Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DIT Reproductive > Repro 0 > Flashcards

Repro 0 Flashcards

1
Q

Where can you find nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in the body?

A

Neuromuscular junction. Autonomic ganglia. Adrenal medulla.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What drug category does -azepam belong?

A

Benzodiazepines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What drug category does -conazole belong?

A

Antifungals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What drug category does -caine belong?

A

Local anesthetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What drug category does -cycline belong?

A

Tetracyclines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What drug category does -navir belong?

A

Protease inhibitors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What drug category does -operidol belong?

A

Neuroleptics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drug category does -phylline belong?

A

Methylxanthines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What drug category does -terol belong?

A

Beta 2 agonists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What drug category does -triptyline belong?

A

TCAs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What drug category does -zosin belong?

A

Alpha 1 blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drug category does -sartan belong?

A

ARBs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What drug category does -stigmine belong?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What drug category does -curium/-curonium belong?

A

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drug category does -glitazone belong?

A

TZDs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What drug category does -dipine belong?

A

Dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the systolic heart murmurs?

A

Mitral regurg. Tricuspid regurg. Aortic stenosis. Pulmonic stenosis. Mitral valve prolapse. VSD. PDA (continuous- systolic and diastolic).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the common side effects of Beta-blockers?

A

Bradycardia and possibly AV block. Decrease myocardial contractility. Bronchoconstriction (non-selective beta-blockers). Mask sympathetic symptoms of hypoglycemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe how the murmur of mitral regurg is different from the murmur of aortic regurg.

A

Mitral regurg: Holosystolic, loudest at apex, heard best at left lateral decubitus, enhanced by squatting and expiration. Aortic regurg: Diastolic, heard best along the left sternal border, associated w/ widening of pulse pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In which order of elimination (zero or first) would you see a linear decrease in the plasma concentration of a substance when plotted against time?

A

Zero order because the rate of elimination of a substance is independent of the level of the substance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What medications are know for having anticholinergic side effects?

A

Typical neuroleptics (thioridazine, chlorpromazine). 1st generation antihistamines (diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine). Tricyclic antidepresants (Amitriptyline). Amantadine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drug category does -ane belong?

A

Inhaled anesthetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What drug category does -azine belong?

A

Phenothiazines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What drug category does -olol belong?

A

Beta blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What drug category does -ipramine belong?

A

TCAs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What drug category does -oxin belong?

A

Digoxin (cardiac glycosides).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What drug category does -pril belong?

A

ACE inhibitors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What drug category does -tidine belong?

A

H2 blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What drug category does -tropin belong?

A

Pituitary hormones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What drug category does -dronate belong?

A

Bisphosphonates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What drug category does -chol belong?

A

Muscarinic (cholinergic) agonists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What drug category does -mustine belong?

A

Nitrosoureas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What drug category does -statin belong?

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What drug category does -bendazole belong?

A

Anti-helminthic drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What elbow injury is common in tennis players? What elbow injury is common in golfers?

A

Tennis players: Lateral epicondylitis. Golfers: Medial epicondylitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the general byproduct And reactions take place in Phase I metabolism? Of Phase II?

A

Phase I metabolism byproducts are lightly more polar, slightly more water soluble metabolites; reactions are oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis. Phase II metabolism byproducts are very polar, inactive metabolites; reactions are acetylation, sulfation, glucuronidation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which three enzymes are required to convert phenylalanine to dopamine?

A

Phenylalalnine hydroxylase (phenylalanine to tyrosine). Tyrosine hydroxylase (Tyrosine to DOPA). DOPA decarboxylase (DOPA to dopamine)

38
Q

What is the function of the protein that is absent in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

The protein is called Dystrophin; connects muscle fibers to one another.

39
Q

Explain why methanol is such a toxic substance.

A

It is metabolized to formaldehyde, causing metabolic acidosis, retinal damage (leads to blindness).

