagus n. by increased intracranial pressure = hypersecretion of gastric acid
46
what is required for emergence of small adenomatous polyps from normal colonic mucosa?
APC mutation
47
DCC gene
Deleted in Colon Cancer: part of final step in progression of large adenomatous polyps into adenocarcinoma
48
MSH2
one of the DNA mismatch repair genes. | part of HNPCC/Lynch syndrome.
49
what is most commonly affected by endometriosis?
ovaries
50
inhibin has neg feedback on..?
``` anterior pituitary (FSH) but not on hypothalamus ```
51
primary route for copper elimination
secreted into bile, | excreted into stool
52
smooth ER contains enzymes for?
steroid and phospholipid biosynth. all steroid-producing cells (adrenals, gonads, liver) contain a well-developed SER.
53
main mech of GERD
gastroesophageal junction incompetence
54
most common cause of infectious esophagitis
candida: oropharyngeal dysphagia/osynophagia in HIV pts
55
hamartomatous polyps can cause...
bleeding. | intussusception.
56
which adenomas may be velvety or cauliflower-like?
villous adenomas
57
most common COD in diabetics?
myocardial infarction
58
classic exposure hx for HCV
intravenous drug abuse - main transmission through inoculations and bld transfusions
59
exposure hx for HBV
main transmission is blood but can be transmitted through any other body fluids (except stool) *unprotected sex
60
what prevents lactogenesis during pregnancy?
high circulating levels of estrogen and progesterone (while also promoting breast growth/development)
61
estrogen prod during preg
tri1: corpus luteum. | tri2-3: fetal adrenal gland + placenta.
62
progesterone prod during preg
tri1: corpus luteum. | tri2-3: placenta.
63
what drains to superficial inguinal nodes?
ALL SKIN from umbilicus down, including anus up to dentate line but excluding posterior calf
64
discharge of bacterial vaginosis
(Gardnerella vaginalis) gray discharge with fishy odor. clue cells on wet mount.
65
Trichomonas discharge
yellow-green, foamy, foul-smelling discharge. | motile trophozoites with flagellae.
66
common source of HepA in US
contaminated water or food - RAW/STEAMED SHELLFISH (fecal-oral transmission)
67
transient central DI
damage to posterior pituitary
68
permanent central DI
damage to hypothalamic nuclei or pituitary stalk
69
genetic defect in MEN 1
MENIN gene (chromo 11)
70
brown adipose tissue
several intracytoplasmic fat droplets. many more mito that white tissue. PRODUCE HEAT by uncoupling ox phos with thermogenin (no ATP synthesized)