Genetics/Biochemistry Flashcards

1
Q

What is pleiotropy?

A

The occurrence of multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic manifestations (e.g. homocystinuria - skeletal abnormalities, lens dislocation, intellectual disabilities, vascular thromboses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Supplementation with which vitamin may help improve the symptoms of maple syrup urine disease?

A

Thiamin (B1) - cofactor for branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase. This part of several enzymes referred to as the branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase complex (BCKDC). This is required for degredation of branched-chain amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, and valine). Branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase requires 5 cofactors: Thiamine, Lipoate, Coenzyme A, FAD, NAD (“Tender Loving Care For Nancy”).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the stop codons?

A

UAA, UAG, & UGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Ehler’s-Danlos syndrome?

A

Can be caused by a deficient in procollagen peptidase, which is the enzyme responsible for cleaving terminal propeptides from procollagen in the extracellular space (N- & C- terminal peptides are cleaved)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the DNA signals for splicesomes to remove introns.

A

GU at the 5’ splice site and AG at the 3’ splice site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where are enhancer sequences located?

A

They can be upstream or downstream of the gene, or even within introns or on separate chromosomes from the target gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the nonpolar, hydrophobic amino acids?

A

Alanine, valine, leucine, isoleucine, phenylalanine, proline and glycine. These are frequently components of the transmembrane domain of proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which RNA polymerase functions exclusively in the nucleolus?

A

RNA polymerase I. It exclusively transcribes the 45S pre-rRNA gene into a single template that is subsequently processed into mature 18S, 5.8S and 28S rRNAs.
The nucleolus of malignant cells is often prominent due to the large number of active rRNA genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is MERRF?

A

Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers. Mitochondrial inheritance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What diseases are inherited via mitochondrial inheritance?

A

Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers (MERRF), Leber optic neuropathy (blindness), and mitochondrial encephalopathy with stroke-like episodes and lactic acidosis (MELAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome?

A

An autosomal recessive disorder characterized by profound bilateral sensorineural hearing loss and congenital long QT syndrome. It is due mutations in genes that encode alpha and beta subunits of voltage-gated potassium channels (e.g. KCNA1, KCNE1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is diagnosis of methylmalonyl-CoA mutase deficiency made?

A

Elevated urine methylmalonic acid and propionic acid are diagnostic. This causes a metabolic acidosis which leads to an increased metabolic rate causing hypoglycemia, increased ketones (increased fat metabolism, increases the anion gap), and hyperammonemia. Presents in the neonatal period with poor feeding and lethargy.

The enzyme is involved in branched-chain amino acid metabolism. Uses B12 as a cofactor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are features of arginase deficiency?

A

Progressive development in childhood of spastic diplegia (stiffness of the lower extremities), abnormal movements, and growth delay in the setting of elevated arginine levles. Arginase is part of the urea cycle and produces urea and ornithine from arginine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What hereditary enzyme deficiency in heterozygotes predisposes patients to maturity-onset diabetes of the young?

A

Glucokinase. This can be worsened by pregnancy-induced insulin resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What blood disorder do glycolytic enzyme deficiencies (e.g. aldolase A, enolase, phosphofructokinase, pyruvate kinase) cause?

A

Hemolytic anemia, as RBCs rely completely on anaerobic glycolysis for energy production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does calcium bind to in skeletal muscle?

A

Troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What diseases does multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN 1) predispose patients to?

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism (hypercalcemia), pituitary tumors (prolactin, visual defects), and pancreatic tumors (especially gastrinomas - Zollinger-Ellison syndrome).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What diseases does multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A (MEN 2A) predispose patients to?

A

Medullary thyroid cancer (calcitonin), pheochromocytoma, parathyroid hyperplasia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What diseases does multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B (MEN 2B) predispose patients to?

A

Medullary thyroid cancer (calcitonin), pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuromas/marfanoid habitus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some common conditions that demonstrate polygenic inheritance patterns?

A

Androgenetic alopecia, epilepsy, glaucoma, hypertension, ischemic heart disease, schizophrenia, Type II DM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What molecules is riboflavin (vitamin B2) a precursor for?

