reivew Flashcards

1
Q

question

A

answer

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2
Q

Vocational rehabilitation deals with

a. Teaching the disabled to earn a living
b. Teaching the disabled to take a shower
c. Teaching the disabled to use the ramps and elevator
d. Teaching the disabled to ask help from other people

A

a. Teaching the disabled to earn a living

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3
Q

The physical therapist

a. Makes exercises programs
b. Trains patient on ADL
c. Counsels patients
d. Prescribes appropriate exercise regimens and medication

A

a. Makes exercises programs

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4
Q

Which of the ff. is not a deep heating modality?

a. Ultrasound
b. Infrared
c. Shortwave
d. Microwave

A

b. Infrared

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5
Q

Defined as “ any restriction or lack resulting from an impairment of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being

a. Impairment
b. Handicap
c. Disability
d. None

A

c. Disability

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6
Q

Evaluates community resources, patients lifestyle and empowers access to the different resources available

a. Social worker
b. Psychologist
c. Occupational therapist
d. Recreational therapist

A

a. Social worker

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7
Q

Defined as slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder (less than half) of the range of motion:

a. 0
b. 3
c. 1+
d. 2

A

c. 1+

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8
Q

Which of the ff. is not included in the stance phase?

a. Initial contact
b. Deceleration
c. Terminal Stance
d. Toe off

A

b. Deceleration

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9
Q

When performing a range of motion test to the elbow muscles, you note full range of motion with gravity without resistance. You should grade it as:

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

b. 3

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10
Q

Which of the ff. environmental hardware are included in the activities of the daily living?

a. Vacuum cleaner
b. Refrigerator
c. Microwave oven
d. Keys

A

d. Keys

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11
Q

When contracting the muscle, the only thing happening is a gradual Internal reductions in muscle length with lengthening of elastic elements in series with the muscle. This contraction is:

a. Isokinet
b. Isometric
c. Concentric
d. Eccentric

A

b. Isometric

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12
Q

This type of thermal energy transfer uses a medium. Example of this is fluid therapy

a. Conduction
b. Radiation
c. Convection
d. Evaporation

A

c. Convection

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13
Q

Not true of Hot Packs

a. Contains silicone dioxide
b. Immersed in tanks with water heated to 74.5 degree C
c. Treatment time is usually 20 – 30 mins.
d. Transfer heat through Convection

A

d. Transfer heat through Convection

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14
Q

Application of the Paraffin wax is least likely to be

a. Through immersion
b. Through brushing
c. Through pouring
d. Through dipping

A

c. Through pouring

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15
Q

In cold compression units, the pressure inside the pneumatic sleeves will be as

a. 20 mmHg
b. 10 mmHg
c. 60 mmHg
d. 80 mmHg

A

c. 60 mmHg

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16
Q

Electrophoresis is beneficial to patients with regards to drug delivery because

a. Gastric ulcers are lessened
b. First pass effect is skipped
c. Allergy to medications are lessened
d. All

A

d. All

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17
Q

Most frequent side effect when using Iontophoresis

a. Miliarisis
b. Burn
c. Allergy
d. Shock

A

a. Miliarisis

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18
Q

Defined as Circular movements of one head, superimposed on the other, as a single hand, the knuckles, finger pads or the thumb compressing superficial soft tissues against the deeper ones

a. Wringing
b. Kneading
c. Rolling
d. Picking up

A

b. Kneading

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19
Q

The techniques uses cupping of hands while striking the body/ muscle

a. Clapping
b. Hacking
c. Beating
d. Pounding

A

a. Clapping

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20
Q

The ff. statements least likely describes fluidotherapy

a. Dry heating modality
b. Solid – gas mixture
c. Typical temp. range is 46.1 degree C to 48.9 degree C
d. Infected wound is an absolute contraindication

A

d. Infected wound is an absolute contraindication

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21
Q

Commonly used frequency in Short wave diathermy is

a. 37.12 Hz
b. 2456 MHz
c. 915 MHz
d. 27 MHz

A

d. 27 MHz

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22
Q

Which of the ff. is not a shoe component?

a. Shoe last
b. Tongue
c. Throat
d. Toe box

A

a. Shoe last

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23
Q

When trying to get the axis of rotation of the ankle joint for an ABO, the orthotist centers it at:

a. The lateral malleolus
b. The medial malleolus
c. The talotibial joint
d. The talocalcaneal joint

A

b. The medial malleolus

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24
Q

When checking out a HKAFO, the patient must be

a. Able to walk with hips past 90 degrees
b. Able to sit upright with hips past 90 degrees
c. Able to stand upright
d. Able to wear the orthosis standing up

A

b. Able to sit upright with hips past 90 degrees

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25
Q

Among the biomechanical considerations when making a WHO

a. The WHO must have its wrist component at 20 degree in flexion
b. The WHO must serve its purpose
c. The WHO must have its thumb component at 40 degrees abduction
d. The WHO must have the fingers pull towards the hamate bone

A

b. The WHO must serve its purpose

26
Q

An AFO with a posterior stop will

a. Assist the ankle into the dorsiflexion
b. Stop the ankle into dorsiflexion
c. Stop the ankle into plantarflexion
d. Assist the ankle into the plantarflexion

