Renal Flashcards

1
Q

Vasopressin and CAD?

A

Vasopressin may precipitate myocardial ischemia by vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries.

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2
Q

What do the V1 and V2 receptors for vasopressin do? It dilates and constricts?

A

V1 receptor activation increases systemic vascular resistance without affecting pulmonary vascular resistance. V2 receptor activation increases blood volume. It can dilate pulmonary and cerebral vascular beds, but can constrict vessels associated with esophageal varices. It can also constrict coronarty arteries.

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3
Q

Vasopressin and VWdz?

A

Vasopressin increases VWF and factor 8

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4
Q

What is MOST likely responsible for intraoperative oliguria caused by hyperventilation when using positive pressure ventilation?

A

Increased respirations=increased intrathoracic pressure=increased pressure on IVC=impairment of renal perfusion=oliguria. KIM that the increased intrathoracic pressure increases right heart afterload.

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5
Q

Positive pressure ventilation increases intrathoracic pressure which can decrease urine output through four main effects:

A

1) Impaired renal perfusion and renal venous drainage
2) Decreased preload and increased right ventricular afterload
3) Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
4) Release of inflammatory cytokines

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6
Q

Wassup with calcium levels and people with renal dz?

A

Hypocalcemia. The kidney loses the ability to reabsorb calcium with decreased function. Additionally, the kidney is responsible for converting 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol. 1, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is responsible for increasing calcium absorption in the gastrointestinal tract.

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7
Q
Blood levels in ESRD? 
Calcium? 
K?
Mg? 
Lipids? 
BP? 
Phosphate? 
Parathyroid?
A
  • Anemia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypermagnesemia
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperphosphatemia
  • Secondary hyperparathyroidism
  • Uremic bleeding diathesis
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8
Q

Sodium and renal dz?

A

Can be either hypo or hyper

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9
Q

Anuria vs oliguria: THERE IS A DIFFERENCE!

A

Anuria: Less than 50 mL per day
Oliguria: Less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr

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10
Q

FeNa and urine Na in pre-renal vs renal dz

A

FeNa pre renal: <1 and urine Na pre renal: <20

FeNA renal dz: >2 urine Na: >40

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11
Q

FeNa formula:

A

FENa = 100 * (Urine Na / Plasma Na) / (Urine Cr / Plasma Cr)

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12
Q

Why is sevoflurane slightly controversial with renal issues?

A

The only agent that is slightly controversial is sevoflurane. When exposed to CO2 absorbents in the setting of low fresh gas flow, sevoflurane can be degraded to the potentially nephrotoxic compound A.

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13
Q

Normal urine osmolality:

A

400

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14
Q

glycine and TURP:

A

can cause transient blindness

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15
Q

distilled water and TURP:

A

Distilled water is hypotonic and can lead to severe intravascular hemolysis, fluid overload, and dilutional hyponatremia.

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16
Q

Normal saline and TURP:

A

Normal saline and other balanced salt solutions promote significant current dispersion due to their ionic composition. They are not used in a classic TURP because the ions in the solution cause electric dispersion of the monopolar current. Normal saline does not promote significant hyponatremia or hemolysis.
NS does reduce TURP though, but it’s not used

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17
Q

Sorbitol and Mannitol and TURP: Do they cause current dispersion? What do they both cause? Mannitol is contraindicated for which patient population?

A

Sorbitol 3.3% / mannitol 5% combination irrigating solutions are widely used owing to slight hyperosmolality or iso-osmolality. They do not cause electrical current dispersion. Sorbitol may cause hyperglycemia if absorbed. Mannitol and sorbitol both cause an osmotic diuresis. Recall that mannitol initially causes intravascular volume expansion and is therefore relatively contraindicated in patients with congestive heart failure.

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18
Q

transient blindness d/t glycemia in TURP is very common T/F

A

FALSE! ITS RARE. More common is the hypothermia that can result from the solutions

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19
Q

Complications of TURP:

Vision, coagulopathy, ammonia? what can get damaged?

A

Complications of TURP include hypothermia from room temperature irrigation fluids, transient blindness and hyperammonemia from glycine-containing fluid, intraperitoneal bladder perforation, extraperitoneal prostatic capsular perforation, cardiopulmonary compromise, and coagulopathy from fibrinolysis.