A

Riboflavin is first phosphorylated to become flavin mononucleotide (FMN), which can be further phosphorylated to flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD). FAD acts as a cofactor with succinate dehydrogenase (gets reduced so it can participate in the electron transport chain as FADH2). Deficiency leads to glossitis, cheilitis, angular stomatitis, seborrheic dermatitis, eye changes (e.g. keratitis, corneal neovascularization), and anemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common cystic fibrosis defect?

A

ΔF508 mutation. This causes a 3-base pair deletion which impairs post-translational processing leading to misfolding and improper glycosylation of the CFTR protein. As a result, the abnormal protein is targeted for proteasomal degradation, preventing it from reaching the cell surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the manifestation of ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency?

A

It is the most common urea cycle disorder. It results in excess carbamoyl phosphate, which stimulates pyrimidine synthesis. An intermediate product in this pyrimidine synthesis pathway is orotic acid which accumulates and results in increased urinary orotic acid. These patients also have hyperammonemia due to impaired ammonia excretion (OTC is part of the urea cycle). Ammonia is neurotoxic and can cause episodes of vomiting and confusion/coma. Tachypnea also occurs due to cerebral edema from ammonia buildup, resulting in central hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. Metabolic decompensation is often triggered by illness, fasting, or increased protein intake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What process is the enzyme glycerol kinase involved in?

A

The breakdown of glycerol to dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP), which can then be used for gluconeogenesis or glycolysis.

Triglycerides stored in adipose tissue are metabolized to free fatty acids and glycerol by hormone-sensitive lipase in response to low insulin and high catecholamine levels. Adipocytes are unable to metabolize glycerol, so it is secreted into the circulation and transported to the liver, where it is phosphorylated to glycerol-3-phosphate by glycerol kinase. Glycerol-3-phosphate is subsequently converted by glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase to DHAP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the Kozak consensus sequence?

A

Found in eukaryotes used to initiate translation of mRNA (analogous to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence in E. coli). It is defined by the following sequence: (gcc)gccRccAUGG, where R is either adenine (A) or guanine (G). Among other factors, a purine (A or G) positioned 3 bases upstream from AUG appears to play a key role in this initiation process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?

A

Found in prokaryotes. Used to initiate translation of mRNA. The sequence is AGGAGGU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Friedreich ataxia?

A

An AR disorder caused by a mutation of the frataxin (FXN) gene (increased GAA trinucleotide repeats), which codes for an essential mitochondrial protein involved in the assembly of iron-sulfur enzymes. This causes decreased mitochondrial energy production and increased oxidative stress, resulting in degeneration of neural tracts (dorsal column and dorsal root ganglia [loss of position and vibration sense], lateral corticospinal [spastic muscle weakness], and spinocerebellar [ataxia] tracts) and peripheral nerves. Patients also get kyphoscoliosis and foot abnormalities (pes cavus), as well as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and CHF. Diabetes mellitus develops in ~10% of patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What enzyme is deficient in xeroderma pigmentosum?

A

It is characterized by defects in nucleotide excision repair (deficiency in UV-specific endonuclease).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the sequence of base excision repair?

A

Glycosylase cleaves the altered base leaving an empty sugar-phosphate site (apurinic/apyrimidinic [AP] site) → endonucleases cleaves the 5’ end → lyase cleaves the 3’ sugar-phosphate → DNA polymerase fills in the gap → ligase seals the nick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What inheritance pattern does spina bifida demonstrate?

A

Multifactorial - neural tube defects are more common in first-degree relatives of those affected, with a recurrence risk of 2%-5%.

Other multifactorial diseases include cleft lip and palate, diabetes mellitus, coronary artery disease, and hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why is huntington gene expression decreased in Huntington Disease?

A

The CAG trinucleotide repeat leads to increased histone deacetylation, thus causing transcriptional repression (silencing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)?

A

A defect in a late step in porphyrin (e.g. heme) synthesis. Most commonly due to a deficiency of uroporghyrinogen decarboxylase (UROD), but can also be caused by deficiencies in coproporphyrinogen oxidase, protoporphyrinogen oxidase, or ferrochelatase. More commonly it is acquired than inherited (acquired in setting of alcohol, smoking, halogenated hydrocarbons, hepatitis C, and HIV). It causes photosensitivity (blisters and vesicles in sites of sun exposure).

