Relevant Lab Procedures Including Lab Diagnosis And Treatment Of Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

State six lab investigations

A
●BLOOD TEST
●BIOPSY
●URINALYSIS
●LIVER FUNCTION TEST
●PAP SMEAR
●CHORIONIC VILLUS SAMPLING
●ENDOSCOPY
●ANGIOGRAPHY
●RENAL BIOPSY
●BONE MARROW ASPIRATION
●AMNIOCENTESIS
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2
Q

What are blood tests and state four uses of em

A

Blood tests are used to measure or examine cells, chemicals, proteins, or other substances in the blood.
•Blood test also known as blood work is one of the most common types of lab tests and are often included as part of regular checkups and are usually used to;
➢Help diagnose certain diseases and conditions
➢Monitor a chronic disease or condition, such as diabetes or high cholesterol
➢Find out if treatment of a disease working.
➢Check how well your organs are working. Your organs include your liver, kidney, heart, and thyroid.
➢Help diagnose bleeding or clotting disorders
➢Find out if your immune system is having trouble fighting infections

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3
Q

State two types of blood tests
State their uses
Abnormal levels of the components CBC measures indicate what?(mention four)
How long do basic metabolic panel tests require you to fast? And what does the time depend on?
Abnormal results of a BMP may indicate?(name three)

A
COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT
This test measures the different parts of your blood, including red and white blood cells, platelets, and hemoglobin. Abnormal levels of these components may indicate
● nutritional deficiency, such as vitamin B6 or B12
● Anemia( iron deficiency)
●Clotting problems
●Blood cancer
●Infections
●Immune system disorderS
•BASIC METABOLIC PANEL
This is a group of tests that measure certain chemicals in your blood, including glucose, calcium and electrolytes. This test may require you to fast  for at least 8 hours before your blood is drawn depending on the instructions of the doctor and what the test is measuring. Abnormal results may indicate
●Kidney disease
●Diabetes
●Hormone imbalance
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4
Q

What is biopsy
What is it used for?
State the five types of biopsies
State four examples of tests under needle biopsy

A

biopsy is a removal of tissue from any part of the body to examine it for disease.(if it’s benign,malignant or infectious)
•Nb. Biopsies are often done to look for cancers but can also help identify many other conditions.

  • Types of biopsies.
  • Bone marrow biopsy.
  • Endoscopic biopsy.: Your doctor may use an endoscopy to collect tissue samples (biopsy) to test for diseases and conditions, such as anemia, bleeding, inflammation, diarrhea or cancers of the digestive system.
  • Needle biopsy:
  • Core needle:c ore needle biopsy uses a hollow needle to remove samples of tissue from the breast. It’s the standard and preferred way to diagnose breast cancer.
  • Fine needle: Fine needle aspiration (also called fine needle biopsy) removes cells from a suspicious lump in the breast. The needle used is thinner than in core needle biopsy. Fine needle aspiration is only used for lumps that can be felt (palpable masses). While core biopsy obtains a larger tissue sample and provides a degree of architectural information, FNA is considered less invasive and has the advantage of immediate confirmation of adequacy by the attending cytologist.
  • Image-guided biopsies.: An image-guided biopsy consists of the placement of a biopsy needle through the patients skin into an organ of interest using imaging for guidance. The most commonly used imaging modality are ultrasonography, and computer thermography (CT).
  • Vacuum assisted.: When breast imaging shows up very small abnormalities too small to be felt (i.e. anything unusual in the structure of the breast), Vacuum-assisted core biopsy is used to obtain samples of the breast tissue. Through a small incision or cut in the skin, a special biopsy needle is inserted into the breast and, using a vacuum-powered instrument, several tissue samples are taken. The vacuum draws tissue into the centre of the needle and a rotating cutting device takes the samples.
  • Skin biopsy
  • Surgical biopsy.
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5
Q

State four conditions that require biopsies

State four complications of biopsies

A

CONDITIONS THAT REQUIRE BIOPSY.
•bone marrow diseases, such as myelofibrosis
•cancers of the bone marrow, blood such as leukemia or lymphoma.
•unexplained anemia, abnormal low blood cell count.: Do you need a bone marrow biopsy? Your doctor may order a bone marrow biopsy if your blood tests show your levels of platelets, or white or red blood cells are too high or too low. A biopsy will help determine the cause of these abnormalities, which can include: anemia, or a low red blood cell count
•skin lesions and rashes.

COMPLICATIONS OF BIOPSY.
•excessive bleeding
•infection
•puncture damage
•skin numbness around biopsy site.
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6
Q
What is urinalysis 
What is it used for?
What does it involve?
A complete urinalysis tests consists of how many components or examinations?
Name em
A

urinalysis is a test of urine. It is used to detect and manage a wide range of disorders, such as urinary tract infections, kidneys disease and diabetes. A urinalysis involves checking the appearance, concentration and content of urine.
•A complete urinalysis consists of three components or examinations:
Physical,chemical and microscopic

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7
Q

What 5 things does the physical exam done in urinalysis describe?
What is the normal value of the volume of urine in adults?
Any abnormal result may indicate what?(state what it shows when it’s high or low)
What is the normal colour of urine?
If the urine is brown or black what does it mean?
If it’s dark yellow what does I rn mean?
If it’s green or blue what does it mean?
If it’s orange what does it mean?
If it’s pink or red what does it mean?
What is the normal appearance of urine?
Abnormal appearance may indicate what?