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20
Q

How do you calculate sodium deficit?

A

Sodium deficit = (140 – serum sodium) x total body water

Total body water = kilograms of body weight x 0.6

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21
Q

what goes n first, glucose or thiamine?

A

When replacing glucose in a hypoglycemic alcoholic patient, thiamine should be given first. This is because thiamine is used as a cofactor in glucose metabolism. If subclinical thiamine deficiency is present and a significant glucose load is given then thiamine store can become depleted. This depletion of thiamine will result in Wernicke encephalopathy. People with Wernicke encephalopathy have ataxic gait disturbances, altered mental status, and oculomotor dysfunction.

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22
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities in alcoholic patients include:

A

The 4 hypo’s:Electrolyte abnormalities in alcoholic patients include:

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23
Q

Mac in acute vs chronic alcoholic, Gastric emotying and alcohol, fresh gas flows?

A

Alcohol has effects on the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC). Acute alcohol intoxication will decrease a patient’s MAC and chronic alcoholism will increase a person’s MAC. Additional effects of acute alcohol intoxication include delayed gastric emptying, which increases the risk of aspiration with induction of anesthesia. Substances exhaled by the patient include alcohol, acetone, carbon monoxide, and methane. Therefore, the use of low fresh gas flows in a circle system is contraindicated in patients who are intoxicated, in uncompensated diabetic states, or who are suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning.

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24
Q

vol status and post-op risk of a fib:

A

Proper volume management is crucial to help decrease the development of AF. Both hypovolemia and hypervolemia can increase the risk.Hypovolemia causes a decreased venous return to the right atrium which reduces stroke volume and cardiac output. Both of these cause decreased tissue oxygen delivery, which induces catecholamine release – both can increase the risk of AF development. Hypervolemia leads to mechanical stimulation of the right atrium which leads to myocardial stretch and the increase in atrial cell triggeri

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25
Q

Tx of post operative a fib:

A

Once AF has developed in the postoperative period, treatment is important. Approximately 25% to 80% of patients will have spontaneous conversion within 24 hours. Rate control is a reasonable place to start in patients who do not convert spontaneously, and this includes use of agents that slow atrioventricular nodal conduction such as beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers. These two blocking agents are considered first line by the American Heart Association/American College of Cardiology (AHA/ACC), whereas amiodarone is considered a second-line agent. If a patient is symptomatic or hemodynamically unstable, rhythm control may be needed. Another option is direct current cardioversion. Fluid management is also important to help assure AF does not reoccur following spontaneous, pharmacologic or electrical conversion back to sinus rhythm.

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26
Q

what factors increase risk of post op a fib

A

male gender, volume status, abdominal or cardiac surgeries, thoracic surgeries

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27
Q

Mannitol and renal transplant

A

Intraoperative mannitol administration prior to vessel clamp release during renal transplant has been shown to decrease post-transplant kidney injury, but has not been shown to reduce graft rejectio

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28
Q

Why does mannitol help prevent kidney injury?

A

Maintenance of intravascular volume is the key ingredient in prevention of post-transplant renal injury with no particular fluid being more important than the sheer maintenance of intravascular volume.Administration of mannitol prior to removal of vessel clamps has been shown to decrease the incidence of post-transplant renal injury requiring dialysis, however it has not been proven to prevent graft rejection acutely or chronically

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29
Q

Why is urine Na still high in SIADH?

A

Antidiuretic hormone acts at the renal distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts to cause retention of free water without any direct effects on solute reabsorption. Elevated ADH, such as in SIADH, therefore prevents diuresis but still permits natriuresis and excretion of other solutes including uric acid resulting in concentrated urine.

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30
Q
Typical lab findings in SIADH:
Urine osm? 
FeNa?
BUN and serum uric acid?
sodium and volume status?
A

1) Urine osmolality >100 mOsm, and often > 200-300 mOsm
2) Fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) > 1%
3) Urine Na+ > 20 mEq/L
4) Low serum uric acid and BUN
5) Dilutional, euvolemic hyponatremia (serum Na+ < 135 mEq/L)

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31
Q

Why would hemostasis be difficult in someone that has not been dialyzed in 4 days? AT 3 in ESRD?-

A

Uremia interferes with platelet activation and aggregation (primarily via effects on vWF and GPIIb-IIIa) and leads to increased production of platelet inhibitors (e.g. prostacyclin and nitric oxide). AT3 is usually reduced in ESRD

32
Q

Damage to kidney cells results in decreased ability to reabsorb ? What does this mean?