Note that early steps in porphyrin synthesis cause abdominal pain and neuropsychiatric manifestations rather than photosensitivity (e.g. ALA dehydratase).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is Hartnup disease?

A

AR disorder caused by inactivating mutations affecting the neutral amino acid transporter. This results in impaired transport of neutral amino acids, particularly tryptophan, in the small intestine and the proximal convoluted tubule. Tryptophan is the precursor for niacin, serotonin, and melatonin. Patients can get pellagra-like skin eruptions and cerebellar ataxia. Diagnosis is made by the presence of neutral amino acids (alanine, serine, threonine, valine, leucine, isoleucine, phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan) in the urine. Treated with a high-protein diet and daily niacin supplementation.

34
Q

What 2 electrolytes are decreased in patients with cystic fibrosis?

A

Sodium and chloride. Patients are unable to reabsorbe chloride and sodium in the eccrine ducts (why sweat chloride tests are done to diagnose CF).
Exclusively breast fed infants are at risk for hyponatremia if they do not receive sodium supplementation.

35
Q

What cofactor is necessary for transamination reactions (e.g. transferring an amino group between an alpha-keto acid and an amino acid)?

A

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6). It is also required for the decarboxylation of amino acids.
In transamination reactions, it serves as a cofactor for aminotransferases (e.g. AST and ALT)

36
Q

What is the appearance of osteoclasts in Paget’s disease of bone?

A

Osteoclasts are typically very large and can have up to 100 nuclei (normal osteoclasts have 2-5 nuclei).

37
Q

What is alkaptonuria?

A

An AR disorder caused by a deficiency of homogentisic acid dioxygenase (metabolizes homogentisic acid into maleylacetoacetate - part of the break down of phenylalanine and tyrosine to be used in the TCA cycle). Accumulation of homogentisic acid causes pigment depositis in connective tissue throughout the body. During adulthood, these blue-black deposits become apparent in the sclerae and ear cartilage. Deposits also occur in large joints and the spine, causing ankylosis, motion restriction, and significant pain. They may have black urine when exposed to the air due to the oxygenation of homogentisic acid.

38
Q

What is heteroplasmy?

A

Heteroplasmy is the presence of more than one type of organellar genome (e.g. mitochondria) within a cell or an individual. It is important for determining the severity of mitochondrial illnesses.

39
Q

NADPH is necessary for generation of what compounds?

A

Necessary for the biosynthesis of cholesterol, fatty acids, and steroids.
It is also necessary for reducing glutathione and is used by phagocytic cells generating a respiratory burst via NADPH oxidase.

40
Q

What is I-cell disease?

A

AR lysosomal storage disorder (defects in protein targeting - defect in a Golgi body phosphotransferase enxyme that catalyzes the phosphorylation of mannose residues in order to target proteins to the lysosome). Presents in infancy with failure to thrive, cognitive deficits, coarse facial features, and corneal clouding. Often fatal in childhood.

41
Q

What enzymes does fructose-2,6-bisphosphate regulate?

A

Activates phosphofructokinase-1 (promotes glycolysis) and inhibits fructose-1,6,-bisphosphatase (inhibits gluconeogenesis)

42
Q

What is a test that can detect the presence of fructose, galactose, or glucose in the urine (non-specific test as it does not distinguish between sugar types)?

A

A copper reduction test. Fructose, galactose and glucose are all reducing sugars.
Note that a urine dipstick uses glucose oxidase to ascertain the presence of urinary glucose and will not test positive in the presence of fructose or galactose.

43
Q

What genes are most commonly mutated in Lynch syndrome (autosomal dominant defect in DNA mismatch repair)?

A

MSH2, MLH1, MSH6, and PMS2

44
Q

What cancers are patients at risk for in Lynch syndrome?

A

Colorectal, endometrial, and ovarian

45
Q

What is Southwestern blotting?

A

Uses a labeled DNA probe to detect DNA-binding proteins such as transcription factors (e.g. c-Jun, c-Fos), nucleases, and histones.

46
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of G6PD deficiency?

A

X-linked recessive

47
Q

What are the two forms of galactosemia?