A

Physical examination
Describes the volume, color, clarity, odor and specific gravity.
●volume; normal value of 600 and 2,000 ml daily in adults. Any abnormal result may indicate anuria and oliguria showing a severe dehydration from diarrhea, hemorrhage vomiting or excessive sweating. A higher value may also indicate polyuria as result of alcohol intake or caffeine consumption, diabetes, increased water in take etc.

●Color; normal color is yellow( light or pale). Others colors have different indications for example
brown or black: bile pigments, chloroquine, levodopa
Dark yellow: concentrated specimen(dehydration, exercise)
Green or blue: amitriptyline, cimetidine
Orange: bile pigments, carrots
Pink or red: beets, hemoglobinuria, menstrual contamination.

● clarity; normal appearance is clear or translucent. Abnormal appearance may indicate bacteria infection, blood clots, contrast media, vaginal creams or secretions, yeast or non specific.

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8
Q

What four things does the chemical exam describe?
Urine pH provides insight into what?
What is the pH (slightly base or slightly acidic?)of normal urine and why?
What is the normal pH range of urine
Higher pH value may suggest what?
How values may suggest what?
Normal concentration of protein in urine is what?
Albuminuria of 30mg/day or more is an indicator of what ?
What is normal result of blood cells in the urine?
Hematuria may indicate what?
Hemoglobinuria may indicate what?
When does glycosuria occur?
At what glucose serum concentration does it occur at?
What will cause glucose in urine to be positive?

A

•CHEMICAL EXAMINATION
●PH
Urine pH is a vital piece of information and provides insight into tubular function. Normally urine is slightly acidic because of metabolic activity. Normal pH value od urine ranges from 4.5 to 8( usually 5.5 to 6)
Higher values may suggest stale or old specimems, hyperventilation, renal tubular acidosis, vegetarian diet.
Low values may also indicate dehydration, diabetes mellitus, DKA high protein diet, emphysema, etc.

●PROTEINS
Proteinuria is another critical finding. In normal conditions, the proteins are present in urine in trace amounts.
Normal concentration of proteins in urine is less than or equal to 150mg/day( typically albuminuria less than 30mg/day. Albuminuria of 30mg/day or more is an indicator of early renal disease, glomerular injury and risk of progression of renal disease.

●BLOOD CELLS; normal result is negative(usually) or less than or equal to 5 RBCs per ml
hematuria may indicate glomerulonephritis, tumors, trauma, anticoagulants, and hemoglobinuria may also indicate hemolytic anemias, RBC trauma strenuous exercise, transfusion reactions, severe burns, infections( ie malaria|)

●GLUCOSE; Glycosuria occurs when the filtered load of glucose exceeds the tubular cells’ ability to reabsord it, which normally happens at a glucose serum concentration of around 180mg per dL. Normal result is negative, however other associations may give a positive results: these associations may include diabetes mellitus, cushing syndrome, pregnancy.

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9
Q

What are the two main things ull look for in microscopic exam
Give four examples under each
What are casts
Why will RBC casts be present in urine?
Why who’ll WBC casts be present in urine?
Why will epithelial cell casts be present in urine?
Why will hyaline casts or fatty casts be present in urine?
Casts are divided in cellular and non cellular

A

URINALYSIS CONT’D
•MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION
●CASTS
Casts are coagulum composed of the trapped contents of tubule lumen and tam -horsefall mucoprotein.presence of casts indicate more of a kidney disease than a UT disease
•Red blood cell casts are normally absent in urine. May be present due to glomerulonephritis, vasculitis, strenuous exercise.
•White blood cell casts are also absent in urine under normal conditions; its presence may indicate pyelonephritis, glomerulonephritis, renal inflammatory processes.
•Epithelial cell casts; normally absent, associations include acute tubular injury, renal disease, glomerulonephritis.
•Fatty casts: Fatty casts are seen in people who have lipids in urine. This is most often a complication of nephrotic syndrome . Granular casts are a sign of many types of kidney diseases. Red blood cell casts mean there is a microscopic amount of bleeding from the kidney.
•Hyaline casts: yaline casts are considered to be a nonspecific finding— they can be found in both healthy individuals and individuals with pathological conditions. The presence of hyaline casts typically indicates a decreased or sluggish urine flow, which can be a result of strenuous exercise, diuretic medications, severe vomiting, or fever. In combination with other clinical findings, large amounts of hyaline casts may indicate kidney damage due to decreased blood flow to the kidneys.

●CELLS
•Red blood cells
•White blood cells
•Eosinophil
•Epithelial cell
•Bacteria, fungi or parasite
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10
Q

What is a liver function test
State five things it’s used to assess?
Why will ALt be increased?
Why will AST be increased and which three places is it found?(HML)
Why will ALP be increased and where is it found?(PBP)
Why will GGT be increased and how does it cause cholestasis
An isolated rise of ALP in the absence of GGT may increase suspicion of what?

