Combo Flashcards
question
answer
Vocational rehabilitation deals with
a. Teaching the disabled to earn a living
b. Teaching the disabled to take a shower
c. Teaching the disabled to use the ramps and elevator
d. Teaching the disabled to ask help from other people
a. Teaching the disabled to earn a living
The physical therapist
a. Makes exercises programs
b. Trains patient on ADL
c. Counsels patients
d. Prescribes appropriate exercise regimens and medication
a. Makes exercises programs
Which of the ff. is not a deep heating modality?
a. Ultrasound
b. Infrared
c. Shortwave
d. Microwave
b. Infrared
Defined as “ any restriction or lack resulting from an impairment of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being
a. Impairment
b. Handicap
c. Disability
d. None
c. Disability
Evaluates community resources, patients lifestyle and empowers access to the different resources available
a. Social worker
b. Psychologist
c. Occupational therapist
d. Recreational therapist
a. Social worker
Defined as slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder (less than half) of the range of motion:
a. 0
b. 3
c. 1+
d. 2
c. 1+
Which of the ff. is not included in the stance phase?
a. Initial contact
b. Deceleration
c. Terminal Stance
d. Toe off
b. Deceleration
When performing a range of motion test to the elbow muscles, you note full range of motion with gravity without resistance. You should grade it as:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
b. 3
Which of the ff. environmental hardware are included in the activities of the daily living?
a. Vacuum cleaner
b. Refrigerator
c. Microwave oven
d. Keys
d. Keys
When contracting the muscle, the only thing happening is a gradual Internal reductions in muscle length with lengthening of elastic elements in series with the muscle. This contraction is:
a. Isokinet
b. Isometric
c. Concentric
d. Eccentric
b. Isometric
This type of thermal energy transfer uses a medium. Example of this is fluid therapy
a. Conduction
b. Radiation
c. Convection
d. Evaporation
c. Convection
Not true of Hot Packs
a. Contains silicone dioxide
b. Immersed in tanks with water heated to 74.5 degree C
c. Treatment time is usually 20 – 30 mins.
d. Transfer heat through Convection
d. Transfer heat through Convection
Application of the Paraffin wax is least likely to be
a. Through immersion
b. Through brushing
c. Through pouring
d. Through dipping
c. Through pouring
In cold compression units, the pressure inside the pneumatic sleeves will be as
a. 20 mmHg
b. 10 mmHg
c. 60 mmHg
d. 80 mmHg
c. 60 mmHg
Electrophoresis is beneficial to patients with regards to drug delivery because
a. Gastric ulcers are lessened
b. First pass effect is skipped
c. Allergy to medications are lessened
d. All
d. All
Most frequent side effect when using Iontophoresis
a. Miliarisis
b. Burn
c. Allergy
d. Shock
a. Miliarisis
Defined as Circular movements of one head, superimposed on the other, as a single hand, the knuckles, finger pads or the thumb compressing superficial soft tissues against the deeper ones
a. Wringing
b. Kneading
c. Rolling
d. Picking up
b. Kneading
The techniques uses cupping of hands while striking the body/ muscle
a. Clapping
b. Hacking
c. Beating
d. Pounding
a. Clapping
The ff. statements least likely describes fluidotherapy
a. Dry heating modality
b. Solid – gas mixture
c. Typical temp. range is 46.1 degree C to 48.9 degree C
d. Infected wound is an absolute contraindication
d. Infected wound is an absolute contraindication
Commonly used frequency in Short wave diathermy is
a. 37.12 Hz
b. 2456 MHz
c. 915 MHz
d. 27 MHz
d. 27 MHz
Which of the ff. is not a shoe component?
a. Shoe last
b. Tongue
c. Throat
d. Toe box
a. Shoe last
When trying to get the axis of rotation of the ankle joint for an ABO, the orthotist centers it at:
a. The lateral malleolus
b. The medial malleolus
c. The talotibial joint
d. The talocalcaneal joint
b. The medial malleolus
When checking out a HKAFO, the patient must be
a. Able to walk with hips past 90 degrees
b. Able to sit upright with hips past 90 degrees
c. Able to stand upright
d. Able to wear the orthosis standing up
b. Able to sit upright with hips past 90 degrees
Among the biomechanical considerations when making a WHO
a. The WHO must have its wrist component at 20 degree in flexion
b. The WHO must serve its purpose
c. The WHO must have its thumb component at 40 degrees abduction
d. The WHO must have the fingers pull towards the hamate bone
b. The WHO must serve its purpose
An AFO with a posterior stop will
a. Assist the ankle into the dorsiflexion
b. Stop the ankle into dorsiflexion
c. Stop the ankle into plantarflexion
d. Assist the ankle into the plantarflexion
c. Stop the ankle into plantarflexion
Transfemoral amputees due to buergers dse. Often
a. Have it’s oxygen consupsion increase by 55%
b. Have its oxygen consumption increase by 33%
c. Have its oxygen consumption increase by 87%
d. Have its oxygen consumption increase by 36%
c. Have its oxygen consumption increase by 87%
Timing for a child to start getting accustomed to an upper extremity prosthesis is
a. 2 years old
b. 4 years old
c. 5 years old
d. Once the child starts to sit
d. Once the child starts to sit
Among the different signs and symptoms of an amputee, this is often most problematic for pediatric amputee
a. Proprioception
b. Neuroma
c. Phantom limb syndrome
d. Bony outgrowth
d. Bony outgrowth
Glasgow coma scale
a. Has the lowest score of 1
b. Usually done once the patient enters the emergency room
c. A score of 13 means moderate injury
d. Converses but disoriented merits a score of 4
b. Usually done once the patient enters the emergency room
According to Glasgow outcome scale
a. A persistent vegetative state would merit a 2
b. Death merits a score of 5
c. Probable return to work with mild deficits a score of 4
d. All
b. Death merits a score of 5
Most common cause of upper limb amputation is
a. Industrial accident
b. Vascular dse’s
c. Infection
d. Cancer
d. Cancer
A knee disarticulation patient would likely require a
a. 4 bar link
b. Single axis knee
c. Pneumatic knee
d. Friction knee
b. Single axis knee
The ff. are true gross prehension patterns except
a. Spherical grasp
b. Cylindrical grasp
c. Hook grasp
d. Conical grasp
c. Hook grasp
The prehension pattern you would most likely use when opening a door with a key
a. Tip to tip
b. Three jaw chuck
c. Lateral pinch
d. Pad to pad
c. Lateral pinch
The best prosthesis for a hip disarticulation patient is
a. Double walled socket, polycentric knee joint sack foot
b. Canadian bucket prostheses
c. Ischial containment socket, single axis knee joint, greissinger foot
d. None
b. Canadian bucket prostheses
Rachet lock on a knee joint for a KAFO would
a. Allow motion only in one direction and prevent another
b. Allow motion only in specific range
c. Help the patient to remove the appliance
d. None
d. None
A jewett brace
a. Is a CTLSO
b. Has a posterior pad
c. Prevents hyperextension
d. All
b. Has a posterior pad
Hard collars
a. Restrict motion of flexion and extension
b. Restricts motion on lateral bending
c. Restricts motion of head rotation
d. None
a. Restrict motion of flexion and extension
Gold standard for treatment of Scoliosis is
a. Boston body jacket
b. Milwaukee brace
c. Minerva brace
d. Yamamoto brace
b. Milwaukee brace
A counterforce brace
a. Is used for knee injuries
b. Is used for lateral epicondylitis
c. Is used for dequervians’s tenovaginitis
d. None
b. Is used for lateral epicondylitis
occupational therapist helps in driving assesment (T/F)
. True
swing phase of the gait cycle includes toe off (T/F)
. True
continuous traction is more more tolerable than intermittent traction (T/F)
. False
shopping is an example of instrumental ADL (T/F)
. true
infrared heating is an exampe of superficial heating (T/F)
. True
the ashworth scale measures the tone changes in the muscle (T/F)
. True
progressive resistance during exercise
. De lorne
. Oxford
. De Lorne
capacitive short wave diathermy machines increases heat faster in water poor tissues (T/F)
. true
increases heat faster in water rich tissue
. Capacitative
. Inductive
inductive
What differentiates balmoral style from blucher style?
throat
last is part of shoe (T/F)
. false
a reflecting tongue in possible in a blucher shoe (T/F)
. true
prescription shoes for pes planus include a medial arch support (T/F)
. True
a straight set knee joint an help in preventing hyperextension of the knee (T/F)
. true
a 49 yo man is seen in your clinic with Trendelenberg gait. You suspect weakness in which muscle?
. Gluteus maximus
. Quadratus lumborum
. Quadriceps
. Gluteus medius
. Gluteus medius
in a transfemoral amputee, a circumducted gait pattern, on the prosthetic side, could be caused by which factor
long prosthetic limb
what particular gait is most useful in pt with healing unilateral * limb fracture?
3 point gait
What particular measurement is most appropriate for patients needing loftstrand crutches?
. Elbows flexed around 30 degrees
. Tip of crutch must be 10cm lateral to the small toe
. The top edge must be at least 4 cm inferior to the axilla
. The handle bars mus approximate the anterior superior iliac spine
. Elbows flexed around 30 degrees
disadvantage of using a walker is
requires good grip
the follow is used for deep heating
. Microwave
. Ultrasound
. Infrared
. Shortwave
ultrasound
which is least likey to be used as a determinant of gait?
. Late knee flexion
. Early knee extension
. Early knee extension
question
answer
In patients aged 15 to 50, what is the most common cause of lower extremity amputation?
A) Trauma
B) Cancer
C) Infection
D) Vascular disease
A) Trauma
In general, what is the most common type of amputation seen among new amputees?
A) Transfemoral
B) Syme’s
C) Transtibial
D) Hip disarticulation
C) Transtibial
The most common type of amputation is a transtibial or below knee amputation (BKA). Transfemoral or above knee amputations are approximately half as common as BKA, whereas Syme’s (ankle disarticulation) and hip disarticulation are very uncommon.
In a standard transtibial amputation, the amputation is approximately what percentage of the tibial length?
A) < 20
B) 20 to 50
C) > 50
D) > 75
B) 20 to 50
A standard transtibial amputation is 20% to 50% of the tibial length. A long transtibial is > 50% of the tibial length, whereas a short transtibial amputation is < 20% of the tibial length
Which of the following is an amputation at the tarsometatarsal junction?
A) Transmetatarsal
B) Syme’s
C) Lisfranc
D) Chopart
C) Lisfranc
. Transmetatarsal - midsection of all metatarsals
. Syme’s - ankle disarticulation
with attachment of heel pad to distal end of the tibia
. Chopart - midtarsal amputation where
only the talus and calcaneus remain
What is the ideal shape for a transtibial residual limb?
A) Rectangular
B) Conical
C) Pyramidal
D) Cylindrical
D) Cylindrical
. Conical is best after a transfemoral amputation
In the postoperative management of the residual limb a “shrinker” should be worn for
how many hours out of the day?
A) 24
B) 12
C) 8
D) Shrinkers are not utilized after amputation
A) 24
Which of the following would be acceptable in contracture prevention for the transtibial amputee?
A) Sitting with the knee extended on a towel-wrapped board under the wheelchair cushion
B) Sitting with the residual limb hanging over the edge of the bed
C) Sitting with a pillow placed under the knee
D) Sitting with a pillow placed between the legs
A) Sitting with the knee extended on a towel-wrapped board under the wheelchair cushion
All others would lead to either knee flexion or hip flexion contractures.
All of the following are components of a transtibial prosthesis except:
A) Socket
B) Rotor
C) Shank
D) Suspension
B) Rotor
All of the following are pressure-tolerant areas for a below knee amputation prosthetic
except:
A) Patellar tendon
B) Medial tibial flare
C) Fibular head
D) Popliteal fossa—gastrocsoleus muscles
C) Fibular head
reliefs must be built into this
area in order to ensure that skin breakdown or damage to the peroneal nerve does not
occur
Which is not a pressure-sensitive area in regard to lower extremity prosthetics?
A) Pretibial muscles
B) Hamstring tendons
C) Patella
D) Distal tibia
A) Pretibial muscles
Which of the following prosthetic foot is the most affordable?
A) Multiaxis foot
B) Solid ankle cushion heel (SACH)
C) Energy storing
D) Single-axis foot
B) Solid ankle cushion heel (SACH)
The single-axis foot permits movement of the foot-ankle complex in the plantar flexion/dorsifl exion axis, whereas the multiaxis foot allows some controlled movement in the normal anatomic planes (plantar flexion, dorsiflexion, inversion, eversion, and rotation).
Which of the following prosthetic options would allow for participations in most vigorous sports?
A) Flex-foot
B) Single-axis foot
C) Rigid keel
D) Multiaxis foot
A) Flex-foot
Tenderness on the anterior distal femur, lateral lurch when walking, and increased skin irritation at the ischium and pubis are all disadvantages of which above knee amputation socket?
A) Narrow mediolateral
B) Ischial containment
C) Contoured Adductor Trochanteric-controlled Alignment Method (CAT-CAM)
D) Quadrilateral transfemoral
D) Quadrilateral transfemoral
The Silesian belt, total elastic suspension belt, and pelvic band are all types of suspension for which type of prosthesis?
A) Below knee amputation (transtibial)
B) Above knee amputation (transfemoral)
C) Hip disarticulation
D) Syme’s amputation
B) Above knee amputation (transfemoral)
Other suspension systems for the transfemoral prosthesis include the suction socket (total suction vs. partial suction) and gel liners with a pin or strap.
Which of the following knee units cannot be used in someone with bilateral transfemoral amputee?
A) Polycentric/four-bar knee
B) Manual locking knee
C) Stance control knee
D) Fluid controlled knee unit
C) Stance control knee
Brawny edema, induration, and discoloration of the skin of the distal stump in a circular shape may indicate which dermatologic complication in an amputee?
A) Allergic dermatitis
B) Epidermoid cyst
C) Folliculitis
D) Choked stump syndrome
D) Choked stump syndrome
This may result when the residual limb becomes too large to fi t properly in the total contact socket. The socket will become too tight proximally and therefore obstruct venous outfl ow. An edematous distal residual limb will result. Folliculitis, cysts, and dermatitis are all potential complications of a prosthesis, yet do not result in edema and induration.
Which dermatologic complication results from inadequate socket wall contact with subsequent edema formation causing wart-like skin overgrowth?
A) Tinea corporis
B) Verrucous hyperplasia
C) Hyperhidrosis
D) Folliculitis
B) Verrucous hyperplasia
Tinea corporis mainly results from sweating and can be prevented and treated with good socket hygiene and antifungal medications. Hyperhidrosis
may cause maceration of the skin, which predisposes the skin to infection. Folliculitis is
an infection of the hair root resulting from poor hygiene, sweating, and either pistoning
or poor socket fi t.
Which of the following describes an awareness of a nonpainful sensation in the amputated part?
A) Allodynia
B) Phantom pain
C) Hyperalgesia
D) Phantom sensation
D) Phantom sensation
All of the following are reasonable pharmacologic interventions for the treatment of phantom pain except:
A) Tricyclic antidepressants
B) Serotonin reuptake inhibitors
C) Narcotics
D) Anticonvulsants
C) Narcotics
In addition to the other answers, norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors, calcitonin, capsaicin, and propranolol are reasonable pharmacologic medical interventions
When compared with normal walking without a prosthesis or assistive device, which condition requires the greatest increase in energy expenditure?
A) Transtibial amputation
B) Transfemoral amputation
C) Bilateral transtibial
D) Wheelchair use
B) Transfemoral amputation - 99%
transtibial - 23%
bilateral transtibial - 41%
wheelchair - 9%
Which type of amputee will expend the most energy when being compared with normal walking?
A) Transfemoral-transtibial
B) Bilateral transtibial
C) Transfemoral with use of crutch
D) Transfemoral
A) Transfemoral-transtibial - 118%
bilateral transtibial - 41%
transfemoral with use of a crutch - 92%
unilateral transfemoral - 99%
What will be the result of a heel cushion that is too soft, or a prosthetic foot in excessive plantarflexion?
A) Excessive knee flexion
B) Insufficient knee flexion
C) Excessive knee extension
D) Insufficient knee extension
B) Insufficient knee flexion
In describing prosthetic feet, what does SACH stand for?
A) Solid action cushioned heel
B) Single-axis ankle cooperative heel
C) Single assembly coordinated heel
D) Solid ankle cushioned heel
D) Solid ankle cushioned heel
It is the most commonly used prosthetic foot.
In terms of gait analysis for the transtibial amputee, which is the cause of high pressure against the patella throughout most of the stance phase as well as the heel being off the floor when standing?
A) Foot too far posterior
B) Foot too dorsiflexed
C) Foot too plantar-flexed
D) Foot too far anterior
C) Foot too plantar-flexed
Which of the following is not a cause for a circumducted gait in a transfemoral amputee with a prosthesis?
A) Prosthesis is too long
B) Inadequate suspension
C) Abduction contracture of the residual limb
D) Too much adduction built into the prosthesis
D) Too much adduction built into the prosthesis
The surgical removal of the entire lower limb plus all or a major portion of the ileum is known as what type of amputation?
A) Hemipelvectomy
B) Hip disarticulation
C) Boyd amputation
D) Pirogoff amputation
A) Hemipelvectomy
Which amputation allows a patient to stand easily and walk on the end of the residual limb without wearing a prosthesis for short household distances?
A) Long transtibial
B) Syme’s
C) Short transtibial
D) Hemicorporectomy
B) Syme’s
What is the most common congenital upper extremity limb deficiency?
A) Transradial
B) Transhumeral
C) Absence of ulna
D) Absence of carpal, metacarpals, phalanges
A) Transradial
What is the leading cause of acquired amputation in the upper extremity?
A) Cancer
B) Diabetes
C) Trauma
D) Burns
C) Trauma
What is the definition of a prosthesis?
A) An artificial substitute for a missing body part
B) An external device applied to intact body parts to provide support
C) A brace
D) A device used to assist with balance
A) An artificial substitute for a missing body part
What is the most commonly used type of terminal device in the upper extremity?
A) Passive
B) Voluntary closing (VC)
C) Voluntary opening (VO)
D) Myoelectric
C) Voluntary opening (VO)
What is the most commonly used suspension for a transradial amputee?
A) Suction
B) Figure 8 (O ring) harness
C) Figure 9 harness
D) Chest strap with shoulder saddle
B) Figure 8 (O ring) harness
Why is a disarticulation (separation at the joint level) of upper extremity amputation preferred in children?
A) More cosmetic
B) Preserves epiphyses
C) Easier to fi t with a prosthesis
D) Easier to perform activities of daily living (ADLs)
B) Preserves epiphyses
What is a congenital terminal limb deficiency?
A) A deficiency in the long axis
B) A deficiency in the short or transverse axis
C) A deficiency of both long and short axes
D) An absence of a joint
B) A deficiency in the short or transverse axis
intercalary defi ciency describes a limb defi ciency in the long axis where normal skeletal elements may be present distal to the affected segment
Which of the following acquired upper extremity amputations is the most common in the USA?
A) Above the elbow/transhumeral
B) Below the elbow/transradial
C) Wrist disarticulation
D) Shoulder disarticulation
B) Below the elbow/transradial
What is a forequarter amputation?
A) Involves removal of part of the humerus
B) Involves removal of part of the radius and ulna
C) Involves removal of the entire humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges
D) Involves removal of the scapula, part or all of the clavicle, entire humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges
D) Involves removal of the scapula, part or all of the clavicle, entire humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges
What does the term prehensile refer to?
A) Balance
B) Grasp by wrapping around
C) Weakness in the arm
D) Apprehension
B) Grasp by wrapping around
How is myodesis different from myoplasty?
A) Myodesis refers to suturing agonist-antagonist muscles to each other
B) Myoplasty refers to suturing agonist-antagonist muscles to each other
C) Myodesis refers to directly suturing residual muscle or tendon to bone/periosteum
D) Both B and C are correct
D) Both B and C are correct
Myoplasty refers to suturing agonist-antagonist muscles to each other. Myodesis refers to directly suturing residual muscle or tendon to bone/periosteum.
In order to increase the likelihood of prosthetic use, how soon after surgery should an upper limb amputee be fi tted with a prosthesis?
A) Immediately after surgery, within the first week
B) 3 to 6 months after surgery
C) 12 months after surgery
D) At least 2 years after surgery
B) 3 to 6 months after surgery
Which of the following is not an immediate goal of rehabilitation care after amputation?
A) Wound healing
B) Edema control
C) Prevention of contractures
D) Treadmill training
D) Treadmill training
What is the difference between phantom sensation and phantom pain?
A) Phantom pain is pain perceived in the intact part of the limb
B) Phantom pain is the same as phantom sensation
C) Phantom sensation is nonpainful perceptions of the missing part of the limb
D) Phantom sensation is painful perceptions of the missing part of the limb
C) Phantom sensation is nonpainful perceptions of the missing part of the limb
What is the best of type medication for the treatment of phantom pain?
A) Opioid
B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
C) Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)
D) Acetaminophen
C) Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)
Which of the following is true about amputee patients?
A) It is ok to delay a visit to the rehabilitation physician and prosthetic team until 6 months postamputation
B) It is best for the patient to be seen by the rehabilitation physician and prosthetic team prior to surgery
C) It is best for the patient to be seen by the rehabilitation physician and prosthetic team 2 to 4 weeks after surgery
D) It is best for the patient to be seen by the rehabilitation physician and prosthetic team only after the residual limb has healed
B) It is best for the patient to be seen by the rehabilitation physician and prosthetic team prior to surgery
Which of the following is important in the acute post-op period for the new amputee?
A) Psychological counseling
B) Skin desensitization
C) Pain management
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
What is the name for the amputation that removes the entire radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges?
A) Below the elbow
B) Above the elbow
C) Mid elbow
D) Elbow disarticulation
D) Elbow disarticulation
What is the preferred term for the remaining portion of the limb after amputation?
A) Residual limb
B) Stump
C) Stub
D) Post-surgical limb
A) Residual limb
How often does a prosthesis need to be replaced in a child age 0 to 5?
A) Every 6 months
B) Every 12 months
C) Every 18 months
D) Every 24 months
B) Every 12 months
Which of the following is not a common dermatological problem in patients with prosthetic devices?
A) Hyperhidrosis
B) Folliculitis
C) Skin breakdown
D) All of the above are common
D) All of the above are common
Which of the following is not a type of terminal device in upper limb prosthetics?
A) Mechanical
B) Electrical
C) Passive
D) Piston
D) Piston
Which of the following is true about joint contractures after amputation surgery?
A) Prevention is harder than treatment
B) It is ok to wait to prevent joint contractures until many weeks after amputation surgery
C) It will not increase the patient’s risk of contracture if there is a burn present
D) In the case of a concomitant nerve injury, passive and assisted range of motion should be implemented to preserve joint mobility
D) In the case of a concomitant nerve injury, passive and assisted range of motion should
be implemented to preserve joint mobility
What is a benefi t of elbow disarticulation surgery as opposed to transradial or transhumeral?
A) Less blood loss
B) More blood loss
C) Longer surgery time
D) Better cosmesis and prosthetic fit
A) Less blood loss
What is true about edema as a complication following amputation surgery?
A) It is an uncommon complication
B) A fi gure 8 dressing should not be used
C) The ideal shape of the residual limb in the upper extremity is cylindrical
D) It is ok to re-wrap the residual limb every 24 hours to provide optimum edema control
C) The ideal shape of the residual limb in the upper extremity is cylindrical
Which is a benefi t of an immediate post-op rigid dressing (IPORD)?
A) Desensitization of the residual limb
B) Control edema
C) Protection of the residual limb
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Which of the following is not a key function of the prosthetic socket?
A) Adequate cosmesis
B) Secure suspension of prosthesis
C) Effi cient energy transference to the prosthesis
D) Grasp objects
D) Grasp objects
Which of the following body actions will not activate the terminal device on an upper
extremity prosthetic?
A) Scapular abduction
B) Shoulder extension
C) Chest expansion
D) Humeral flexion
B) Shoulder extension
What could be considered a positive aspect of a child with a congenital limb deficiency?
A) The prosthesis is perceived as an aid rather than a replacement
B) The child does not usually experience a sense of loss since the limb was absent from birth
C) The child does not put limitations on oneself
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
What is the natural position caused by the resting muscle tension of the hand?
A) Wrist flexed, metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint fl xed, proximal interphalangeal (PIP)
joint flexed, distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint flexed
B) Wrist extended, MCP extended, PIP flexed, DIP flexed
C) Wrist flexed, MCP extended, PIP flexed, DIP flexed
D) Wrist extended, MCP extended, PIP extended, DIP extended
C) Wrist flexed, MCP extended, PIP flexed, DIP flexed
What is the “safe” position of the hand?
A) Wrist extended, metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint flexed, proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint extended, distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint extended
B) Wrist flexed, MCP flexed, PIP flexed, DIP flexed
C) Wrist extended, MCP extended, PIP extended, DIP extended
D) Wrist flexed, MCP extended, PIP flexed, DIP flexed
A) Wrist extended, metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint flexed, proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint extended, distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint extended
Which hand pattern is useful for carrying heavy objects?
A) Power grasp
B) Oppositional pinch
C) Hook pattern
D) Precision grasp
C) Hook pattern
Oppositional pinch is a good compromise for fine precision pinch and lateral pinch.
Hook pattern is useful for carrying heavy objects such as weights or bags.
Which type of orthotic hand support uses nonelastic components such as hinges, screws, and turn buckles to place a force on the joint to induce change and eventually increase range of motion?
A) Serial static splint
B) Static progressive
C) Continuous passive motion orthosis
D) Adaptive usage splint
B) Static progressive
What type of splint is a gel shell splint?
A) Static
B) Dynamic
C) Nonarticular
D) Adaptive
C) Nonarticular
What type of splint is a swan neck splint?
A) Static motion blocking
B) Static progressive
C) Serial static
D) Nonarticular
A) Static motion blocking
A patient presents with wrist pain. He has pain when gripping a cup handle. You notice a positive Finkelstein test. What brace would you recommend for this patient?
A) Volar wrist splint
B) Radial nerve palsy splint
C) Resting hand splint
D) Thumb spica splint
D) Thumb spica splint
The patient has de Quervain’s tenosynovitis.
What type of injury is lateral epicondylitis?
A) Tendonitis
B) Tenosynovitis
C) Enthesopathy
D) Sprain
C) Enthesopathy
With finger sprains, what is the best position for the digits?
A) Proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) flexed, allowed distal interphalangeal joint (DIP) flexion
B) PIP extended, allowed DIP flexion
C) PIP flexed, DIP fixed extended
D) PIP extended, DIP fixed extended
B) PIP extended, allowed DIP flexion
What type of splint would you use on a boxer’s fracture?
A) Stax splint
B) Resting hand splint
C) Ulnar gutter splint
D) Wrist splint
C) Ulnar gutter splint
A patient with a C6 level spinal cord injury would find this splint useful to help pick small objects up using a three jaw chuck pinch:
A) Kleinert splint
B) Adaptive usage device splint
C) Dynamic splint
D) Rehabilitation Institute of Chicago tenodesis splint
D) Rehabilitation Institute of Chicago tenodesis splint
This device is used for cubital tunnel syndrome:
A) Long arm splint
B) Flail arm splint
C) Elbow flexion splint
D) Elbow extension splint
A) Long arm splint
C and D are both mobilization splints. A flail arm splint is used for someone with a brachial plexus injury.
This splint is useful after repair of the flexor hand tendons and allows for passive flexion of the digits at rest and active finger extension at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints:
A) Dynamic finger flexion splint forearm based
B) Dynamic finger flexion splint hand based
C) Kleinert splint
D) Duran splint
C) Kleinert splint
Which one of these functions are monkeys not able to do?
A) Palmar prehension
B) Hook prehension
C) Cylindrical grasp
D) Monkeys can perform all the above
A) Palmar prehension
Which one of these hand functions would a monkey be able to perform?
A) Give an “OK” sign
B) Hold onto a hand rail
C) Turn a key in a lock
D) Hold onto a baseball and throw it with one hand
B) Hold onto a hand rail
This device holds the arm in abduction to help prevent contractures after an axillary burn or ensure healing after a shoulder fusion:
A) Airplane splint
B) Shoulder sling
C) Jewett brace
D) Balanced forearm orthosis
A) Airplane splint
Which hand orthosis employs wrist extension for closing the hand?
A) Wrist hand orthosis
B) Wrist orthosis
C) Tenodesis orthosis
D) Kleinert orthosis
C) Tenodesis orthosis
What is the longest leg length discrepancy that would not need correction?
A) 1/4 inch
B) 1/2 inch
C) 1 inch
D) 2 inch
B) 1/2 inch
A patient with a leg length discrepancy needs a 1-inch heel lift. How high should the outer sole be?
A) 1/4 inch
B) 1/2 inch
C) 3/4 inch
D) 1 inch
B) 1/2 inch
A patient has a weakened peroneus longus muscles. What kind of foot orthotic should be placed in his shoe to prevent his ankle from rolling?
A) Medial wedge
B) Lateral wedge
C) Heel cushion
D) Rocker bar
B) Lateral wedge
Which of these are considerations for an orthosis to prevent diabetic foot ulcers?
A) Provide relief for bony prominences
B) Reduce heat build up
C) Reduce shear forces
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Which of these devices assists with plantar flexion?
A) Anterior stop
B) Posterior stop
C) Anterior spring
D) Posterior spring
C) Anterior spring
Which one of these is an indication for using an ankle foot orthosis (AFO) to improve a patient’s gait?
A) Amputation of the great toe
B) Weak push off at late stance phase
C) Anteroposterior instability at the ankle
D) Foot fracture
B) Weak push off at late stance phase
Which type of ankle foot orthosis (AFO) is used when clonus is present at the ankle?
A) Solid AFO
B) Posterior assist
C) Anterior assist
D) All of the above
A) Solid AFO
Which of the following is an ankle foot orthosis (AFO) with the footplate set in slight plantar flexion to help with stability at the knee during full extension for patients with weak quadriceps?
A) Posterior assist AFO
B) Posterior stop AFO
C) Anterior stop AFO
D) Floor reaction AFO
D) Floor reaction AFO
Which ankle foot orthosis (AFO) can be used for someone with a foot drop and weak quadriceps?
A) AFO with posterior foot stop
B) Solid AFO
C) AFO with posterior stop with a Klenzak joint
D) Solid AFO with anterior and posterior stops
C) AFO with posterior stop with a Klenzak joint
Answer option A would be good for a foot drop, but would not address the weak quadriceps. Answer option B is useful for pain with ankle motion. Answer option D is useful for weak plantar flexors.
A patient wearing a new ankle foot orthotic (AFO) starts complaining of numbness on his foot. He says that it feels a little tight on the upper part of the orthosis. You notice that the top of the AFO is at the level of the fi bular head. What can you suggest to this patient?
A) Widen the upper brim of the orthosis
B) Add some padding to the upper brim
C) Find another orthotist
D) Adjust the AFO by taking away 1 inch from the upper brim
D) Adjust the AFO by taking away 1 inch from the upper brim
How is the hip placed in an orthosis for someone with Legg–Calve–Perthes (LCP) disease?
A) Abduction and external rotation
B) Adduction and internal rotation
C) Abduction and internal rotation
D) Adduction and external rotation
A) Abduction and external rotation
What can be placed on an ankle foot orthotic (AFO) for someone with weak mediolateral ankle instability?
A) Double metal upright
B) T strap
C) B strap
D) A and B
D) A and B
What type of T strap is used for someone with a valgus ankle deformity?
A) Medial T strap
B) Lateral T strap
C) Superior T strap
D) Posterior T strap
A) Medial T strap
What would you not tell a paraplegic patient who is inquiring about using a knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO)?
A) Using a KAFO requires a lot of energy
B) Your KAFO can replace your wheelchair as your primary means of locomotion in time
C) You should use forearm crutches while walking with a KAFO
D) Ambulation with a KAFO uses a swing through gait
B) Your KAFO can replace your wheelchair as your primary means of locomotion in time
Which orthosis is useful for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears or post-op repair?
A) Cho-pat strap
B) Swedish knee cage
C) Craig Scott orthosis
D) Lenox Hill de-rotation orthosis
D) Lenox Hill de-rotation orthosis
Where is the ground reaction force (GRF) placed with an offset knee joint on a knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO)?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Anterior
D) Posterior
C) Anterior
A patient presents with knee pain. She tells you she just started running again recently. You find that she has patellar tracking disorder. What orthotic do you suggest she use while she is running?
A) Moonboots
B) Cho-pat strap
C) Lenox Hill de-rotation orthosis
D) Bledsoe brace
B) Cho-pat strap
Which one of these does not promote knee extension?
A) Cushioned heel
B) Ankle plantar fl exion
C) Anterior ground reactive force
D) Posterior stop
D) Posterior stop
You notice that your patient has a valgus deformity at the ankle when he walks. What adjustments to his shoe can you suggest so that his gait is more stable?
A) Cushioned heel
B) Medial heel flare
C) Lateral heel flare
D) Heel lift
B) Medial heel flare
A patient has weak plantar fl exors. What adjustments to his shoes can you make to assist him?
A) A rocker bar at the sole of the shoe
B) Thomas orthopedic heel
C) Medial sole and heel wedging
D) Reverse Thomas heel
A) A rocker bar at the sole of the shoe
Which of the following does not promote knee fl exion?
A) Cushioned heel
B) Posterior stop
C) Posterior ground reactive force
D) Ankle dorsifl exion
A) Cushioned heel
What adjustments to the shoe would be good for a patient with pes planus?
A) Lateral sole flare
B) Thomas heel
C) Reverse Thomas heel
D) Rocker bottom sole
B) Thomas heel
Which is a potential complications of spinal orthoses?
A) Skin ulcers
B) Weakening of axial muscles
C) Physical and psychological dependence
D) All the above
D) All the above
Which spinal segment has the greatest range of motion?
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Sacral
A) Cervical
Where does most of cervical rotation occur?
A) C1-C2
B) C3-C4
C) C4-C5
D) C6-C7
A) C1-C2
Where does the greatest amount of cervical flexion occur?
A) C2-C3
B) C3-C4
C) C5-C6
D) C6-C7
C) C5-C6
Which lumbar segment is the most mobile?
A) L2-L3
B) L4-L5
C) L3-L4
D) L1-L2
B) L4-L5
Which of the following cervical orthosis does not limit rotation?
A) Halovest
B) Minerva brace
C) Aspen collar
D) Sterno-occipital-mandibular immobilizer (SOMI)
C) Aspen collar
A patient with a C2 fracture is placed on a Halovest. How long does he have to wear the vest?
A) 6 weeks
B) 9 weeks
C) 12 weeks
D) 18 weeks
C) 12 weeks
A patient has a stable C4 fracture. Which cervical orthosis would be appropriate?
A) Soft collar
B) Philadelphia collar
C) Halovest
D) Minerva
B) Philadelphia collar
Which of these back braces is primarily used for stable vertebral anterior compression
fractures?
A) Williams brace
B) Chairback brace
C) Taylor brace
D) Knight brace
C) Taylor brace
Which truncal orthosis uses a three-point pressure system to allow for extension but limit flexion?
A) Jewett brace
B) Williams brace
C) Taylor brace
D) Clam shell brace
A) Jewett brace
Which orthotics is used for low back pain during pregnancy?
A) Lumbosacral orthosis (LSO) with a rigid frame
B) Corset
C) Wide belt
D) Rainey orthosis
C) Wide belt
What is the highest thoracic spine level for which a clam shell brace is effective in immobilizing the lower trunk?
A) T1
B) T5
C) T8
D) T11
C) T8
Which of these thoracolumbosacral orthoses (TLSO) cannot be used on an unstable thoracolumbar spine fracture?
A) Jewett brace
B) Cruciform anterior spinal hyperextension (CASH) brace
C) Molded plastic TLSO
D) Taylor brace
D) Taylor brace
Which of these braces is used for low thoracic scoliosis?
A) Jewett brace
B) Milwaukee brace
C) Knight brace
D) Williams brace
B) Milwaukee brace
Which of these orthotics is used to decrease kyphosis from a stable vertebral anterior compression fracture by applying an anterior crossbar to the torso?
A) Taylor brace
B) Jewett brace
C) Cruciform anterior spinal hyperextension (CASH) brace
D) Boston brace
C) Cruciform anterior spinal hyperextension (CASH) brace
This cervical orthosis consists of one anterior poster supporting the chin and one posterior
poster supporting the occiput that attaches to a thoracic jacket:
A) Rainey orthosis
B) Sterno-occipital-mandibular immobilizer (SOMI)
C) Minerva brace
D) Aspen collar
B) Sterno-occipital-mandibular immobilizer (SOMI)
This brace is used in patients with spondylolisthesis. It restricts extension, but allows flexion, since the front is made up of an elastic band. It also has side uprights that prevent lateral bending:
A) Williams brace
B) Chairback brace
C) Rainey jacket
D) Taylor brace
A) Williams brace
This lumbosacral brace has two posterior uprights that prevent extension and an anterior apron with two anterior straps; one at the thorax and one at the pelvis that limit fl exion:
A) Rainey jacket
B) Clam shell brace
C) Milwaukee brace
D) Chairback brace
D) Chairback brace
This cervical orthosis is useful for bed-ridden patients with a C1 fracture since it does not have posterior uprights:
A) Minerva brace
B) Miami collar
C) Sterno-occipital-mandibular immobilizer (SOMI)
D) Halovest
C) Sterno-occipital-mandibular immobilizer (SOMI)
. 117 - Which of the following assistive devices would be most appropriate for a patient with
Parkinson’s disease?
. 117 - B
. 118 - A patient with which nerve palsy would most benefi t from the ADL splint seen below?
. 118 - C
When the patient is standing upright, the top of a walker should reach which anatomic location?
A) Xiphoid process
B) Greater trochanter
C) Pubic symphysis
D) Iliac crest
B) Greater trochanter
When using standard crutches, how many inches should the patient be able to raise the body with complete elbow extension?
A) 0 to 1 inch
B) 1 to 2 inches
C) 2 to 3 inches
D) 3 to 4 inches
B) 1 to 2 inches
When measuring a patient for a wheelchair, how many inches should the wheel chair width be in relation to the widest part of the buttocks?
A) 0 inches
B) 1 inch greater
C) 2 inches greater
D) 3 inches greater
B) 1 inch greater
Which anatomic structure should be used as a reference point in order to determine the proper backrest height for a standard wheelchair?
A) Iliac crest
B) Posterior 12th rib
C) Scapula
D) T1 vertebrae
C) Scapula
. 123 This assistive device would be helping when putting on which garment?
A) Gloves
B) Socks
C) Pants
D) Shoes
. 123 B) Socks
. 124 - A scoop dish or plate guard, as depicted below, would be most benefi cial in an individual
with which of the following conditions?
A) Parkinson’s disease
B) Hemiplegia
C) Paraplegia
D) Osteoarthritis
. 124 B) Hemiplegia
. 125 - A weighted utensil as shown below would be most benefi cial in an individual with which
of the following conditions?
A) Parkinson’s disease
B) Hemiplegia
C) Paraplegia
D) Osteoarthritis
. 125 - A) Parkinson’s disease
. 126 - Match the following adaptive equipment labels to its associated photograph below: A) Rocker utensil B) Bottle or jar stabilizer C) Dressing stick D) Reacher
. 126 B) Bottle or jar stabilizer
. 127 - Match the following adaptive equipment labels to its associated photograph below: A) Rocker utensil B) Bottle or jar stabilizer C) Dressing stick D) Reacher
. 127 C) Dressing stick
. 128 - Match the following adaptive equipment labels to its associated photograph below: A) Rocker utensil B) Bottle or jar stabilizer C) Dressing stick D) Reacher
. 128 D) Reacher
. 129 - Match the following adaptive equipment labels to its associated photograph below: A) Rocker utensil B) Bottle or jar stabilizer C) Dressing stick D) Reacher
. 129 A) Rocker utensil
A rocker knife and bottle stabilizer are benefi cial in an individual with which of the following conditions?
A) Hemiplegia
B) Stroke
C) Unilateral wrist fracture
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
. 131 - Individuals with which of the following conditions would most benefi t with a black and
white cutting board as seen below?
A) Low vision
B) Essential tremor
C) Presbycusis
D) Ageusia
A) Low vision
Canes are prescribed by health care providers in various disabilities for which of the following
reasons?
A) Improve balance
B) Decrease pain and weight-bearing forces of injured structures
C) Compensate for weak muscles
D) All of the above
C) Compensate for weak muscles
What is another term commonly used for Lofstrand crutches?
A) Hand crutches
B) Wrist crutches
C) Forearm crutches
D) Axillary crutches
C) Forearm crutches
Which crutch gait describes two crutches in contact with the fl oor and moving both limbs past the crutches?
A) Two-point gait
B) Three-point gait
C) Swing-through gait
D) Swing-to gait
C) Swing-through gait
Which crutch gait describes two crutches in contact with the fl oor and moving both limbs almost to the crutches?
A) Two-point gait
B) Three-point gait
C) Swing-through gait
D) Swing-to gait
D) Swing-to gait
Which crutch gait describes one crutch and opposite extremity moving together followed by the opposite crutch and extremity?
A) Two-point gait
B) Three-point gait
C) Swing-through gait
D) Swing-to gait
A) Two-point gait
Which crutch gait describes both crutches and involved limb (e.g., lower extremity fracture)
advancing together, then the uninvolved limb advancing forward?
A) Two-point gait
B) Three-point gait
C) Swing-through gait
D) Swing-to gait
B) Three-point gait
. 138 - Match the following adaptive equipment labels to its associated photograph below:
A) Elongated utensil
B) Pot stabilizer
C) Long-handled bath sponge
D) Pronged cutting board
. 138 D) Pronged cutting board
. 139 - Match the following adaptive equipment labels to its associated photograph below:
A) Elongated utensil
B) Pot stabilizer
C) Long-handled bath sponge
D) Pronged cutting board
. 139 B) Pot stabilizer
. 140 - Match the following adaptive equipment labels to its associated photograph below:
A) Elongated utensil
B) Pot stabilizer
C) Long-handled bath sponge
D) Pronged cutting board
. 140 A) Elongated utensil
. 141 - Match the following adaptive equipment labels to its associated photograph below:
A) Elongated utensil
B) Pot stabilizer
C) Long-handled bath sponge
D) Pronged cutting board
. 141 C) Long-handled bath sponge
. 142 - As depicted below, which nerve would be affected in an individual that has decreased
pincer grasp, hindering the ability to turn on the stove?
A) Median
B) Musculocutaneous
C) Ulnar
D) Radial
. 142 A) Median
A platform forearm orthosis would be benefi cial in a patient with which of the following conditions?
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Ankylosing spondylitis
C) Parkinson’s disease
D) Arthritis
D) Arthritis
An individual with mild impaired balance would require which of the following assistive devices?
A) Single-point cane
B) Quad cane
C) Standing walker
D) Rolling walker
A) Single-point cane
Regarding points of contact with the body, what is the difference between a crutch and a cane?
A) Cane has one point of contact with the body, whereas crutch has two points of contact with the body
B) Cane has one point of contact with the body, whereas crutch has three points of contact with the body
C) Cane has two points of contact with the body, whereas crutch has one point of contact with the body
D) Cane has two points of contact with the body, whereas crutch has three points of contact with the body
A) Cane has one point of contact with the body, whereas crutch has two points of contact with the body
When measuring crutch length from the anterior axillary fold to the ground, how many inches span between the rubber end lateral to the fi fth toe?
A) 2 inches
B) 4 inches
C) 6 inches
D) 8 inches
C) 6 inches
All of the following are typical components of a prosthesis except:
A) Socket
B) Liner
C) Terminal device
D) CAD system
D) CAD system
question
answer
process of helping a persont o reach the fullest physical, psychological, social, vocatioinal, avocational and educational potential consistent with his or her physiologic or anatomic impairment, environmental limitation and desires and life plans
. Activity . Disability . Handicap . Impairment . Participation . Rehabilitation . Rehabilitation Medicine
. Rehabilitation
any loss of abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical structure or function
. Activity . Disability . Handicap . Impairment . Participation . Rehabilitation . Rehabilitation Medicine
. Impairment
any restriction of lack resulting from an impairment of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being
. Activity . Disability . Handicap . Impairment . Participation . Rehabilitation . Rehabilitation Medicine
. Disability
disadvantage for an individual resulting from an impairment or disability that limits or prevents the fulfillment of a role that is normal for that individual
. Activity . Disability . Handicap . Impairment . Participation . Rehabilitation . Rehabilitation Medicine
. Handicap
the nature and extent of functioning at the level of the person
. Activity . Disability . Handicap . Impairment . Participation . Rehabilitation . Rehabilitation Medicine
. Activity
the nature and extent of a person’s involvement in life situations in relationship to impairments, activities, health conditions and contextual factors
. Activity . Disability . Handicap . Impairment . Participation . Rehabilitation . Rehabilitation Medicine
. Participation
branch of medical science concerned with the comprehensive evaluation and management of patients with impairment and disability arising from neuromuscular, musculoskelatal, cardiovascular, and pulmonary disorders; also concerned with the medical, social, vocational and psychological aspects arising from them
. Activity . Disability . Handicap . Impairment . Participation . Rehabilitation . Rehabilitation Medicine
. Rehabilitation Medicine
members of rehabilityation team (9)
Physiatrist Physical Therapist Occupational Therapist Rehabilitation Nurse Psychologist Speech and language therapist Orthotist/prosthetist Social Worker Patient
team leader; coordinates the various members to achieve the goal set; manages the medical aspects and medical complications that arise during rehabilitation
. Occupational Therapist . Orthotist/Prosthetist . Patient . Physiatrist . Physical Therapist . Psychologist . Rehabilitation Nurse . Social Worker . Speech and language therapist
. Physiatrist
evaluate and train patients in ADL’s and IADL’s; explore vocational and avocational interests; evaluates the patient’ skill within the community
. Occupational Therapist . Orthotist/Prosthetist . Patient . Physiatrist . Physical Therapist . Psychologist . Rehabilitation Nurse . Social Worker . Speech and language therapist
. Occupational Therapist
train patients in use of modified environment, assistive devices and UE prostheses; educate the patient’s faminly to maintain independence
. Occupational Therapist . Orthotist/Prosthetist . Patient . Physiatrist . Physical Therapist . Psychologist . Rehabilitation Nurse . Social Worker . Speech and language therapist
. Occupational Therapist
Physical Therapist trains LE prostheses
use of physical agents for treatment; assist patient in functional restoration especially for gross motor functions
. Occupational Therapist . Orthotist/Prosthetist . Patient . Physiatrist . Physical Therapist . Psychologist . Rehabilitation Nurse . Social Worker . Speech and language therapist
. Physical Therapist
trains use of LE prosteses
. Occupational Therapist . Orthotist/Prosthetist . Patient . Physiatrist . Physical Therapist . Psychologist . Rehabilitation Nurse . Social Worker . Speech and language therapist
. Physical Therapist
Occupational therapist train UE prostheses
helps patient and significant others to prepare psychologically for full participation; testing for intelligence personality, psychological status; counseling
. Occupational Therapist . Orthotist/Prosthetist . Patient . Physiatrist . Physical Therapist . Psychologist . Rehabilitation Nurse . Social Worker . Speech and language therapist
. Psychologist
direct personal care of patients; addresses the ADL’s assist in medication management;
educate families on the related disabilities; assist in use of adaptive devices
. Occupational Therapist . Orthotist/Prosthetist . Patient . Physiatrist . Physical Therapist . Psychologist . Rehabilitation Nurse . Social Worker . Speech and language therapist
. Rehabilitation Nurse
evaluates and treats patients with neurologic disorders such as aphasia, dysarthria, apraxia, cognitive-communication impairments, dysphagia
educates patients/families on care of tracheostomy tubes, dysphagia, alternative communication
. Occupational Therapist . Orthotist/Prosthetist . Patient . Physiatrist . Physical Therapist . Psychologist . Rehabilitation Nurse . Social Worker . Speech and language therapist
. Speech and language therapist
evaluates the patient’s total living condition; assess the impact of disability with the above mentioned factors; facilitate assistance to cope with such impact
. Occupational Therapist . Orthotist/Prosthetist . Patient . Physiatrist . Physical Therapist . Psychologist . Rehabilitation Nurse . Social Worker . Speech and language therapist
. Social Worker
evaluates, designs and fabricates orthoses and/or prostheses; follow up and educate osers of care and maintenance of such devices
. Occupational Therapist . Orthotist/Prosthetist . Patient . Physiatrist . Physical Therapist . Psychologist . Rehabilitation Nurse . Social Worker . Speech and language therapist
. Orthotist/Prosthetist
activities requred for personal care
. ADL
. I-ADL
. ADL
feeding, dressing, grooming, bathing, toileting
. ADL
. I-ADL
. ADL
complex tasks required for independent living in the immediate environment
. ADL
. I-ADL
. I-ADL
care of other in the household, telephone use, meal preparation, house cleaning, laundry, public transportation
. ADL
. I-ADL
. I-ADL
lesisions involving the CNS
. UMN
. LMN
. UMN
hypertonia, hyperreflexia
. UMN
. LMN
. UMN
no significant muscle atrophy
. UMN
. LMN
. UMN
hemiparetic, parapetic, and tetraperetic pattern
. UMN
. LMN
. UMN
hypotonia, hyporeflexia
. UMN
. LMN
. LMN
significant muscle atrophy
. UMN
. LMN
. LMN
electromyographic changes
. UMN
. LMN
. LMN
affected nerve root
. UMN
. LMN
. LMN
eyes are closed with absence of sleep-wake cycles and no evidence of a contingent relationship between the patient’s behavior and the environment
. Coma
. Minimally conscious state
. Vegetative state
. Coma
characterized by the presence of sleep-wake cycles but still no contingent relationship
. Coma
. Minimally conscious state
. Vegetative state
. Vegetative state
patient who remains severely disabled but demonstrates sleep-wake cycles and even inconsistent, nonreflexive, contingent behaviors in response to a specific environmental stimulation
. Coma
. Minimally conscious state
. Vegetative state
. Minimally conscious state
Spontaneous eye opening
1-6
. 4
eye opening to speech
1-6
. 3
eye opening to pain (1-6)
. 2
no eye opening (1-6)
. 1
obeys cues for motor response (1-6)
. 6
localizes motor response (1-6)
. 5
withdrawal motor response (1-6)
. 4
abnormal flexion in motor response (1-6)
. 3
extensor response in motor respons (1-6)
. 2
no motor response (1-6)
. 1
oriented verbal response (1-6)
. 5
confused conversation (1-6)
. 4
inappropriate words (1-6)
. 3
incomprehensible sounds (1-6)
. 2
no verbal response (1-6)
. 1
eye opening
a. 1-4
b. 1-5
c. 1-6
a. 1-4
best motor response
a. 1-4
b. 1-5
c. 1-6
c. 1-6
verbal response
a. 1-4
b. 1-5
c. 1-6
b. 1-5
resistance of muscle to stretch or passive elongation
. Spasticity
. Strength
. Tone
. Tone
velocity-dependent increase in the stretch reflex
. Spasticity
. Strength
. Tone
. Spasticity
5 parameters of gait evaluation
. Ease of arising from a seated position . Balance . Walking speed . Stride and step length . Attitude of arms and legs
linear distance between successive corresponding points of heel contact of the same foot
. Stride length
. Step length
. Stride length
distance between corresponding successive contact points of opposite feet
. Stride length
. Step length
. Step length
2 feet for women and 2.5 feet for men
. Stride length
. Step length
. Step length
patient spending more time in stance phase on one leg and is usually due to pain in the other leg
. Antalgic gait
. Trendelenburg gait
. Antalgic gait
sway toward the leg in stance phase because of abductor weakness
. Antalgic gait
. Trendelenburg gait
. Trendelenburg gait
Full available ROM is achieved against gravity and is able to demonstrate maximal resistance.
0-5
. 5
Full available ROM is achieved against gravity and
is able to demonstrate moderate resistance.
0-5
. 4
Full available ROM is achieved only with gravity
eliminated.
0-5
. 2
Full available ROM is achieved against gravity but
is not able to demonstrate resistance.
0-5
. 3
A visible or palpable contraction is noted, with
no joint movement.
0-5
. 1
No contraction is identified.
0-5
. 0
No increase in muscle tone (0-4)
. 0
Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch and release or by minimal resistance at the end of the range of motion when the affected part(s) is moved in flexion or extension (0-4)
. 1
Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch, followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder (less than half) of the ROM (0-4)
. 1+
6 determinants of gait
. Pelvic rotation . Pelvic tilt . Knee flexion in stance phase . Ankle mechanism . Lateral displacement of body
initial contact
. Stance phase
. Swing phase
. Stance phase
loading response
. Stance phase
. Swing phase
. Stance phase
midstance
. Stance phase
. Swing phase
. Stance phase
terminal stance
. Stance phase
. Swing phase
. Stance phase
heel strike
. Stance phase
. Swing phase
. Stance phase
foot flat
. Stance phase
. Swing phase
. Stance phase
heel off
. Stance phase
. Swing phase
. Stance phase
pre-swing
. Stance phase
. Swing phase
. Swing phase
initial swing
. Stance phase
. Swing phase
. Swing phase
mid-swing
. Stance phase
. Swing phase
. Swing phase
terminal swing
. Stance phase
. Swing phase
. Swing phase
