Renal Flashcards

1
Q

What is Bartter syndrome?

A

A group of disorders characterised by hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis with hypercalciuria and salt wasting.

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2
Q

What are the types of Bartter syndrome?

A

Antenatal (hyperprostaglandin E) - types I, II and IV.
More severe phenotype.
Classic - type III

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3
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Bartter syndrome?

A
  • defect in Na, Cl and K transport in the ascending LoH
  • loss of Na and Cl result in volume contraction and stimulate renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone axis
  • aldosterone promotes Na uptake and K secretion, exacerbating hypokalaemia
  • aldosterone promotes H secretion distally worsening metabolic alkalosis
  • Hypokalaemia promotes prostaglandin synthesis further activating renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone axis
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4
Q

What is the use of a dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan?

A

DMSA localises to the proximal tubules, assesses function, looks for scarring, and is generally done if there is evidence of VUR. Can be used to detect acute pyelonephritis and renal scarring in the acute and chronic settings, respectively.

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5
Q

What is the use of a diuretic diethylene triamine pentaacetic acid (DTPA) scan?

A

DTPA is an excretory nuclear medicine scan, which assesses obstruction, used to assess differential renal function, and when frusemide is given, drainage/obstruction can also be measured.

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6
Q

What is Gitelman syndrome?

A

Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis with hypocalciuria and hypomagnesaemia.

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7
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Gitelman syndrome?

A

Defects in the NaCl cotransporter NCCT.

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8
Q

Chronic use of which diuretic class gives a picture consistent with Bartter syndrome?

A

Loop diuretics

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9
Q

Chronic use of which diuretic gives a picture consistent with Gitelman syndrome?

A

Thiazide diuretics

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10
Q

What is the definition of nephrotic range proteinuria?

A

> 3.5g urinary protein/ 24h or Pr:Cr >2

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11
Q

What glomerular lesions are associated with idiopathic nephrotic syndrome.

A

Minimal change disease (most common), focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, membranoproliferative glomerulosclerosis, C3 glomerulopathy and membranous nephropathy.

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12
Q

What systemic diseases can cause secondary nephrotic syndrome?

A

SLE, HSP, malignancy (lymphoma and leukaemia) and infections (hepatitis, HIV and malaria).

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13
Q

What blood findings do you see in obstructive uropathy?

A
  • Hyperkalaemia.
  • Metabolic acidosis.
  • Likely due to a distal renal tubular acidosis with mineralocorticoid resistance.
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14
Q

What is the classic triad seen in HUS?

A
  • Thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, acute renal failure.
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15
Q

What is the primary mechanism of renal injury in HUS?

A
  • Endotoxin binding to renal vessel endothelium.
  • Reserved to refer to the lipopolysccharide complex associated with the outer membrane of pathogens such as E. coli, Salmonella and Shigella.
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16
Q

What are the pRIFLE criteria?

A
  • Risk <0.5ml/kg/h for 8h.
  • Injury <0.5ml/kg/h for 16h.
  • Failure <0.3ml/kg/h for 24h or anuria for 12h.
17
Q

What fractional excretion of sodium suggests ATN?

A
  • > 2.
18
Q

What urinary osmolality do you expect to see in ATN>

A
  • <350
19
Q

Would you expect diuresis following fluid challenge in ATN?

A
  • No. If no response to fluid challenge within 2h likely intrinsic or post-renal AKI.
20
Q

What is the fractional excretion of sodium used for?

A
  • To differentiate between pre-renal and intrinsic AKI.

- Pre-renal <1%, intrinsic >2%, 1-2% undetermined.

21
Q

What is the triad seen in Denys Drash syndrome?

A
  • Congenital nephropathy.
  • Wilms tumour.
  • Intersex disorders.
  • Caused by WT1 mutation (tumour supressor).
22
Q

What are the features associated with Peirson syndrome?

A
  • Congenital nephrotic syndrome.
  • Occular abnormalities - microcoria, most are blind.
  • Neurodevelopmental delay.
  • Caused by changes in LAMB2 gene.