A
  1. Galactokinase (GALK) deficiency: milder, cataracts may be the only manifestation due to a build up of galactitol in the eye (GALK catalyzes the conversion of galactose to galactose-1-phosphate. Galactose builds up and is shunted down an alternate pathway and converted to galactitol). Excess galactose spills into urine causing a positive reducing substance test.
  2. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase (GALT) deficiency: presents in the neonatal period with vomiting, lethargy, and failure to thrive. GALT catalyzes the conversion of galactose-1-phosphate to glucose-1-phosphate which may then be converted to glucose-6-phosphate. In GALT deficiency, galactose-1-phosphate builds up, which is a toxic metabolite that causes hepatic and renal dysfunction.
48
Q

What step in the TCA cycle produces GTP?

A

Succinyl-CoA to succinate

49
Q

What infection are infants with galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase (GALT) deficiency at risk for?

A

E. coli sepsis.
GALT catalyzes the conversion of galactose-1-phosphate to glucose-1-phosphate (using UDP-glucose [converted to UDP-galactose])

50
Q

What is Rett syndrome?

A

Neurodevelopmental disorder that primarily affects girls (X-linked mutation of the MECP2 gene). Characterized by normal development until age 5-18 months, followed by loss of motor and language skills and the development of stereotypic hand movements. Deceleration of head growth is a classic feature.

51
Q

What are 5 features of anaplastic tumors?

A
  1. Loss of cell polarity with complete disruption of normal tissue architecture.
  2. Cellular pleomorphism and nuclear pleomorphism.
  3. High N:C ratio.
  4. Numerous mitotic figures.
  5. Giant, multinucleated tumor cells.
52
Q

What kind of gate is the CFTR (cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) channel?

A

ATP-gated

53
Q

What fatty acids must undergo a special form of oxidation in the peroxisome (i.e. cannot undergo mitochondrial beta-oxidation)?

A

Very long chain fatty acids (VLCFA) via beta oxidation and branched chain fatty acids (e.g. phytanic acid) via alpha oxidation.

54
Q

What is Zellweger syndrome?

A

Deficiency of peroxisomes. In this condition, infants are unable to properly form myelin in the CNS. Symptoms include hypotonia, seizures, hepatomegaly, mental retardation, and early death within months of initial presentation. It is due to a build up of fatty acids that must be broken down in the peroxisomes (e.g. very long chain fatty acids and phytanic acid).

55
Q

What is Refsum disease?

A

Defect of peroxisomal alpha oxidation that leads to neurologic disturbances due to the accumulation of phytanic acid in the body. Treatment is strict avoidance of chlorophyll in the diet.

56
Q

What is ataxia-telangiectasia?

A

An AR disorder resulting from a defect in DNA-repair genes (problem with nonhomologous end joining). The DNA of these patients is hypersensitive to ionizing radiation. Manifestations include cerebellar ataxia, oculocutaneous telangiectasias, repeated sinopulmonary infections, and an increased incidence of malignancy.

57
Q

What are neurophysins?

A

Carrier proteins for oxytocin and vasopressin.
Mutations to neurophysin II (autosomal dominant) which preferentially binds to vesopressin can cause hereditary hypothalamic diabetes insipidus.

58
Q

What is the only bacterial DNA polymerase with 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity?

A

DNA polymerase I (DNA polymerase III has 5’ to 3’ polymerase and 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity). This action removes RNA primers in the lagging strand.

59
Q

What hepatic enzyme metabolizes pro-carcinogens?

A

Cytochrome P450 monooxygenase metabolizes steroids, alcohols, toxins, and other foreign substances by rendering them soluble and easier to excrete. Unfortunately, this metabolic processing also converts pro-carcinogens into carcinogens capable of causing mutations in human DNA.

60
Q

Retinoblastoma (Rb) gene mutations put patients at risk for what cancers?

A

Retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma

61
Q

What does the HAMARTOMAS mnemonic in tuberous sclerosis refer to?