40
Q

Which skin disorder causes Pruritic, purple, polygonal papules?

A

Lichen planus.

41
Q

Which skin disorder causes pruritic vesicles associated w/ celiac disease?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis.

42
Q

Which skin disorder causes thickened scar especially around face/chest?

A

Keloid.

43
Q

Which skin disorder causes parakeratotic scaling?

A

Psoriasis.

44
Q

Which skin disorder causes keratin-filled cysts?

A

Seborrheic keratosis.

45
Q

Which skin disorder causes skin rash and proximal muscle weakness?

A

Dermatomyositis.

46
Q

Which skin disorder causes honey crusting lesions common about the nose and lips?

A

Impetigo.

47
Q

Which skin disorder causes hyperkeratosis and koilocytosis?

A

Verrucae of HPV.

48
Q

What are some examples of substances eliminated at a constant rate (zero-order elimination)?

A

[PEA] Pea is round like zero. Phenytoin. Ethanol. Aspirin.

49
Q

Which enzymes are used to metabolize alcohol?

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase (Ethanol to acetaldehyde). Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase (acetaldehyde to acetate).

50
Q

A patient falls off a motorcycle and lands on his right shoulder. On physical exam you notice his shoulder has an abnormal configuration. x-ray indicate an anterior dislocation of his shoulder. What artery and nerve are most at risk of being damaged?

A

Axillary nerve. Posterior circumflex artery.

51
Q

A 75-y.o man presents w/ acute knee pain and swelling. An x-ray reveals absence of erosion of the joint space, but there are calcium deposits in the menisci. What is the diagnosis, and what would you find on aspiration of the joint?

A

It is Pseudogout. Joint aspiration will find calcium pyrophosphate crystals.

52
Q

What are some of the inducers of cytochrome P450?

A

[Guinness, Coronas, and PBRs induce chronic alcoholism] Griseofulvin, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Barbiturates, Rifampin, St. John’s wort, Chronic alcoholism.

53
Q

What are the byproducts of MAO and COMT enzymatic acitivity on dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine?

A

Dopamine breaks down to Homovanillic acid (HVA). Norepinephrine to Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA). Ephinephrine to Metanephrine.

54
Q

What are the common locations for tophi in gout patients?

A

External ear (most common). Olecranon bursa. Achilles tendon.

55
Q

What are some medications that are known for having a low therapeutic index?

A

Lithium. Digoxin. Warfarin. Phenobarbital.

56
Q

What are the layers of the epidermis?

A

[Californians Like Girls in String Bikinis] Corneum. Lucidum. Granulosum. Spinosum. Basalis.

57
Q

What are the symptoms of inhibiting parasympathetic activity?

A

[dry as a bone, hot as a hare, red as a beet, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, bloated as a toad] Decreased secretions and salivation, increased temp, peripheral vasodilation, mydriasis and cycloplegia, Agitation and delirium, constipation and urinary retention.

58
Q

A young woman is found have short stature and shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals. What endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these manifestations?

A

Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (Type 1a pseudohypoparathyroidism).

59
Q

What is the clinical use of clomiphene? How does this drug work?

A

Used in infertility. It is a partial agonist at estrogen receptors in hypothalamus; limits normal feedback inhibitionand induces FSH secretion and stimulates follicles.

60
Q

What drugs should not be given to sulfa allergic patients?

A

Celecoxib. Loop diuretics (Furosemide). Thiazide diuretics. Acetazolamide. Probenecid. TMP-SMX. Sulfonylureas. Sulfasalazine.

61
Q

What psychiatric disorder arises from increased norepinephrine?

A

Anxiety. Mania.

62
Q

What is the result of blocking the Mesocortical pathway?

A

Increased in negative symptoms of schizophrenia (social withdrawal, depression).

63
Q

What is the result of blocking the Mesolimbic pathway?

A

Decreased in positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

64
Q

What is the result of blocking the Nigrostriatal pathway?