A

•A test used to confirm a clinical suspicion of a potential liver disease, liver synthetic function and used to distinguish between hepatocellular injury and cholestasis.
•The LFT may be used to asses the following
●Alanine transaminase(ALT)
It is found in high concentration within hepatocytes and enters the blood following hepatocellular injury. It is therefore a usual marker of hepatocellular injury.
●Aspate amino transferase(AST)
It is found in the liver, muscle tissues and heart; raised levels may indicate liver and muscle damage as well as myocardial infarction.
●Alkaline phosphatase(ALP)
Found in the biliary system, bone and placenta; high levels indicates, bone break down, cholestasis and pregnancy.
●Gamma glutamyl transferase(GGT)
Get into the biliary system and cause cholestasis. Increased levels of GGT may suggest excess alcohol intake.

Increased plasma GGT in cholestasis may be a consequence of increased bile acid concentration or other bile constituents that stimulate the hepatobiliary synthesis and release of GGT similarly to ALP; however, GGT is considered a less sensitive but more specific indicator of cholestasis when compared with ALP.

NB: an isolated rise of ALP in the absence of GGT may increase the suspicion of non hepatobiliary pathology.
●Bilirubin, albumin and prothrombin time

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11
Q

What is bilirubin
What causes high levels of it
Patients with high levels of it may oresent with what
Where is albumin synthesized and what’s it’s function
Low levels of albumin may be caused by?
What doe patients w low albumin usually present with?
What is prothrombin time?
Which part of the body is responsible for clotting factors?
Which two things can increase prothrombin time

A

•BILIRUBIN
Is a breakdown product of hemoglobin and can be conjugated or non conjugated. An increased RBC distraction, hepatocellular injury, biliary obstruction can caused high levels of bilirubin. Patients with high levels of bilirubin may present with jaundice, dark urine and pale stool.

•ALBUMIN
●It’s synthesize in the liver and help bind water, cations, fatty acids and above all help in maintain oncotic pressure.
●Low levels of albumin may be caused by cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome.
●Patients with low albumin usually present with edema, ascites.

  • PROTHROMBIN TIME
  • Is a measure of the blood’s coagulation tendency.
  • The liver is responsible for clotting factors, therefore hepatic pathology can impair the process resulting in increased prothrombin time.
  • The use of anti coagulants and vitamin K deficiency can increase prothrombin time.
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12
Q

What is a Pap smear
What does it involve
What does the HPV test detect?
What thee things does the Pap smear test detect?
How long does it take for Pap smear results to come back?
A positive result does not confirm a person has cancer but more investigation is necessary true or false?

A

pap smear, also called a pap test, is a procedure to test for cervical cancer in women. It involves collecting cells from your cervix for screening which allows doctors detect abnormal cells and cancer.
•Doctors also recommend the human papillomavirus(HPV) test which detects DNA from the HPV to reveal both its presence and type.
•These tests can detect
➢Precancerous cell changes
➢The presence of HPV
➢The presence of cancer

•PAP SMEAR RESULTS
The test results usually take 1 to 3 weeks to come back. Most test results are negative but sometimes be positive. Positive result does not confirm that a person has cancer, but more investigation is necessary.

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13
Q

What is endoscopy
What instrument is used to execute it(note that the term doesn’t apply to the other types of endoscopy cuz a cystoscopy is done using a cystocope and so on)
StTe two uses of endoscopy
State seven types of endoscopy

A

Endoscopy is a procedure thnat is used to view and operate on some internal organs and the blood vessels of the body.
•The instrument used in executing this procedure is known as the endoscoper
•The procedure is mainly done by a doctor or a surgeon
•Endoscopy can be used as a diagnostic tool and a surgical approach in treating some diseases

TYPES OF ENDOSCOPY
●Arthroscopy-joints(Arthroscopy (ahr-THROS-kuh-pee) is a procedure for diagnosing and treating joint problems)
●Bronchoscopy-lungs
●Colonoscopy
●Upper GI endoscopy
●Laparoscopy-pelvic and abdominal area(is a minimally invasive surgery or key hole surgery
●Hysteroscopy-uterus
●Cystoscopy: Cystoscopy is a procedure that lets the healthcare provider view the urinary tract, particularly the bladder, the urethra, and the openings to the ureters

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14
Q
What is an angiogram 
How is it done?
What is it used for?
When there’s a problem w the blood vessel what can happen?
State five cases that need an angiogram
A

•Angiography or arteriography is a medical imaging technique used to visualize the inside, or lumen, of blood vessels and organs of the body, with particular interest in the arteries, veins, and the heart chambers.

This is traditionally done by injecting a radio-opaque contrast agent into the blood vessel and imaging using x ray based techniques such as fluoroscopy.
•This test is used to study narrow, blocked, enlarged, or malformed arteries or veins in many parts of your body, including your brain, heart. When blood vessels are blocked, damaged or abnormal in any way, chest pain, heart attack, stroke, or other problems may occur.