A
H: Hamartomas in CNS and skin
A: Angiofibromas (facial)
M: Mitral regurgitation
A: Ash-leaf spots
R: cardiac Rhabdomyoma
T: (Tuberous sclerosis)
O: autsomal dOminant
M: Mental retardation
A: renal Angiomyolipoma
S: Seizures and Shagreen patches
62
Q

Eating excessive egg whites can cause what vitamin deficiency? What does this vitamin deficiency look like?

A

Biotin (due to high levels of biotin-binding avidin in egg whites).
Changes in mental status, myalgias, anorexia, and chronic dermatologic changes such as macular dermatitis. Patients can develop metabolic acidosis as a result of increased conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid.

63
Q

What enzymes are biotin a cofactor for?

A

Carboxylases (e.g. pyruvate carboxylase which converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate to be used for gluconeogenesis).

64
Q

How do amatoxins found in poisonous mushrooms exert their toxic effects (i.e. what is their target)?

A

Inhibit DNA-dependent RNA polymerase II, thus preventing the transcription of mRNA. Diagnosed by the presence of alpha-amanitin in urine.

65
Q

What is the sequence at the 3’ hydroxyl (amino acid binding site) end of tRNA?

A

CCA

66
Q

What 3 molecules can be used to make NAD+?

A

Niacin, tryptophan, and nicotinamide

67
Q

What are features of myotonic muscular dystrophy?

A

Difficulty loosening one’s grip, cataracts, frontal balding and gonadal atrophy. AD, trinucleotide repeat expansion of CTG, demonstrates anticipation.

68
Q

What type of reactions is B6 (pyridoxine) involved in?

A

Transamination (e.g. AST, ALT) and decarboxylation

69
Q

What type of reactions is B1 (thiamin) involved in?

A

Dehydrogenase reactions (e.g. transketolase, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, and pyruvate dehydrogenase)

70
Q

What type of reactions is biotin (B7) involved in?

A

Cofactor for 4 carboxylase enzymes: pyruvate carboxylase, acetyl-CoA carboxylase, propinoyl-CoA carboxylase, and 3-methylcrotonyl-CoA-carboxylase

71
Q

What problems does a dopamine beta-hydroxylase deficiency cause?

A

It converts dopamine to norepinephrine so there is impaired sympathetic adrenergic activity. This leads to hypotenson, ptosis (infants), hypothermia (infants), exercise intolerance, nasal congestion, and ejaculatory difficulties.

72
Q

What vimentin a marker of (intermediate filament)?

A

Mesenchymal tissue (e.g. fibroblasts, endothelial cells, macrophages). Used to mark sarcomas

73
Q

What is Leber hereditary optic neuropathy?

A

Mitochondrial inherited disorder characterized by bilateral optic neuropathy leading to blindness

74
Q

What is Rett syndrome?

A

X-linked dominant disorder affecting females (males die in utero) that presents with progressive neurodegeneration and stereotypical hand movements.

75
Q

Where does hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues in collagen take place in the cell?

A

The rough endoplasmic reticulum

76
Q

How does activation of the phosphatidylinositol-3-kinase (PI3K) pathway by binding of insulin to the insulin receptor cause glycogen synthesis?

A

By activating protein phosphatase which dephosphorylates glycogen synthase, leading to its activation.

77
Q

What causes the decreased expression of the huntingtin gene in Huntington Disease?

A

Histone deacetylation

78
Q

During apoptosis, activation of the caspases results in eIF degradation (to decrease protein synthesis). How do cells continue to translate proteins needed for apoptosis when eIF is decreased?

A

Through an alternative method called internal ribosomal entry. A distinct nucleotide sequence called the internal ribosome entry site (IRES) attracts the eukaryotic ribosome to mRNA and allows for translation to begin. IRESs are usually located in the 5’ untranslated region, upstream of the start codon.

79
Q

What is hand-foot-genital syndrome?

A

A defect of the HOXA13 homeobox gene. AD. Characterized by malformations of the distal limbs (e.g. hypoplastic first digits) and Müllerian fusion abnormalities (e.g. uterus didelphys - can cause miscarriages).

80
Q

What are the ketogenic amino acids?

What are the amino acids that are both ketogenic and glucogenic?

A

Ketogenic=”L’s”: Leucine and lysine

Ketogenic and glucogenic = “PITTT”: phenylalanine, isoleucine, tryptophan, tyrosine, threonine