A

sodium :)

Therefore, sodium is lost in the urine and is typically >40 mmol/dL.

33
Q

Most affected sites of ATN in the kidney:
Pathophys of ATN:
ATN is caused by:

A

The straight segment of the proximal tubule and the medullary portion of the thick ascending limb are the most often affected sites in the kidney.Damage to the endothelial cells leads to a decrease in vasodilators (nitric oxide, PGI-2) and an increase in vasoconstrictors (endothelin) which ultimately decreases the glomerular filtration rate. Damage to the tubular cells and their basement membranes can lead to sloughing of cells and obstruction.
ATN is typically caused by either renal ischemia or nephrotoxins.

34
Q

What is the gold standard for distinction between pre-renal disease and ATN?
What about serum Cr?
Persistent AKI despite adequate fluid repletion

A

Before discussing lab findings, it should be pointed out that response to fluid repletion is the gold standard for the distinction between prerenal disease and ATN.The serum Cr should return to baseline within 1-3 days in the setting of prerenal disease if volume repletion is adequate. Persistent AKI despite adequate repletion represents ATN.

35
Q

FENa in ATN:

A

The fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) in ATN is typically >1%.

36
Q

When would you use FeUrea?

Values of FeUrea?

A

In moments of diuretic use
Fractional excretion of urea has been used in the setting of diuretic use. FEUrea < 35% is suggestive of prerenal disease, whereas >50% may indicate ATN.

37
Q

In prerenal disease, UNa is typically

A

In prerenal disease, UNa is typically < 20 mEq

38
Q

BUN: Cr ratio in ATN:

A

The BUN to Cr ratio is most often normal (10:1 – 15:1) in ATN

39
Q

Specific gravity is a marker for what?
Uosm in ATN:
Uosm in Pre-renal dz:

A

Specific gravity is a surrogate marker for urine osmolality (Uosm). Loss of concentrating ability in ATN typically results in Uosm < 350 mOsm/kg. Prerenal disease is associated with a Uosm >500 mOsm/kg. Unfortunately, the same conditions that alter the specific gravity alter the Uosm which makes this test clinically inadequate from distinguishing between pre-renal disease and ATN.

40
Q

ATN and Pre-renal chart in photos

A

Okay

41
Q

The use of regional anesthesia for TURP (mostly spinal, except in high-risk patients where caudal may be a consideration) has three main advantages compared to general anesthesia

A

1) Allows for detection of prostatic capsule or bladder perforation, as long as the patient is not deeply sedated and the spinal level is not higher than T10.
2) It decreases blood loss. This is believed to be due to a decrease in central venous pressure.
3) It decreases the incidence of deep vein thrombosis. TURP procedures are prone to causing deep vein thrombosis. The beneficial effect of regional anesthesia is believed to be due to modulation of the neuroendocrine response to tissue injury.

42
Q

M Turp vs b turp and L turp:

A

M-TURP is being replaced by bipolar TURP (B-TURP) which has the advantage of using normal saline as irrigating fluid, thus avoiding some of the complications of hypotonic irrigation. Also, laser TURP (L-TURP) is replacing both forms of conventional TURP because of being faster, having less bleeding, and having less fluid absorption. Thus with L-TURP, general anesthesia is an acceptable alternative.

43
Q

Normal anion gap:

How do you calculate anion gap?

A

8-12

Anion gap = serum sodium – (serum chloride + serum bicarbonate).

44
Q

Can TPN cause increased chloride with normal anion gap?

A

Yes

45
Q

Non anion gap metabolic acidosis:

A

Nonanion gap metabolic acidosis (where the anion gap is normal at 8-12 mEq/L) is typically caused by chloride-containing acid administration, increased HCO3- loss or loss of HCO3- precursors, or decreased renal acid excretion.
Increased HCO3- loss is usually via the gastrointestinal (GI) tract or the kidneys. Causes of increased GI losses include diarrhea, GI fistulas (e.g. pancreatic, biliary, bowel), high ostomy output, or use of bile or phosphorus binding drugs. Renal losses can be caused by use of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g. acetazolamide) or type 2 (proximal) renal tubular acidosis (RTA).