  • Some suspected cases that you can request for angiography;
  • Atherosclerosis – narrowing of the arteries, which could mean you’re at risk of having a stroke or heart attack
  • Peripheral arterial disease – reduced blood supply to the leg muscles
  • A brain aneurysm – a bulge in a blood vessel in your brain
  • Angina – chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscles
  • Blood clots or a pulmonary embolism – a blockage in the artery supplying your lungs
  • A blockage in the blood supply to your kidneys
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15
Q

State some common types of angiogram or angiography

And state three complications

A

ANGIOGRAPHY
•Common types include
•Coronary angiography – to check the heart and nearby blood vessels
•Cerebral angiography – to check the blood vessels in and around the brain
•Pulmonary angiography – to check the blood vessels supplying the lungs
•Renal angiography – to check the blood vessels supplying the kidneys

•Complications
●Bruising
●Soreness
●A very small lump or collection of blood near where the cut was made

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16
Q

What is amniocentesis
State five reasons it’s done
State four risks involved ?

A

Amniocentesis is a procedure in which a sample of the amniotic fluid is taken from the uterus for testing or treatment
•Reasons why it is done; amniocentesis can be done for various reasons:
●Genetic testing, which involves taking a sample of the amniotic fluid and testing it for chromosomal abnormalities and certain conditions such as down syndrome
● fetal lung maturity
●Diagnosis of fetal infection; occasionally, it’s used to evaluate a baby for infection and other illness and can also be done to evaluate severity of anemia of babies who have Rh sensitization.
●Treatment; amniocentesis is required to treat polyhydramnios to drain the excess amniotic fluid from the uterus.
●Paternity testing; amniocentesis can collect DNA from the fetus that can then be compared to the DNA of the potential father.

●RISK INVOLVED
•Leaking amniotic fluid
•Miscarriage
•Needle injury
•Rh sensitization
•Infection transmission
17
Q

What is bone marrow aspiration (BMA)
State four uses of this test
What are the complications of it ?

A

•Bone marrow aspiration is a procedure performed by the doctor where a special needle is inserted into the bone marrow to obtain bone marrow specimen.

EVALUATION
➢It is considered as a valuable diagnostic test for evaluating hematologic disorders such as; Chronic lymphocytic leukemia, hairy cell, leukemia, anemia etc.
➢It is done to rule out infiltrative infectious diseases such as fungal infection, tuberculosis etc.
➢It is done to rule out non hematologic conditions such as fever of unknown origin specifically in AIDS patients.
➢It is done to reveal toxic effect of certain offending medications or substances( alcohol) or nutritional deficiency.

COMPLICATIONS
➢Sternal bone marrow aspiration has higher risk Of complications than other sites because of the delicate bone structures in that area.
➢Penetration of the underlying mediasternal organs can result in;
•Mediasternitis
•Cardia tissue injury
•Pulmonary embolism

18
Q
What is chorionic villus sampling
What does it entail?
When do chromosomal abnormalities usually take place?
State four indications for CVS
State two contraindications of CVS
A

Chorionic villus sampling is a form of prenatal diagnosis done to determine chromosomal or genetic disorders in the fetus.

It entails sampling of the chorionic villus( placental tissue) and testing it for chromosomal abnormalities, usually takes place at 10 to 12 weeks gestation.

•Indications for chorionic villus sampling includes
➢Abnormal early genetic screening on a non invasive prenatal screening(NIPS), first trimester conbined screening or abnormalities on ultrasound.
➢A prior child with a structural birth defect
➢A prior child with autosomal trisomy or sex chromosome aneuploidy
➢Advanced maternal or paternal age
➢Parental carrier of a chromosomal rearrangement
➢Parental aneuploidy mosaicism
➢Parental carrier of a genetic disorder, such as Tay Sachs(rare, inherited disorder that destroys nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. ) ,sickle cell disease, or neurofibromatosis(condition that causes tumours to form in the brain, spinal cord and nerves.
Neurofibromatosis is usually non-cancerous. There are three types of this condition. Type 1 usually appears in childhood, while Types 2 and 3 appear in early adulthood.)

CONTRAINDICATIONS
•Caution advised in patients receiving anticoagulation. Maternal alloimmnization(Alloimmunization consists of the induction of immunity in response to foreign antigen(s) encountered through exposure to cells or tissues from a genetically different member of the same species.) is a relative contraindication, since the procedure may cause severe fetal hemolytic disease.
•In addition, patients with bloodborne infections diseases such as human immunodeficiency virus(HIV) and hepatitis, should be advised of possible risk of vertical transmission with prenatal diagnostic testing.

19
Q

What is renal biopsy

Microscopic examination of the tissue can provide information needed to diagnose, monitor or treat problems of the kidney.true or false

renal biopsy can be targeted to a particular leson, for example a tumor arising from the kidney (targeted renal biopsy). More commonly, however, the biopsy is non-targeted as medical conditions affecting the kidney typically involve all kidney tissue indiscriminately. In the latter situation, any sufficiently-sized piece of kidney tissue can be used.
True or false
What are the forms of renal biopsy and define them
When is transplant kidney biopsy performed?
When is it typically done?
What is implantation transplant biopsy and what does it depend on?
What is a common complication of renal biopsy

A

•Renal biopsy (also kidney biopsy) is a medical procedure in which a small piece of kidney is removed from the body for examination, usually under a microscope.

