Removable Partial Dentures Flashcards

1
Q

What is an abutment

A

any tooth or implant that supports a dental prosthesis

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2
Q

What is a retainer

A

the portion of a partial denture that attaches the prosthesis to the abutment

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3
Q

What is an extracoronal retainer, and what are the two parts

A

two metal clasps that lie on the external surface of the abutment
retentive clasp and reciprocal clasp

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4
Q

What is a retentive clasp

A

the portion of an extracoronal retainer that is located in an undercut area of the crown and resists occlusal or incisal displacement of the RPD

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5
Q

What is the reciprocal clasp

A

the portion of the extracoronal retainer that is located in a non-undercut area on the opposite side of the abutment and acts as the stabilizing element

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6
Q

What is an intracoronal retainer

A

when the retainer is contained completely within the contours of the clinical crown. (rare, need two specially designed crowns)

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7
Q

What is a tooth supported RPD

A

an RPD that receives support from teeth at each end of the edentulous space

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8
Q

how much support does a tooth supported RPD get from the ridge

A

some, but not a significant amount.

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9
Q

What is another name for a tooth-tissue supported RPD

A

an extension base

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10
Q

what is a tooth-tissue supported RPD

A

an RPD with teeth supporting only one end of the edentulous space. they have a mesial or distal extension

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11
Q

What is retention

A

resistance to displacement away from the teeth and soft tissues

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12
Q

what is support

A

resistance to displacement toward the teeth and soft tissues

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13
Q

what is stability

A

resistance to displacement in the mediolateral or anterioposterior direction

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14
Q

Which type of kennedy classification is most common, which is least

A

1 is most common (then 2, then 3) 4 is least common

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15
Q

What is a kennedy class 1

A

bilateral edentulous areas posterior to remaining teeth

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16
Q

What is a kennedy class 2

A

unilateral edentulous area posterior to remaining teeth

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17
Q

What is a kennedy class 3

A

unilateral edentulous area with teeth both anterior and posterior to it

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18
Q

What is a kennedy class 4

A

single, bilateral edentulous area that is anterior to remaining teeth, and crosses the midline

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19
Q

in the classification of an edentulous space should classification follow or precede all planned extractions?

A

it should follow all extractions

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20
Q

would a missing third molar that isn’t going to be replaced be considered when assigning a kennedy classification

A

nope

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21
Q

would a missing second molar that isn’t going to be replaced be considered when assigning a kennedy classification

A

nope

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22
Q

would an existing third molar that is going to be used as an abutment for the RPD be considered when assigning a kennedy classification

A

yes

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23
Q

when you have multiple edentulous areas in an arch, which one is used to determine the classification

A

the most posterior edentulous area

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24
Q

what do you refer to all edentulous areas that aren’t determining the kennedy classification as

A

modification spaces

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25
Q

what determines the number of modification spaces you have

A

the number of additional (not including the classification determining edentulous area) edentulous areas you have. not the number of teeth that are missing.

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26
Q

can there be Kennedy class IV arches with modification spaces

A

nope.

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27
Q

When should RPDs be planned and designed

A

from the very beginning, during initial diagnosis and treatment planning

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28
Q

how could diabetes affect an RPD

A

when it is uncontrolled it can lead to small oral abscesses and poor tissue tone

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29
Q

how could arthritis affect an RPD

A

it can cause changes in the TMJ which creates difficulties in recording jaw relations

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30
Q

how could paget disease affect an RPD

A

causes enlargement of maxillary tuberosities

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31
Q

how can acromegaly affect an RPD

A

it causes an enlargement of the mandible

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32
Q

how can parkinsons affect an RPD

A

it makes it very difficult for the patient to remove it and insert it, and keep it clean

33
Q

how can pemphigous vulgaris affect an RPD

A

causes bullae in the oral cavity, which cause discomfort, dryness, and an ill-fitting denture

34
Q

how can epilepsy affect an RPD

A

seizures can cause a fracture in the RPD or loss of additional teeth

35
Q

how can cancer affect an RPD

A

radiation/chemo can cause mucosal irritations, xerostomia, infections

36
Q

how can antihypertensive agents affect an RPD

A

syncope (orthostatic hypotension)

37
Q

how can endocrine therapy affect an RPD

A

cause xerostomia

38
Q

what is the most important thing to do in a patient interview

A

listen

39
Q

what should you do in the first five minutes of an interview

A

establish rapport

40
Q

what should we be concerned about a patients expectations

A

we should make sure that they are realistic, and that they understand the increased maintenance that comes with an RPD. if they have unrealistic expectations, or won’t tolerate the increased maintenance required, treatment shouldn’t be done

41
Q

What must we understand about a patient with highly mobile lips (gummy smile)

A

that it can be difficult to achieve good aesthetics with an RPD for this patient

42
Q

what is a philosophical patient like

A

they are easy to treat, accept responsibility, and understand they have a role in their health

43
Q

what is an exacting patient like

A

well dressed, wants perfection, difficult to treat, once satisfied they are enthusiastic supporters

