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Question 1

What is the mechanism of action of penicillin?

Answer 1

• Binds penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs).
• Blocks trasnpeptidase cross-linking of the cell wall.
• Activate autolytic enzymes.

Question 2

Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to smooth parts of the left and right ventricle?

Answer 2

Bulbus cordis.

Question 3

Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to smooth part of the right atrium?

Answer 3

Right horn of the sinus venosus.

Question 4

Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to trabeculated left and right atrium?

Answer 4

Primitive atria.

Question 5

Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to trabeculated parts of the left and right ventricle?

Answer 5

Primitive ventricle.

Question 6

What are the clinical manifestations of CREST scleroderma?

Answer 6

[CREST] Calcinosis.

Raynoud phenomenon. Esophageal dysmotility. Sclerodactyly. Telangiesctasias.

Question 7

Which cytokines are produced by the TH1 cells?

Answer 7

They produce IL-1 and interferon-gamma which lead to stimulation of T cells and macrophages.

Question 8

Which penicillin drug would you use in UTI?

Answer 8

Amoxicillin (better G(-) coverage).

Question 9

Which penicillin drug would you use in neonatal infection?

Answer 9

Ampicillin (usually combined with gentamicin).

Question 10

Which penicillin drug would you use in syphilis?

Answer 10

Penicillin G.

Question 11

Which penicillin drug would you use in Pseudomonas?

Answer 11

Ticarcillin, Carbenicillin, Piperacillin.

Question 12

What are the different classes of antiarrhythmics?

Answer 12

[No Bad Boy Keeps Clean]
Class I: Na+ channel blockers.
Class II: Beta-blockers.
Class III: K+ channel blockers.
Calss IV: Ca2+ channel blockers.

Question 13

What would you think of a patient with gout + intellectual disability + lip-biting?

Answer 13

Lesch-Nyphan syndrome.

Question 14

In what pathology would we see anti-histone antibodies?

Answer 14

Drug-induced lupus.

Question 15

In what pathology would we see Psammoma bodies?

Answer 15

[PSMM]

• Papillary adenocarcinoma of the thyroid.
• Serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary.
• Meningioma.
• Mesothelioma.

Question 16

In what pathology would we see lytic bone lesions on x-ray?

Answer 16

-Multiple myeloma.

Question 17

What are the toxins for Strep pyogenes?

Answer 17

Streptolysin O: Hemolysis on blood agar plates, oxygen-labile.
Streptolysin S: Oxygen stable.
Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins type A, B, and C.: There are the erythrogenic toxins.

Question 18

What are the symptoms of HUS?

Answer 18

Hemolytic uremic syndrome:

• Hemolytic anemia.
• Thrombocytopenia.
• Acute renal failure.

Question 19

Which bacteria secrete enterotoxins?

Answer 19

[See You Caitlyn, Venturing Saturn’s Ecosystem]

1. Staph aureus.
2. Yersinia.
3. Clostridium spp.
4. Vibrio cholerae.
5. Shigella.
6. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli.

Question 20

What is Charcot’s Neurological Triad?

Answer 20

[Charcot is a SIN]

1. Scanning speech.
2. Intention tremor.
3. Nystagmus.

Question 21

What organisms are most commonly implicated in subacute endocarditis?

Answer 21

1. Viridans streptococci.
2. Enterococci.
3. Coagulase-negative Staph (Staph epidermidis).

Question 22

Which bacteria is an obligate anaerobe and a G(+) spore-forming rod?

Answer 22

Clostridum species are obligate ANaerobes.

Question 23

Why are aminoglycosides ineffective against G(+) anaerobes?

Answer 23

Because they are antibiotics that require oxygen to enter the bacterial cells.

Question 24

What part of the basal ganglia, if lesioned, causes hypokinesia?

Answer 24

Substantia nigra pars compacta.

Question 25

Which cytokines are produced by TH2 cells?

Answer 25

IL-4.
IL-5.
IL-10.

Question 26

What neurotransmitted is depleted with MPTP exposure?

Answer 26

Dopamine: because MPTP is converted to MPP, which destroys the dopaminergic neurons in the substancia nigra.

Question 27

A male patient present w/ involuntary flailing of one arm. Where is the lesion?

Answer 27

Hemiballismus. This is caused by lesion of the subthalamic nucleus on the contralateral side.

Question 28

What nerve runs with anterior interosseous artery?

Answer 28

Anterior interosseous nerve.

Question 29

What nerve runs with posterior interosseous artery?

Answer 29

Deep branch of the radial nerve.

Question 30

What nerve runs with posterior circumflex artery?

Answer 30

Axillary nerve.

Question 31

What nerve runs with suprascapular artery?

Answer 31

Suprascapular nerve.

Question 32

What nerve runs with thoracodorsal artery?

Answer 32

Thoracodorsal nerve.

Question 33

What nerve runs with the deep brachial artery?

Answer 33

Radial nerve.

Question 34

What nerve runs with dorsal scapular artery?

Answer 34

Dorsal scapular nerve.

Question 35

What nerve runs with lateral thoracic artery?

Answer 35

Long thoracic nerve.

Question 36

What nerve runs with ulnar artery?

Answer 36

Ulnar nerve.

Question 37

What nerve runs with brachial artery?

Answer 37

Median nerve.

Question 38

What CSF changes are present in Guillain-Barre syndrome?

Answer 38

Increase in protein in CSF called Albumino-cytologic dissociation.

Question 39

What can cause a rash on the palms and soles?

Answer 39

• Secondary syphilis.
• Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
• Coxsackie A virus.
• Kawasaki disease.

Question 40

What nerve is most in risk in being damaged in a fibula neck fracture?

Answer 40

Deep peroneal nerve.

Question 41

Which two muscles receptors are responsible for opening the sarcoplasmic reticulum in response to depolarization?

Answer 41

1. Dihydropyridine receptor.

2. Ryanodine receptor.

Question 42

What are the features of congenital syphilis?

Answer 42

• Snuffles (blood-tinged secretions).
• Saber shins (anterior bowing of the tibia).
• Frontal bossing (prominent forehead).
• Saddle nose deformity (flattening of the nasal bridge).