•true
True

  • FORMS OF RENAL BIOPSY
  • .Native renal biopsy is one in which the patient’s own kidneys are biopsied
  • TRANSPLANT RENAL BIOPSY, The kidney of another person that has been transplanted into the patient is biopsied.

Transplant kidney biopsy can be performed when nothing is apparently wrong with the transplant kidney for the purposes of surveillance for hidden disease (protocol transplant biopsy).

When the transplanted kidney is not working properly, biopsy may be undertaken to identify the dysfunction.

This is typically done at 0, 3 and 12 months post-transplant according to a transplant unit protocol.

Biopsy of the transplanted kidney taken during the transplant operation is termed implantation transplant biopsy or post-perfusion transplant biopsy depending on the timing of the biopsy with respect to key stages of the operation.

•COMPLICATION
Common complication is bleeding

20
Q

What are infectious diseases

Give three examples

A

INFECTIOUS DISEASE
•Infectious diseases are diseases that are caused by organism such as virus, bacteria, fungi and parasites.

•Examples of these are corona virus, E. Coli infection, oral candidiasis, giardiasis.

21
Q

State four key elements to observe when treating infectious diseases

A

.Address any identifiable risk factors. E.g. diabetes, known immune deficit (HIV and neutropenia), under nutrition, age.
•Antimicrobial therapy: incur to know if patient have being on a recent antibiotics and which one was it.
•Treatment of the consequences of infection. E.g. inflammation and pain
•Adjuvant therapy. E.g. Chemotherapy

22
Q

What is empiric anti microbial therapy
What is it used for?
Give an example of when to use such a therapy and give an example of such a therapy
What is targeted therapy and give an example

A

EmpiRIC AND TARGET ANTIMICROBIAL THERAPY
•Empiric antimicrobial therapy is directed against an anticipated and likely cause of a disease. It is used when antimicrobials are given to a person before the specific bacterium or fungus causing an infection is known.
•For example, in an otherwise healthy young adult with suspected bacterial meningitis who is seen in the emergency department, the most likely pathogens would be Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis, and thus a combination of a third-generation cephalosporin (ceftriaxone) plus vancomycin would be recommended as empiric therapy

•Targeted therapy is a therapy that aims at the causal pathogen of the known antimicrobial sensitivity. For example, treating plasmodium falciparum with artemisinin in a malaria patient

23
Q

How are infectious diseases treated?(mention the two broad ways)
Give four non pharmacological ways of treating infectious diseases

A
  1. Non-pharmacological and
  2. Pharmacological
3.Non-pharmacological treatment
•Strict hand washing practices
•Wearing of appropriate personal protective equipment
•Good sanitation
•Isolation of an infected persons
•Protective sexual intercourse
•Eating healthy diets
Screening of blood before transfusion
24
Q

ANTIBACTERIAL THERAPY
•Many organisms can be classified as being either Gram-positive or Gram-negative depending on whether or not they stain with Gram’s stain.
•This is not merely a taxonomic device, as it reflects several fundamental differences in (for example) the structure of their cell walls, and this in turn has implications for the action of antibiotics.
True or false

In antibacterial therapy as a form of pharmacological treatment of infectious diseases,state the four main modes of action of the antibacterial drugs

State the 2 groups of cell wall synthesis inhibitors

Explain how Beta Lactam antibiotics work
State the three groups under Beta Lactam antibiotics ,the spectrum of activity (what they’re used for and what diseases that are treated w it) and give three examples of each
How many generations of cephalosporin do we have

What is the spectrum of activity for glycopeptides
Give some examples of glycopeptides and some diseases treated w them

A

True

CLASSIFICATION: MODE OF ACTION
1.Protein synthesis inhibitors
2.Inhibitor of essential
Metabolites 
3.Inhibition to nucleic acid replication and transcription 
4.CELL WALL SYNTHESIS INHIBITORS

Groups:

  1. BETA LACTAMS
  2. Glycopeptides
  • All β-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall peptidoglycan
  • They inactivate inhibitors of autolytic enzymes in the cell wall, leading to lysis of the bacterium.

A. PENICILLINS. E.g. Benzylpenicillin(penicillin G), phenoxymethylpenicillin(penicillin V)-naturally occurring

TREATMENT
•Spectrum of activity:
•They are mainly used for Gram-positive spp. and some Gram-negative spp.
•Used for staphylococcal infections
•Some diseases that are treated with penicillins
•Pneumonia ,Meningitis, Gonorrhoea, Skin infections.

I.Penicillinase resistant. E.g. Methicillin, Flucloxacillin.
II.Broad-spectrum penicillins. E.g. Amoxicillin, ampicillin
III.Antipseudomonal penicillins. E.g. Piperacillin, ticarcillin
IV.Mecillinams. E.g. Pivmecillinam

B. CEPHALOSPORINS.
•E.g. cefazolin(1st Gen), cefuroxime(2nd Gen.) ceftriaxone(3rd Gen.),cefepime(4thGen.)
•Spectrum of activity
•Broad spectrum of activity against Gram-negative and positive spp.
•Some diseases that are treated with Cephalosporin:otitis media,uncomplicated UTI(1st generation)

C. CARBAPENEMS AND MONOBACTAMS
•Spectrum of activity
•Many Gram-negative and positive spp.
•E.g. impenem, Aztreonam.
•Some diseases that are treated with Carbapenems and monobactams
•Lower respiratory tract infections, Septicemia.

  1. GLYCOPEPTIDES
    •Spectrum of activity
    •Gram-positive spp
    •E.g. Vancomycin, teicoplanin, (daptomycin)
    •Some diseases that are treated with Glycopeptides:Clostridium difficile associated diarrhea ,endocarditis
25
Q

What are protein synthesis inhibitors
Bacterial ribosomes differ structurally from mammalian cytoplasmic ribosomes and are composed of 30S and 50S subunits (mammalian ribosomes have 40S and 60S subunits).
True or false
State the five groups under protein synthesis inhibitors of antimicrobial therapy
What is the spectrum of activity of tetracyclines?
Give two examples and state diseases treated w it

Spectrum of activity of aminoglycosides
Examples
Diseases treated w it

What is the spectrum of activity of macrolides?
Give two examples and state diseases treated w it

A

PHARMACOLOGICAL TREATMENT
●PROTEIN SYNTHESIS INHIBITORS
•These antibiotics exert their antimicrobial effects by targeting bacterial ribosomes and inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis.
•true

  1. Aminoglycosides
  2. Macrolides
  3. Lincosamides
  4. Amphenicols
  5. TETRACYCLINES
  • Spectrum of activity
  • Many Gram-negative and Gram-positive spp
  • E.g. Tetracycline, doxycycline.
  • Some diseases that are treated with Tetracyclines
  • Pneumonia, Skin infection, acne.

AMINOGLYCOSIDES
•Spectrum of activity
•Many Gram-negative, some Gram-positive spp.
•E.g. Gentamicin, neomycin.
•Some diseases that are treated with Aminoglycosides
•Sepsis, bacteremia

MACROLIDES
•Spectrum of activity
•Similar to penicillin
•E.g. Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin.
•Some diseases that are treated with Macrolides
•Pneumonia, chlamydia

26
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of lincosamides?
Give two examples and state diseases treated w it

What is the spectrum of activity of amphenicols?
Give two examples and state diseases treated w it

A
LINCOSAMIDES
•Spectrum of activity
•Gram-positive spp.
•E.g. Clindamycin
•Some diseases that are treated with Lincosamides
•Pneumonia caused by anthrax, acne
AMPHENICOLS
•Spectrum of activity
•Gram-negative and Gram-positive spp
•E.g. Chloramphenicol
•Some diseases that are treated with Amphenicol
•Bacterial conjunctivitis
•otitis externa
27
Q

State the group is drugs that inhibit essential metabolites such as folate ,spectrum of activity,examples and diseases treated w those drugs
Why do these drugs help w bacteria

A

INHIBITORS OF ESSENTIAL METABOLITES (FOLATE)
1. SULFONAMIDES
•Spectrum of activity
•Toxoplasma gondii, Pneumocystis jirovecii
•E.g. Trimethoprim, Sulfadiazine.
•Some diseases that are treated with Sulfonamides
Pneumonia in an immune compromised patient

Sulfonamide antibiotics work by interfering with folic acid synthesis in susceptible organisms, due to their structural similarity to para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) in bacterial cells.

sulfa drugs such as sulfonamides inhibit a critical enzyme–dihydropteroate synthase(this is what converts the PABA to folate) –in this process. Once the process is stopped, the bacteria can no longer grow.

28
Q

State the group is drugs that inhibit nucleic acid replication and transcription,how does this group of drugs work?,spectrum of activity,examples and diseases treated w those drugs

What are antimycobacterial drugs under pharmacological therapy of infectious diseases,spectrum of activity of these drugs
Examples
Diseases it treats

A

PHARMACOLOGICAL TREATMENT
●INHIBITION TO NUCLEIC ACID REPLICATION AND TRANSCRIPTION
1.QUINOLONES
Inhibition of DNA gyrase results in DNA strand breakage. Inhibition of topoisomerase IV interfers with the separation of newly replicated DNA
•Spectrum of activity
•Gram-negative and Gram-positive spp.
•E.g. Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin.
•Some diseases that are treated with Quinolones
•Tuberculosis

ANTIMYCOBACTERIAL
Some of these drugs (rifampicin) acts by binding to, and inhibiting, DNA dependent RNA polymerase in prokaryote.
Others are also bacteriostatic
•Spectrum of activity
•Most used for mycobacterial infections only
•E.g. isoniazid, rifampin(rifampicin).
•Some diseases that are treated with Antimycobacterials
•Mycobacterium tuberculosis

29
Q

Ansamycines are RNA synthesis inhibitors in bacteria true or false
True

ANTIFUNGAL THERAPY
•Because many infections are superficial, there are many topical preparations.
•Many antifungal agents are quite toxic, and when systemic therapy is required these agents must often be used under strict medical supervision.
True or false
What are the classifications of anti fungal therapy

State the groups of drugs under naturally occurring anti fungal as and give two examples of each and anti fungal spectrum or activity of each

A

True
True

CLASSIFICATION
.Synthetic fungal drugs and 
•Naturally occurring antifungal antibiotics:
A. POLYENES
I.Amphotericin B
II.Nystatin 

Antifungal activity /spectrum
•Amphotericin B and Nystatin binds to ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, increasing its permeability. This allows electrolytes(potassium) and small molecules to leak from the cell, resulting in cell death.
•Amphotericin B is used to treat urinary tract infection due to Candida albicans fungus, meningitis caused by Candida albicans fungus, a type of fungal lung infection called histoplasmosis etc.
•Nystatin is used to treat fungal infections of the mouth.

