Renal Flashcards

1
Q

What effect do atrial natriuretic peptide and brain natriuretic peptide have on kidneys?

A

ANP (stretch on atria) and BNP (stretch on ventricles) are released due to volume expansion. These act on the kidney to increase GFR, natriuresis, and diuresis.

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2
Q

What drugs can cause drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)?

A

Beta-lactam antibiotics, NSAIDs, solfonamides, rifampin, and diuretics. Patients often present with fever, rash, and acute renal failure. AIN is thought to be mediated by IgE-mediated hypersensitivity or cell-mediated (type IV) reactions, depending on the drug. It primarily involves the renal interstitium, causing interstitial edema and leukocyte infiltration (lymphocytes, macrophages, and eosinophils). RBCs, WBCs, and eosinophils may be seen in urine.

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3
Q

What are features of acute tubular necrosis?

A

Proximal tubular cell ballooning and vacuolar degeneration.

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4
Q

What is the filtration fraction of a healthy individual?

A

20%

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5
Q

What is the most common site of obstruction in unilateral fetal hydronephrosis?

A

Narrowing or kinking of the proximal ureter at the ureteropelvic junction (UPJ).

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6
Q

What is the histologic appearance of nodular glomerulosclerosis?

A

Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules (located in the peripheral mesangium, ovoid or spherical in shape, lamellated appearance, eosinophilc on H and E stain, periodic acid-Schiff +). The most common cause is diabetic nephropathy. Can eventually progress to nephrotic syndrome.

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7
Q

Compare and contrast autosomal dominant from autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease?

A

AD: Bilateral enlarged kidneys due to numerous cysts in the cortex and medulla. Presents with flank pain, hematuria, hypertension, urinary infection, and progressive renal failure in ~50% of patients. Mutations to PKD1 (~85%) or PKD2 (~15%). Associated with berry aneurysms, mitral valve prolapse and benign hepatic cysts.
AR: Cystic dilation of collecting ducts. Presents in infancy. Can lead to Potter sequence if significant oliguria occurs. Associated with congenital hepatic fibrosis. After the neonatal period, infants can get systemic hypertension, progressive renal insufficiency, and portal hypertension (fibrotic liver). Mutation in PKHD1 gene.

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8
Q

What is the treatment for primary (psychogenic) polydipsia?

A

Water restriction.

These patients have hyponatremia with a low initial urine osmolality. PP is characterized by pathological water drinking and is most common in middle-aged women and patients with underlying psychiatric disease. Can test by injecting with vasopressin. If there is no change in serum osmolality, then it is most likely PP as opposed to DI.

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9
Q

What type of kidney stone a patients with Crohn’s disease at risk for?

A

Oxalate stones. Patients get impaired reabsorption of bile acids in the terminal ileum. This leads to impaired fat absorption. The excess lipids in the bowel lumen bind to calcium ions, and these soap complexes are then excreted in the feces. This leads to increased oxalate absorption. In the healthy bowel, dietary calcium binds to dietary oxalate, producing insoluble calcium oxalate salts that promote oxalate excretion in feces.

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10
Q

What is renal osteodystrophy?

A

A bone disease that occurs when your kidneys fail to maintain proper levels of calcium and phosphorus in the blood. It’s common in people with kidney disease and affects most dialysis patients.

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11
Q

How does paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) cause damage to the kidneys?

A
Chronic hemolysis will lead to iron deposition in the kidney (hemosiderosis), which can interfere with proximal tubule function and cause interstitial scarring and cortical infarcts.
PNH is due to a mutated phosphatidylinositol glycan class A (PIGA) gene, which helps synthesize the glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) anchor protein. GPI helps attache several cell surface proteins (e.g. CD55 decay accelerating factor, CD59 MAC inhibitory factor) that inhibit complement, and thus inhibit RBC hemolysis due to complement activation.
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12
Q

What portion of the nephron does uric acid precipitate out in in the setting of tumor lysis syndrome?

A

The collecting ducts due to low urine pH (uric acid is soluble at physiologic pH but precipitates in an acidic environment). This can be reduced with urine arlkalinization, hydration, and allopurinol.

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13
Q

What is the effect of increased urinary citrate on the formation of renal calculi?

A

Increased citrate in the urine can prevent calculi formation, because citrate binds free (ionized) calcium, thus preventing calcium precipitation. Potassium citrate is often prescribed to prevent recurrent stones in adults when dietary modifications are unsuccessful.

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14
Q

What renal structure does renal cell carcinoma arise from?

A

Proximal renal tubules

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15
Q

What are the three phases of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?

A

Initiation phase: slight decrease in urine output for ~36 hrs as a result of the original ischemic or toxic insult.
Maintenance phase: lasts 1-2 wks, oliguria, fluid overload, electrolyte abnormalities (hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis). Low GFR and elevated serum creatinine. Light microscopy shows tubular epithelial necrosis, denudation of the tubular basement membrane, and casts containing cellular debris.
Recovery phase: re-epithelization of tubules. GFR recovers faster than tubular cells leading to transient polyuria and loss of electrolytes. Majority of patients eventually experience complete restoration of renal function.