44
Q

what is a hysterical patient like

A

complain without reason, don’t accept responsibility, and have poor success unless they have a change of attitude

45
Q

what is an indifferent patient like

A

they ignore instructions, uncooperative, don’t care about remaining teeth, poor prognosis

46
Q

What is tooth mobility 1

A

trauma from occlusion, can be reversed with occlusion correction

47
Q

what is tooth mobility 2

A

inflammation of PDL, can be reversed if inflammation is eliminated

48
Q

what is tooth mobility 3

A

bone loss, non-reversable

49
Q

what is the necessary crown-root ratio for an abutment tooth

A

at most 1:1 crown (clinical crown) to root ratio.

if greater than that it is not suitable to be an abutment

50
Q

what are the options for a tooth with greater than 1:1 crown to root ratio

A
  • Extraction (if the adjacent tooth is capable of being an abutment)
  • Splint (usually weakens the strong tooth)
  • retained as an overdenture (needs to be endo treated)
51
Q

What should be done when considering and RPD for a patient with signs of gingivitis and periodontal disease

A

the disease must be controlled for the RPD to be successful

52
Q

What do we focus on when observing radiographs during RPD design and planning

A

the abutment teeth and residual ridge areas

53
Q

do all root tips need to be removed before RPD placement

A

no

54
Q

can 3rd molars be used as abutment teeth

A

yes

55
Q

What are favorable and unfavorable root and bone conditions for abutment teeth

A

large and long roots are favorable (as long as they have a good crown to root ratio)
short conical roots are unfavorable
roots in close proximity to other roots are unfavorable due to less interproximal bone

56
Q

what does a widened PDL on a potential abutment tooth indicate, and what does it mean for RPD planning

A

it indicates mobility, trauma, or heavy occlusion
in RPD planning effort should be made to reduce heavy forces on the tooth because additional stress may lead to severe damage

57
Q

Should you initiate restorative treatment prior to the completion of the diagnostic mounting and design of the RPD

A

no, unless it is urgent

58
Q

can you use endodontically treated teeth as abutments

A

yes you can, but they should be carefully evaluated since they can become more brittle. (they will need a full coverage crown)

59
Q

What is torus palatinus, and how does it usually affect an RPD

A

it is tori (bony protuberance) on the hard palate. it usually doesn’t affect an RPD and thus doesn’t have to be removed.

60
Q

What is torus mandibularis and how does it usually affect an RPD

A

it is tori (bony protuberance) on the lingual surface of the mandible, it causes uncomfortable fitting of the RPD and usually needs to be removed

61
Q

What are Exostoses and how do they usually affect RPDs

A

they are bony overgrowths on an osseus surface. they are more common in the maxilla, can be caused by an extraction, and need to be removed if they are large enough to interfere with RPD seating

62
Q

What are the options for treating a hard tissue undercut

A
  1. reducing the length of the denture base

2. surgically correcting the undercut

63
Q

when would you surgically correct a hard tissue undercut instead of reducing the length of the denture base

A
  1. when reducing the length leads to reduction in stability or support
  2. when the undercut creates a food impaction
  3. when shortening the denture base causes an aesthetic issue
64
Q

what are the treatment options for a frenum that interferes with an RPD

A

a notch can be placed in the RPD for the frenum, if the notch is unaesthetic (sometimes due to a short lip, or highly mobile lip) then a frenectomy may be indicated

65
Q

What does the active floor of the mouth refer to

A

the portion of the floor of the mouth that is mobile. it is important because your RPD cannot rest on the active floor of the mouth. Thus you must measure when the active floor of the mouth is.

66
Q

for a Kennedy class 1, how many direct retention and indirect retention seats do you need

A

2 direct and 2 indirect

67
Q

for a Kennedy class 2, how many direct retention and indirect retention seats do you need

A

3 direct and 1 indirect

68
Q

for a Kennedy class 3, how many direct retention and indirect retention seats do you need

A

4 direct and 0 indirect

69
Q

for a Kennedy class 4, how many direct retention and indirect retention seats do you need

A

4 direct and 2 indirect

70
Q

What is the order of most preferable clasp type to least preferable clasp type for a distal extension

A
  1. I-bar
  2. T-bar
  3. Wrought Wire
71
Q

What is the undercut amount needed for an I bar

A

.01 inch

72
Q

what is the undercut amount needed for a T bar

A

.01 inch

73
Q

what is the undercut amount needed for a wrought wire

A

.02 inch

74
Q

where is the mesiodistal location of the I bar

A

mid-buccal

75
Q

where is the mesiodistal location of the T bar

A

distobuccal

76
Q

where is the mesiodistal location of the WW (wrought wire)

A

mesiobuccal

77
Q

What clasps are usually used in Kennedy class III situations

A

C-Clasps (circlet)

78
Q

What is a ball clasp and when is it used

A

it is a clasp with a ball on it that goes over the marginal ridge and engages in the interproximal (facial) undercut. They are used on interim RPDs when lingual interproximal undercuts don’t have sufficient undercuts