46
Q

ACCRUED and FUSEDCARS:

A

Decreased acid excretion is due to hypoaldosteronism or renal causes including acute and/or chronic renal failure or type 1 (distal) RTA. Several mnemonics exist to remember causes of nonanion gap acidosis. Examples include:
ACCRUED: Acid infusion, Compensation for respiratory alkalosis, Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, Renal tubular acidosis, Ureteral diversion, Extra alimentation, Diarrhea.
FUSEDCARS: Fistula, Ureteroenterostomy, Saline administration, Endocrine (hyperparathyroidism), Diarrhea, Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, Ammonium chloride, Renal tubular acidosis, Spironolactone.

47
Q

When do you see a widened QRS?

A

Widened QRS is typically seen with hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia.

48
Q

When do you see U waves?

A

U waves are seen with severe hypokalemia

49
Q

What can help you to get electrolytes and EKG changes down?

A

hyPeR
hyperkalemia/calcemia/magnesemia leads to PRolongation of the PR interval. The opposite tends to occur with the QT interval for each electrolyte.

50
Q

What does hypocalcemia do to the QT?

A

prolong it.

51
Q

How is waste removed in dialysis?

A

Waste is removed by dialysis through a process of passive diffusion with solutes moving down a concentration gradient to equilibrate at the dialysate concentration (or at least that is the goal).

52
Q

Are people on dialysis frequently anemic? If so-why?

A

Due to lack of erythropoietin production by the kidney, anemia is common and patients are often on periodic erythropoietin injections to maintain hemoglobin concentration of 11-12 g/dL.

53
Q

PTT and dialysis patients:

A

Elevation in PTT may be seen preoperatively due to the use of heparin for anticoagulation during dialysis depending on the time between therapy and surgery. These patients may also have platelet dysfunction which compounds the risk of increased bleeding.

54
Q

Why can you frequently see hypokalemia in patients who were recently dialyzed?

A

Hypokalemia is often seen in the early post-dialysis period due to inadequate time for equilibration of intracellular potassium into the intravascular space.

55
Q

Neostigmine and poor kidney function:

A

Poor kidney function prolongs the duration of neostigmine and can reduce the likelihood of recurarization. Meaning-give neostigmine to patients with renal issues and they’ll have it around longer.

56
Q

Explain why we give neostigmine and glyco/atropine for reversal:

A

Neostigmine increases the concentration of acetylcholine, which competes with muscle relaxants for the nicotinic receptors. However, the acetylcholine also binds to the muscarinic receptors as well. Acetylcholine binding to the muscarinic receptor is the source of most side-effects of neostigmine. These include bradycardia, prolongation of QT interval, stimulation of salivary glands, bronchoconstriction, miosis, and increased intestinal activity. The side-effects are reduced by giving an anticholinergic drug that blocks the muscarinic receptors, such as, glycopyrrolate or atropine.

57
Q

What is the best way to detemine imminent acute renal failure?

A

Creatinine clearance (CCr) is the best way to determine imminent acute renal failure.

CCr = (Urine creatinine * Urine volume) / Plasma creatinine

A 24-hour urine collection to measure creatinine clearance is the ideal test to determine acute renal failure, but in the acute perioperative setting, it is reasonable to proceed with a 2-hour urine collection.

58
Q

Formula for TBW:

A

(Total body water ≈ body weight (in kg) * 0.6)

59
Q

Guidelines for reducing the incidence of TURP

A

Guidelines for reducing the incidence of TURP syndrome include (1) suspending irrigating fluid bag ≤30 cm above the patient, (2) draining the bladder regularly to avoid increases in bladder pressures, (3) limiting resection time to < 1 hour, (4) avoiding hypotonic IV fluids, and (5) using vasopressors to treat hypotension resulting from regional anesthesia. Regional anesthesia may reduce venous pressures and increase absorption of irrigating fluid.

60
Q

What is central pontine myelinosis and how can you avoid that?