A

c. Stop the ankle into plantarflexion

27
Q

Transfemoral amputees due to buergers dse. Often

a. Have it’s oxygen consupsion increase by 55%
b. Have its oxygen consumption increase by 33%
c. Have its oxygen consumption increase by 87%
d. Have its oxygen consumption increase by 36%

A

c. Have its oxygen consumption increase by 87%

28
Q

Timing for a child to start getting accustomed to an upper extremity prosthesis is

a. 2 years old
b. 4 years old
c. 5 years old
d. Once the child starts to sit

A

d. Once the child starts to sit

29
Q

Among the different signs and symptoms of an amputee, this is often most problematic for pediatric amputee

a. Proprioception
b. Neuroma
c. Phantom limb syndrome
d. Bony outgrowth

A

d. Bony outgrowth

30
Q

Glasgow coma scale

a. Has the lowest score of 1
b. Usually done once the patient enters the emergency room
c. A score of 13 means moderate injury
d. Converses but disoriented merits a score of 4

A

b. Usually done once the patient enters the emergency room

31
Q

According to Glasgow outcome scale

a. A persistent vegetative state would merit a 2
b. Death merits a score of 5
c. Probable return to work with mild deficits a score of 4
d. All

A

b. Death merits a score of 5

32
Q

Most common cause of upper limb amputation is

a. Industrial accident
b. Vascular dse’s
c. Infection
d. Cancer

A

d. Cancer

33
Q

A knee disarticulation patient would likely require a

a. 4 bar link
b. Single axis knee
c. Pneumatic knee
d. Friction knee

A

b. Single axis knee

34
Q

The ff. are true gross prehension patterns except

a. Spherical grasp
b. Cylindrical grasp
c. Hook grasp
d. Conical grasp

A

c. Hook grasp

35
Q

The prehension pattern you would most likely use when opening a door with a key

a. Tip to tip
b. Three jaw chuck
c. Lateral pinch
d. Pad to pad

A

c. Lateral pinch

36
Q

The best prosthesis for a hip disarticulation patient is

a. Double walled socket, polycentric knee joint sack foot
b. Canadian bucket prostheses
c. Ischial containment socket, single axis knee joint, greissinger foot
d. None

A

b. Canadian bucket prostheses

37
Q

Rachet lock on a knee joint for a KAFO would

a. Allow motion only in one direction and prevent another
b. Allow motion only in specific range
c. Help the patient to remove the appliance
d. None

A

d. None

38
Q

A jewett brace

a. Is a CTLSO
b. Has a posterior pad
c. Prevents hyperextension
d. All

A

b. Has a posterior pad

39
Q

Hard collars

a. Restrict motion of flexion and extension
b. Restricts motion on lateral bending
c. Restricts motion of head rotation
d. None

A

a. Restrict motion of flexion and extension

40
Q

Gold standard for treatment of Scoliosis is

a. Boston body jacket
b. Milwaukee brace
c. Minerva brace
d. Yamamoto brace

A

b. Milwaukee brace

41
Q

A counterforce brace

a. Is used for knee injuries
b. Is used for lateral epicondylitis
c. Is used for dequervians’s tenovaginitis
d. None

A

b. Is used for lateral epicondylitis

42
Q

occupational therapist helps in driving assesment (T/F)

A

. True

43
Q

swing phase of the gait cycle includes toe off (T/F)

A

. True

44
Q

continuous traction is more more tolerable than intermittent traction (T/F)

A

. False

45
Q

shopping is an example of instrumental ADL (T/F)

A

. true

46
Q

infrared heating is an exampe of superficial heating (T/F)

A

. True

47
Q

the ashworth scale measures the tone changes in the muscle (T/F)

A

. True

48
Q

progressive resistance during exercise

. De lorne
. Oxford

A

. De Lorne

49
Q

capacitive short wave diathermy machines increases heat faster in water poor tissues (T/F)

A

. true

50
Q

increases heat faster in water rich tissue

. Capacitative
. Inductive

A

inductive

51
Q

What differentiates balmoral style from blucher style?

A

throat

52
Q

last is part of shoe (T/F)

A

. false

53
Q

a reflecting tongue in possible in a blucher shoe (T/F)

A

. true

54
Q

prescription shoes for pes planus include a medial arch support (T/F)

A

. True

55
Q

a straight set knee joint an help in preventing hyperextension of the knee (T/F)

A

. true

56
Q

a 49 yo man is seen in your clinic with Trendelenberg gait. You suspect weakness in which muscle?

. Gluteus maximus
. Quadratus lumborum
. Quadriceps
. Gluteus medius

A

. Gluteus medius

57
Q

in a transfemoral amputee, a circumducted gait pattern, on the prosthetic side, could be caused by which factor

A

long prosthetic limb

58
Q

what particular gait is most useful in pt with healing unilateral * limb fracture?

A

3 point gait

59
Q

What particular measurement is most appropriate for patients needing loftstrand crutches?

. Elbows flexed around 30 degrees
. Tip of crutch must be 10cm lateral to the small toe
. The top edge must be at least 4 cm inferior to the axilla
. The handle bars mus approximate the anterior superior iliac spine

A

. Elbows flexed around 30 degrees

60
Q

disadvantage of using a walker is

A

requires good grip

61
Q

the follow is used for deep heating

. Microwave
. Ultrasound
. Infrared
. Shortwave

A

ultrasound

62
Q

which is least likey to be used as a determinant of gait?

. Late knee flexion
. Early knee extension

A

. Early knee extension