Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the the Urea Cycle defects is not autosomal recessive?

A
  • Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency is X-linked.
  • All males of a carrier female will be affected
  • 10% of female carriers are also affected
  • Risk of further child inheriting the disorder >50%
  • If parents know the gender of their child more specific advice can be given: 50% chance of affected male, 10% chance of affected female
  • Males generally more severely affected
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2
Q

What syndrome is associated with mutation of CHD7 gene?

A
- CHARGE syndrome
Coloboma
Heart defects
choanal Atresia
Retarded growth
GU defects
Ear anomalies
- CHD7 on 8q11
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3
Q

What syndrome is associated with mutation of PAX2 gene?

A
  • Renal-coloboma syndrome

- coloboma, renal abnormalities, SNHL, seizures and joint laxity.

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4
Q

Which disorders are due to mutations in fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR)?

A
  • Achondroplasia group.

- -> thanatrophoric dysplasia, achondroplasia, hypochondroplasia.

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5
Q

What are manifestations of achondroplasia?

A
  • Manifests at birth.
  • AD but most cases sporadic.
  • FGFR3
  • Short limbs, long narrow trunk, midfacial hypoplasia and prominent forehead.
  • Limb shortening greatest in proximal segments.
  • Fingers often display trident configuration.
  • Infants often have delayed motor milestones.
  • Spinal canal stenotic, can experience expression at level of foramen magnum. Can result in quadraparesis, central apnoea and sudden death.
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6
Q

What components are identified by different blot techniques?

A
  • Southern blot identifies DNA.
  • Northern blot identifies RNA.
  • Western blot identifies protein.
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7
Q

What is the inheritance of retinitis pigmentosa?

A
  • Group of inherited dystrophies characterised by progressive degeneration and dysfunction of the retina, primarily affecting photoreceptor and pigment epithelial function.
  • May occur alone or as part of a syndrome.
  • May be inherited as part of a syndrome, recessive, dominant or X-linked trait.
  • Typical form (non-syndromic) in which manifestations are restricted to the eye comprises 65% of cases.
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8
Q

Describe Usher syndrome.

A
  • Most common form of syndromic retinitis pigmentosa.

- Congenital or early onset hearing impairment followed by development of RP.

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9
Q

Describe Bardet-Biedl syndrome.

A
  • Second most common syndromic form of retinitis pigmentosa.
  • Associated with polydactyly, obesity. renal abnormalities and mental retardation.
  • Cal also be associated with micro-orchidism, polyuria and polydipsia.
  • Autosomal recessive. Mutations involving nephronophthisis (NPHP) gene well characterised and cause childhood endstage renal failure and retinitis pigmentosa.
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10
Q

What are the causes of pigmentary retinopathy?

A
  • Retinitis pigmentosa (non-syndromic).
  • Usher syndrome.
  • Bardet-Biedl syndrome.
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11
Q

What are the features of incontinentia pigmenti?

A
  • X-linked dominant.
  • Generally lethal in males, resulting in miscarriage.
  • Erythematous linear streaks with plaques of vesicles along Blaschko lines, appear in 1st 3 weeks.
  • 80% have dental abnormalities.
  • 1/3 neurological involvement - seizures, microcephaly, developmental delay/intellectual impairment.
  • 30% ocular involvement - cataract, optic nerve atrophy and retrolenticular masses.
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12
Q

What are the stages of incontinentia pigmenti?

A
  • Stage 1: vesicular.
  • Stage 2: verrucous.
  • Stage 3: Hyperpigmented.
  • Stage 4: Atrophic/hyperpigmented.
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13
Q

Which gene is responsible for reduced growth and development in Turner syndrome?

A
  • SHOX gene.
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14
Q

What are features of Loeys-Dietz syndrome?

A
  • Mutation in transforming growth factor (TGF-b) receptors.
  • Autosomal dominant.
  • Triad of arterial tortuosity and aneurysms, hypertelorism and bifid uvula.
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15
Q

Describe Papillon-Lefevre syndrome.

A
  • Rare AR disorder.
  • Mutation CTSC gene - regulates production of cathepsin C.
  • Palmoplantar hyperkeratosis and immunodeficiency (pyogenic infections - liver abcesses etc).
  • Aggressively progressive peridontitis leads to premature loss of deciduous and permanent teeth.
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16
Q

What are features of Apert syndrome?

A
  • AD
  • FGFR2 gene.
  • Bicoronal cranial synostosis.
  • Maxillary hypoplasia, hypertelorism, syndactyly.
17
Q

What are features of Muenke syndrome?

A
  • AD
  • FGFR3 mutation.
  • Single coronal synostosis.
  • Sensorineural hearing loss, facial asymmetry, flattened cheek bones, normal hands and feet.
  • 1/3 have developmental delay.
18
Q

What are features of craniofrontonasal syndrome?

A
  • X-linked dominant.
  • EFNB1 gene.
  • Coronal synostosis, grooved nasal tip, cleft lip and palate, grooved nails.
19
Q

What are features of Pfeiffer syndrome?

A
  • AD
  • FGFR2 and 1.
  • Variable sutures involved.
  • Broad thumbs that deviate medially.
20
Q

What are features of Crouzon syndrome?

A
  • AD
  • FGFR2 and 3.
  • Bicoronal synostosis.
  • Proptosis, beaked nose, midface hypoplasia, normal hands and feet.
21
Q

What are features of Saethre-Chotzen syndrome?

A
  • AD.
  • TWIST1.
  • Coronal sutures.
  • Ptosis, hypertelorism, low anterior hair line, moderate developmental delay.
22
Q

What are features of Carpenter syndrome?

A
  • AR.
  • RAB23.
  • Multiple sutures.
  • Flat nasal bridge, shallow supraorbital ridges, hypoplastic mandible, low set ears, cardiac involvement 50%.
23
Q

Describe Costello syndrome.

A
  • Mutation in HRAS leads to increased growth an division.
  • Coarse face, epicanthal folds, depressed nasal bridge and deep creases in the palm.
  • 50% cardiac defects which include valvulr pulmonary stenosis, HCM, aortic dilatation as well as ASD and VSD.
  • Increased risk of malignant and non-malignant tumours with papillomas the most common and earliest.
24
Q

What are features of Rubenstein-Taybi syndrome?

A
  • Short stature.
  • Hirsuitism.
  • Downslanting palpebral fissures.
  • Maxilary hypoplasia.
  • Prominent nose with nasal septum extending below alae nasi.
  • Low posteriorly rotated ears.
25
Q

What are features of Cornelia De Lange syndrome?

A
  • Short stature.
  • Excessive hair growth.
  • Intellectual disability.
  • Moderate to severe abnormalities of arms, hands and fingers.
  • High arched eyebrows with synophorys.
  • Low set ears.
  • Widely spaced teeth.
  • Small upturned nose.