B. ECHINOCANDINS
I.Caspofungin
II.Anidulafungin
•Antifungal activity /spectrum
•The echinocandins inhibit the synthesis of 1, 3-β-glucan, an important component of fungal cell walls. This inhibition leads to cell rupture and death.
•Caspofungin is approved for deep and invasive candidiasis, esophageal candidiasis, candidemia(fungal infection in the blood)etc.
•Anidulafungin is used mainly for invasive candidiasis.

30
Q

State the groups of drugs under synthetic anti fungal as and give two examples of each and anti fungal spectrum or activity of each

A

SYNTHETIC DRUGS

A. AZOLES (predominantly fungistatic)
I.imidazoloes
•topical: clotrimazole, econazole
•systemic: ketoconazole
ii.    Triazoles (systemic): fluconazole, itraconazole 

•Antifungal activity /spectrum
•The azoles inhibit the fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme, thereby blocking the demethylation of lanosterol to ergosterol
This inhibits synthesis of the fungal cell membrane
Fluconazole can be used to treat fungal
Meningitis

TREATMENT
B. FLUORINATED PYRIMIDINES
I.Flucytosine

  • Antifungal activity /spectrum
  • It disrupt nucleic acid and protein synthesis
  • It is given in addition with amphotericin to prevent drug resistant in the treatment of severe systemic infections such as candidiasis and cryptococcal meningitis.
31
Q

State the eight classification of antiviral drugs under antiviral therapy
State theee examples of inhibitors of viral coat disassembly and neuraminidase inhibitors,their mode of action and the diseases they treat

State two groups of drugs under entry inhibitors ,two examples of entry inhibitors ,their mode of action and the diseases they treat

A
  1. INHIBITORS OF VIRAL COAT DISASSEMBLY AND NEURAMINIDASE INHIBITORS
  2. Nucleoside Reverse transcriptase inhibitor
  3. Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
  4. Integrase inhibitor
  5. Protease inhibitor
  6. Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor
  7. Biopharmaceuticals and immunomodulators
  8. Entry inhibitors

1.INHIBITORS OF VIRAL COAT DISASSEMBLY AND NEURAMINIDASE INHIBITORS
•Amantadine(block M2 ion channels)- Influenza A
•Zanamivir and Oseltamivir-(inhibits neuraminidase) - Influenza A and B

ANTIVIRAL THERAPY
A. ENTRY INHIBITORS
I.Chemokine receptor antagonist (CCR5)
•E.g. Maraviroc
•HIV (CCR5 dependent)
II. Inhibitor of HIV fusion with host cells
•E.g. Enfurvitide (antogonises the CD4 receptor )
•HIV, generally in combination with other retrovirals

32
Q

Give three examples of drugs under nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors ,two drugs they can be given in combination with and the diseases they treat

Give three examples of drugs under non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors ,two drugs they can be given in combination with and the diseases they treat

Give one example of drugs under integrase inhibitors ,how they act,two and the diseases they treat

Give three examples of drugs under protease inhibitors ,how they act,two and the diseases they treat

Give three example of drugs under viral DNA polymerase inhibitors that treat Herpes and three that treat CMG ,how they act,

Give one example of drugs under bio pharmaceuticals and immunomodulators that treat Hep B and C,Respiratory syncytial virus and herpes ,how they act,two and the diseases they treat

A

C.NUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS
•E.g. Zidovudine, Abacavir,didanosine, lamivudine,etc.
•Mainly HIV, generally in
•combination with other retrovirals
•Lamivudine,entecavir,adefovir,
entecavir, telbivudine-hepatitis B

D. NON-NUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS
•E.g. Efavirenz, nevirapine
•HIV, generally in combination with
other retrovirals.

TREATMENT
E. INTEGRASE INHIBITOR(block insertion of HIV DNA into CD4 cell DNA)
•E.g. Raltegravir
•HIV (unresponsive to other treatments)

TREATMENT
F. PROTEASE INHIBITORS(block new HIV from becoming mature HIV)
•E.g. Lopinavir, ritonavir, amprenavir, atazanavir, darunavir, indinavir, nelfinavir.
•HIV, generally in combination with other retrovirals

PHARMACOLOGICAL TREATMENT
G. VIRAL DNA POLYMERASE INHIBITORS
•E.g. Aciclovir, famciclovir, idoxuridine, penciclovir, valaciclovir –Herpes
•E.g. Cidofovir, foscarnet, ganciclovir, valganciclovir -Cytomegalovirus

H. BIOPHARMACEUTICALS AND IMMUNOMODULATORS
•E.g. Interferon-α, pegylated interferon-α-Hepatitis B and C
•E.g. Ribavirin, palivizumab -Respiratory syncytial virus
•E.g. Inosine prabonex –Herpes

: Immunomodulators are substances that can help support immune function by modifying, generally in a beneficial way, the immune system’s response to a threat.