A

Parkinson disease.

65
Q

What is the result of blocking the Tuberoinfundibular pathway?

A

Increased prolactin secretion, leading to hypogonadism (amenorrhea, decreased libido, gynecomastia, galactorrhea).

66
Q

What stage of sleep is associated w/ Alpha waves in EEG?

A

Relaxation.

67
Q

What stage of sleep is associated w/ Beta waves in EEG?

A

REM sleep.

68
Q

What stage of sleep is associated w/ Delta waves in EEG?

A

Stage N3.

69
Q

What stage of sleep is associated w/ Theta waves in EEG?

A

Stage N1.

70
Q

What other severe problems often coexist w/ septic shock in ICU patients?

A

Acute renal failure. Liver failure. ARDS. DIC. Adrenal insufficiency. Acute pancreatitis. Intestinal ileus.

71
Q

What effect will stimulating Beta 1 receptor have on heart rate?

A

Increase HR.

72
Q

What effect will stimulating Beta 2 receptor have on heart rate?

A

Increase HR because vessels will dilate and lower BP, so the heart compensates.

73
Q

What effect will stimulating M2 receptor have on heart rate?

A

Decrease HR.

74
Q

What is the primary mechanism of Class I antiarrhythmics?

A

Sodium channel blockers.

75
Q

What is the primary mechanism of Class II antiarrhythmics?

A

Beta blockers.

76
Q

What is the primary mechanism of Class III antiarrhythmics?

A

K channel blockers.

77
Q

What is the primary mechanism of Class IV antiarrhythmics?

A

Ca channel blockers.

78
Q

What changes in sleep pattern and sexual anatomy are seen in the elderly?

A

Sleep pattern: Decreased REM sleep and slow wave sleep; increase in sleep latency and nighttime awakenings. Sexual anatomy: Men have slower erection and ejaculation and longer refractory period while women have vaginal atrophy.

79
Q

What psychiatric disorder arises from decreased norepinephrine?

A

Depression.

80
Q

What other neurologic pathology are patients who have migraines w/ aura at risk for?

A

Strokes.

81
Q

What serum lab marker is helpful in assessing the appropriate oxygenation of tissues?

A

Lactic acid.

82
Q

What are the five branches of the facial nerve?

A

[Tim Zulu Bit My Chin]

Temporal. Zygomatic. Buccal. Marginal mandibular. Cervical.

83
Q

What would you suspect as a cause of headache in a patient using topical retinoic acid for acne?

A

Pseudotumor cerebri.

84
Q

What are the defects in tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Pulmonary valvular stenosis. Right ventricular hypertrophy. VSD. Overriding aorta.

85
Q

What is the defect in Ebstein anomaly?

A

Tricuspid leaflets are displaced into right ventricle. Hypoplastic right ventricle. Tricuspid regurgitation or stenosis. Caused by maternal lithium use.

86
Q

What changes would you see in serum calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase and PTH in someone with Primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Increased Ca, Decreased Phos, Increased Alk Phos, Increased PTH.

87
Q

What changes would you see in serum calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase and PTH in someone with Paget disease of bone?

A

Everything normal except that Alk Phos will be elevated.

88
Q

What changes would you see in serum calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase and PTH in someone with Vitamin D toxicity?

A

Increased Ca, Increased Phos, Normal Alk Phos, decreased PTH.

89
Q

What are the roles of Sertoli cells and Leydig cells in male spermatogenesis?

A

Leydig cells are stimulated by LH, and produce testosterone. Sertoli cells are stimulated by FSH and produce androgen-binding protein (ABP) that keeps testosterone around longer in seminiferous tubules.

90
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Sildenafil?

A

Inhibits cGMP phosphodiesterase, increasing cGMP, leading to relaxation of smooth muscle in corpus cavernosum, causing increased blood flow which equals erection.

DIT Reproductive (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions