Renal Flashcards

1
Q

What does a large pear shaped bladder indicate?

A

Chronic problem - remodelling (should be round)

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2
Q

Where in the bladder is a TCC most common?

A

The bladder neck

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3
Q

How might you diagnose a bladder TCC?

A

Look at urine sediments, rectal palpation, rake with a catheter while applying negative pressure to break off some of the tumour, ultrasound guided FNA.

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4
Q

How can you treat bladder TCC?

A

By the time you find it, usually too late to treat surgically. Treat medically with peroxicam (NSAID).

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5
Q

Which kidney is most likely to be missing in renal agenesis?

A

The right kidney

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6
Q

What is the most common prostatic disease to occur in intact male dogs?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

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7
Q

How much of the canine semen volume is made up by the prostate secretions?

A

97%

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8
Q

What are the clinical signs of prostatic disease?

A

Penile discharge at times other than urination

haematuria / dysuria, tenesmus / obstipation / ribbon faeces

stiff gait (if painful)

+/- urethral obstruction / fever

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9
Q

What should you never forget in a physical exam of a sexually intact middle aged male animal?

A

Rectal exam

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10
Q

Patchy areas of mineralisation in the prostate on radiographs is strongly correlated with what?

A

Carcinoma

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11
Q

How can you further investigate suspected prostatic disease?

A

Routine bloodwork/urinalysis

Urine bacterial culture

Semen collection

Prostatic massage and wash

Ultrasound guided FNA (worry about seeding)

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12
Q

What is the most common treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia and how effective is it?

A

Castration - leads to a 50% decrease in prostate size in 3 weeks

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13
Q

What is pollakiuria?

A

Dramatically increased frequency of urination

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14
Q

What are the differentials for red/brown urine?

A

Haemoglobinuria, myoglobinuria or haematuria

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15
Q

How can you differentiate haematuria from haemo/myoglobinuria?

A

Spin a urine sample - if the red colour is caused by red blood cells they will sediment out

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16
Q

What is haemoglobinuria indicative of and what are your differentials?

A

Indicative of intravascular haemolysis:

Immune mediated haemolytic anaemia

Zinc, onion, copper toxicities

Vena caval syndrome (clot or heartworm)

DIC

Microangiopathy

Inherited RBC defects

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17
Q

What is myoglobinuria indicative of and what are your differentials?

A

Indicative of severe muscle damage:

Rhabdomyolysis

Snake envenomation

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18
Q

What are your differentials for haematuria?

A

Bleeding from a genital structure

Bleeding from the urinary tract

Haemostatic disorder

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19
Q

What are some questions that can help you determine the source of haematuria?

A

Is the bleeding only at the beginning or end of the urine stream?

Does bleeding from prepuce or vulva occur at times other than urination?

Is bleeding associated with straining and increased frequency of urination?

Are RBC casts present in the urine?

Is blood found in voided but not cystocentesis derived samples?

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20
Q

What do RBC casts in the urine indicate?

A

Bleeding in the kidneys

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21
Q

What would bleeding at times other than urination make you consider?

A

That bleeding could be coming from the reproductive tract

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22
Q

What two categories of pathology can cause straining?

A

Obstruction and/or inflammation

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23
Q

What is reflex dyssynergia?

A

A functional obstruction causing males to urinate in spurts. They may not be able to completely empty their bladder.

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24
Q

What is increased urination / accidents at night called?

A

Nocturia

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25
Q

Define the limits for isosthenuria:

A

1.008 - 1.012

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26
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for primary polydipsia?

A

Psychogenic

Hepatic insufficiency / disease

Hypothalamic disorder

Drugs (chlorapromazine, anticholinergics)

Hyperthyroidism

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27
Q

What are the differentials for primary polyuria?

A

Neurohypophyseal (central) diabetes insipidus (inability to produce ADH)

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (inability to respond to ADH)

Renal failure

Pyelonephritis

Pyometra

Hypercalcaemia

Hypokalaemia

Hyper/hypoadrenocorticism

Hyperthyroidism

Hepatic insufficiency

Diabetes mellitus

Drugs (nephrotoxins, diuretics)

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28
Q

What should you include in your initial approach to a case of PU/PD?

A

Signalment

History

Physical exam (incl. RECTAL)

CBC

Serum chemistry profile

Urinalysis

29
Q

What is ‘overt’ proteinuria?

A

Dipstick-detectable excessive protein in the urine (>0.3g/L)

30
Q

What is microalbuminuria?

A

Mildly excessive albumin in the urine - concentration is abnormally high but below the limit of detection of (conventional) dipsticks.

31
Q

What can cause false positives on a dipstick?

A

Antiseptic contamination

Damp reagent strips

Very alkaline urine

Very concentrated urine

32
Q

What can cause false negatives on a urine dipstick?

A

Not sensitive detection for protein other than albumin (may have hyperproteinuria, just not hyperalbuminuria - won’t be picked up)

33
Q

What different methods are there for measuring proteinuria?

A

Dipstick, 3% sulphosalicyclic acid precipitation test (SSA), urine protein : urine creatinine ratio

34
Q

What are differential diagnoses for pre-glomerular proteinuria?

A

Multiple myeloma, various leukaemias, B-cell lymphoma, haemolytic crsis or rhabdomyolysis.

35
Q

What are differential dianoses for glomerular proteinuria?

A

Glomeruloephritis, hereditary nephropathies, amyloidosis,

36
Q

What are differential diagnoses for tubular proteinuria?

A

Drug toxicities, pyelonephritis, heavy metal poisoning, acute tubular necrosis, fanconi syndrome, vesicoureteral reflex

37
Q

What are differential diagnoses for post renal proteinuria?

A

Lower urinary tract disease (infection, inflammation, calculi, neoplasia), genital inflammation / infection

38
Q

What is seen in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, hypercholesterolaemia

39
Q

What can you do to treat glomerular nephritis?

A

*Attempt to identify and treat the underlying cause

ACE inhibitor (be careful of dose)

High quality, protein restricted food

40
Q

Which breeds are prone to renal amyloidosis?

A

Abyssinian cats and Shar Pei dogs

41
Q

What are some complications of glomerular proteinuria?

A

Renal failure, hypercoagulable sate, thromboembolism, systemic arterial hypetension

42
Q

What percentage of cardiac output goes to the kidneys?

43
Q

At what percentage loss of kidney function do we start to see azotaemia?

44
Q

What can have an effect on BUN?

A

Diet, GI bleeding, catabolic rate, dehydration

45
Q

What are the defense mechanisms of the bladder?

A

Musocsal defence: antibody production, glycosaminoglycan layer, intrinsic antimicrobial properties, uroepithelial exfoliation

Urine composition: high/low pH, hyperosmolality, high concentration of urea

46
Q

In what situation are you more likely to see an e.coli UTI in cats opposed to a staph UTI?

A

E.coli: in cats that are not properly concentrating their urine

Staph: can withstand dehydration - see in cats catheterised in a dirty manner

47
Q

What is the most common bacteria causing UTI?

48
Q

What factors can predispose to urolith formation?

A

Highly concentrated urine, urine retention, favourable urine pH, nidus for nucleation/crystallisation, decreased concentration of crystallisation inhibitors

49
Q

Which are the two most common type of uroliths?

A

Struvite and Ca oxalate

50
Q

You see big, radio-opaque stones on radiography, what type of urinary calculi are they most likely to be?

51
Q

What is the most important mineral component of feline urethral plugs?

52
Q

Which bacteria species produce urease?

A

Proteus spp and Staphylococci spp

53
Q

What are the treatment principles for struvite uroliths?

A

Treat UTI if present!

Can remove stones surgically

OR

Try to dissolve them using a struvite dissolution diet (can take months) +/- urease inhibitor

54
Q

What are the treatment principles for calcium oxalate crystals?

A

Surgical removal and analysis

Avoid excessively salty foods

55
Q

Do struvite crystals form more readily in acidic or alkaline urine?

56
Q

What type of uroliths can you get?

A

Struvite

Ca oxalate

Urate

Cystine

Silicate

57
Q

What type of urolith are Dalmations prone to?

58
Q

Dogs with liver failure are prone to what type of urolith and why?

A

Urate - increased excretion of ammonium urate

59
Q

Which uroliths are often ‘jack’ shaped?

60
Q

What predisposes to feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)?

A

Highly concentrated urine and infrequent voiding

61
Q

Give examples of pseudo-incontinence:

A

Puppy excitement, submissive behaviour, poor housebreaking,nleft inside too long, disorders leading to urgency

62
Q

What drug can be given to detract the detrusor?

A

bethanechol (cholinergic)

63
Q

What drugs can be used to relax the bladder sphincter?

A

Phenoxybenzamine (alpha blocker), diazepam

64
Q

What drugs are used for urethral sphincter mechanism incompetance?

A

Alpha-adrenergic agonists (ephedrine) and hormones (oestradiol, testosterone)

65
Q

What drugs would you give for detrusor hyper-excitability?

A

Anticholinergics (imipramine)

66
Q

Which antibiotic has good prostatic infiltration?

A

Enrofloxacin

67
Q

What type of urolith are these likely to be?

68
Q

What is there evidence of in this radiograph?

A

Vesico-ureteral reflux