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16
Q

What kind of fluid state does SIADH cause (e.g. hypernatremic hypovolemia, etc.)?

A

Euvolemic hyponatremia (due to the fluid overload causing compensation by RAAS → decreased aldosterone).

17
Q

What are the potential complications of taking erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (e.g. erythropoietin, dabepoetin alpha)?

A

Thromboembolic events and hypertension (due to activation of erythropoietin receptors on vascular endothelial and smooth muscle cells).

18
Q

What is the affect on filtration fraction of the kidney in response to decreased in renal perfusion pressure (e.g. systemic hypotension, renal artery stenosis/obstruction)?

A

FF will increase because the kidney responds to the decreased blood flow through GFR autoregulation. This means that GFR will decrease less than renal plasma flow (FF=GFR/RPF)

19
Q

What kind of renal crystals form in ethylene glycol poisoning?

A

Calcium oxalate crystals, because one of the metabolites of ethylene glycol is oxalic acid.

20
Q

What causes the damage in Henoch-Schönlein purpura?

A

IgA immune complexes (type III hypersensitivity reaction), generally following an upper respiratory infection. Palpable purpura, arthralgias, abdominal pain, intusssusceptions, renal disease similar to IgA nephropathy. Self-limited disease that resolves once the immune complexes have been cleared from the system.

21
Q

What are the risk factors for uric acid stone formation (stones are yellow or red-brown in the shape of a diamond or rhombus)?

A

Low urinary pH and low urine volume with high uric acid concentration.

22
Q

Where is the lowest pH in the nephron?

A

The collecting ducts and the distal tubules. This is why uric acid crystals can precipitate here (precipitate at low pH).

23
Q

What does abrupt-onset gross hematuria in a patient with a family history of sickle cell disease suggest?

A

Renal papillary necrosis (RPN).

24
Q

What diseases/conditions are associated with renal papillary necrosis (RPN)?

A

Sickle cell disease or trait (due to ischemia), analgesic nephropathy (due to decreased prostaglandins leading to decreased renal profusion and ischemia), diabetes mellitus (nonenzymatic glycosylation causes changes to vascular walls leading to renal vasculopathy and subsequent hypoperfusion), and pyelonephritis and urinary tract obstruction (edema in the pyelonephritic kidney compresses the medullary vasculature leading to ischemia).

25
Q

What damages the kidneys in the setting of infective endocarditis?

A

Circulating immune complexes

26
Q

What is Fanconi syndrome?

A

Generalize reabsorptive defect in the PCT. Associated with increased excretion of nearly all amino acids, glucose, HCO3-, and PO4-3. May result in metabolic acidosis (proximal renal tubular acidosis - type II).
Causes: Wilson disease, tyrosinemia, glycogen storage disease, cystinoisis, ischemia, multiple myeloma, nephrotoxins/drugs (e.g. ifosfamide, cisplatin, tenofovir, expired tetracyclines), and lead poisoning.

27
Q

What is Bartter syndrome?

A

Defect of the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle. Effects similar to loop diuretic use.

28
Q

What is Gitelman syndrome?

A

Reabsorptive defect of NaCl in the DCT. Similar to use of thiazide diuretics.

29
Q

What is Liddle syndrome?

A

Gain of function mutation in ENaC channels in the collecting tubules. Presents like hyperaldosteronism, except aldosterone levels are very low. AD. Results in hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and decreased aldosterone. Treatment is amiloride.

30
Q

What do large urinary casts that stain intensely eosinophilic suggest in a patient with back pain?

A

Multiple myeloma. Excess free light chains (Bence Jones proteins) exceed the reabsorptive capacity of the kidneys so they precipitate with Tamm Horsefall protein and form casts that cause tubular obstruction and epithelial injury.

31
Q

What are the causes of acute interstitial nephritis?

A
The 5 P's:
Pee (diuretics)
Pain-free (NSAIDs)
Penicillins and cephalosporins
Proton pump inhibitors
RifamPin
32
Q

What is a common renal cause of death in patients with SLE?

A

Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis. Characterized by “wire looping” on light microscopy and subendothelial deposits. Immunofluorescence is granular.

33
Q

What is WAGR syndrome?

A
Due to deletion of WT1 tumor suppressor gene.
Wilms tumor
Aniridia (absence of the iris)
Genital abnormalities 
mental and motor Retardation
34
Q

What is Denys-Drash syndrome?

A

Wilms tumor, progressive renal (glomerular disease), and male pseudohermaphroditism. Associated with mutations of WT1

35
Q

What is Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?

A

Wilms tumor, neonatal hypoglycemia, muscular hemihypertrophy, and organomegaly (including tongue).
Associated with mutations in the WT2 gene cluster (imprinted genes at 11p15.5), particularly IGF-2