A

Central pontine myelinolysis (a demyelinating CNS lesion), now known as osmotic demyelination syndrome, may result with rapid increase in serum osmolality during hypertonic saline therapy. Typically, 50% of the Na+ deficit is corrected during the first 24 hours, and the rate of hypertonic saline administration should never be higher than 100 ml/hr. Hypertonic saline is typically discontinued once the serum Na+ is >120 mEq/L and/or mental status returns to baseline.

61
Q

So, which fluids do you give in hyponatremia?

A

Symptomatic patients with serum Na less than 120 mEq/L should have their serum osmolality corrected with 3% hypertonic saline, not normal saline. Serum electrolytes should be assessed regularly and hypertonic saline should be discontinued once symptoms resolve and/or serum Na+ rises above 120 mEq/L.

62
Q

Would you give furosemide in hyponatremia?

A

Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are utilized to eliminate excess free water and treat the sodium deficit

63
Q

Which kind of patients would you be worried about having laparoscopic surgery?

A

Patients at risk for intracranial saccular aneurysms include those with ADPKD, Marfan syndrome, and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
As well as people with ICP issues

64
Q

What tests does a patient with Marfan syndrome need to undergo?

A

A patient with Marfan syndrome should undergo echocardiography in addition to cerebrovascular imaging. This is due to the risk of aortic valve and root pathology related to the mutation of the fibrillin 1 gene. Fibrillin 1 normally wraps around the amorphous elastin connective tissue protein, giving it shape and consistency

65
Q

Hyponatremia in inpatients vs outpatients:

A

In general, hyponatremia in the inpatient population is secondary to increased antidiuretic hormone release while in the outpatient population it is secondary to chronic disease.

66
Q

sugar and sodium-how does that thing work?

A

Accumulation of extracellular glucose induces a shift of free water from the intracellular space to the extracellular space. Serum sodium concentration is diluted by a factor of 1.6 mEq/L for each 100 mg/dL increase above normal serum glucose concentration

67
Q

Plasma osmolality formula:

A

Posm = 2.0 * [Na] + Glucose/18 + BUN/2.8.

68
Q

Substances removed and kept in dialysis:

A

Substances that are commonly removed from the patient’s blood include calcium, creatinine, magnesium, phosphate, potassium, urea, and free water. Substances that may be added to, or removed from, the patient’s blood include bicarbonate, chloride, glucose, and sodium. The serum concentrations of these substances may therefore increase or decrease based on predialysis levels.

69
Q

Proteins and dialysis:

A

Large molecules such as proteins are unable to pass through the semipermeable membranes used for hemodialysis (HD) and are not removed from the body. Since HD often involves ultrafiltration, serum protein concentrations usually increase following HD due to a concentrating effect

70
Q

Who has increased risk of AKI after cardiopulmonary bypass?

A

Preoperative creatinine greater than 1.2mg/dL, combined valve and bypass procedures, emergency surgery, and preoperative intraaortic balloon pump are risk factors most strongly correlated with post-cardiopulmonary bypass acute kidney injury. Other well-known minor risk factors include: female gender, congestive heart failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, insulin-requiring diabetes, and depressed left ventricular ejection fraction.

71
Q

Does pulsatile flow help prevent kidney failure?

A

n patients with normal preoperative kidney function, no difference in the rate of acute kidney has been demonstrated between use of non-pulsatile and pulsatile perfusion during cardiopulmonary bypass. Some renal, cardiac, and pulmonary benefit may be gained with the use of pulsatile perfusion in the most critically ill patients; however, quality randomized studies are still lacking on this topic.

72
Q

Reasons for emergent dialysis:

A

Reasons for emergent dialysis include AEIOU: Acidosis, Electrolytes, Ingestions (toxins), Overload, Uremia.

73
Q

Fluid chart in True learn

A

Okay

74
Q

RTA: which type of acid base disturbance does it cause?

A

It causes non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

75
Q

Tell me about RTA type 1:

A

Sjrogen’s syndrome: dysfunction in the alpha cells of the collecting tubule.

76
Q

RTA type 2:

A

Fanconi syndrome and is caused by defects of the proximal tubule, leading to bicarbonate wasting

77
Q

RTA type 3:

A

Renal tubular acidosis type 4 is caused by aldosterone deficiency or resistance.