Immunomodulatory molecules, some of which can be consumed through the diet, can help the body defend against pathogens by adjusting the normal immune response to respond more effectively when a pathogen has been detected.

33
Q

State one common parasite ploy and give an example
State the four principal protozoa infections under anti-protozoal therapy

Which amoeba causes amoebic dysentery and state three drugs shed ri treat it

Which flagellate causes sleeping sickness,which causes vaginitis,which causes diarrhea and steatorrhea ,which causes Kalaazar
State two drugs used to treat each of these diseases

Which ciliate causes pneumocystis pneumonia and state the drug that treats it

Which sporozoa causes each of these diseases: malignant tertian malaria,benign tertian malaria,
Quartan malaria,toxoplasmosis and state the drugs used to treat each of them

A

ANTIPROTOZOAL THERAPY
•Mammals have developed very efficient mechanisms for dealing with invading parasites but many parasites have, in turn, evolved clever tactics to evade these defensive responses. One common parasite ploy is to take refuge within the cells of the host, where antibodies cannot reach them.
•Most protozoa do this, for example Plasmodia species take up residence in red cells, Leishmania species infect macrophages exclusively, while Trypanosoma species invade many other cell types.

  1. Amoeba
  2. Flagellates
  3. Ciliates and others
  4. Sporozoa

Entamoeba histolytica
Metronidazole,Tinidazole,diloxanide

TREATMENT
B. FLAGELLATES
I.Trypanosoma rhodesiense/Trypanosoma gambiense- Sleeping sickness
•E.g. Suramin, pentamidine, melarpasol, eflornithine, nifurtimox
II. Trichomonas vaginalis-Vaginitis
•E.g. Metronidazole, tinidazole
III. Giardia lamblia-Diarhoea, steatorrhoea
•E.g. Metronidazole, tinidazole, mepacrine
IV. Leishmania tropical- Kala-azar(black fever)
•E.g. amphotericin.

C. CILIATES AND OTHERS
•Pneumocystis cariniia pneumonia or pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia:causes pneumocystis pneumonia
•E.g. Co-trimoxazole,

PHARMACOLOGICAL TREATMENT
D. SPOROZOA
I. Plasmodium falciparum- Malignant tertian(severe form) malaria
•E.g. Amodiaquine, artemisinin and derivatives
II. Plasmodium vivax and ovale - Benign tertian(acute self-limiting) malaria
•E.g. chloroquine, lumefantrine, doxycycline.
III. Plasmodium malarariae- Quartan (periodical)malaria
•E.g. sulfadoxine
IV. Toxoplasma gondii- Toxoplasmosis
•E.g. Pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine

34
Q

How do antihelminthic drugs act
How must a drug be effective against helminths?

State the five groups of helminths

Which roundworm causes ascariasis,taeniasis or cysticercosis,onchocerciasis or river blindness,dracunculiasis or guinea worm infection,lymphatic filariasis or elephantiasis and state the drugs used to treat each disease

A

ANTIHELMINTHS THERAPY
•Current anthelminthic drugs act either by paralyzing the parasite (e.g. by preventing muscular contraction), or by damaging the worm such that the immune system can eliminate it, or by altering its metabolism (e.g. by affecting microtubule function)
•To be effective, a drug must be able to penetrate the tough exterior cuticle of the worm or gain access to its alimentary tract

Roundworms
Pinworm
Blood flukes(schistosoma spp)
Cutaneous larva migrans 
Visceral larva migrans 

PRINCIPAL DRUGS USED IN HELMINTH INFECTIONS
1. ROUND WORM
I. Ascaris lumbricoides(common round worm)- Ascariasis
•E.g. Mebendazole
II.Tapeworm (Taenia saginata, Taenia solium) - taeniasis or cysticercosis
•E.g. Praziquantel
III. Onchocerca volvulus- Onchocerciasis (river blindness)
•E.g. Ivermectin
IV (Dracunculus medinensis) - Dracunculiasis (Guinea worm infection)
Eg:Praziquantel,mebendazole
Wuchereria bancrofti, Loa loa :lymphatic filariasis or elephantiasis
Eg:Ivermectin

35
Q

Which pinworm causes pinworm infections and strongyloidiasis and state the drugs used to treat them

State the four species of blood flukes and the drugs used to treat them

What cutaneous larva migrans causes human hookworm disease and state two drugs used to treat it

What visceral larva migrans causes toxocariasis and state the drug used to treat it

A

TREATMENT
2. PINWORM
I. Enterobius vermicularis – Pinworm infection
II. Strongyloides stercoralis- Strondyloidiasis
•E.g. Mebendazole, albendazole

  1. BLOOD FLUKES (SCHISTOSOMA SPP.)
    •S. haematobium, S. mansoni, S. japonicum- Schistosomiasis (bilharzia)
    •E.g. Praziquantel

CUTANEOUS LARVA MIGRANS
• Ankylostoma caninum – Human hookworm disease
•E.g. Albendazole, ivermectin.

5.VISCERAL LARVA MIGRANS
•Toxocara canis - toxocariasis
•E.g. Albendazole