Registry Review Flashcards
1
Q
Routes of entry of toxic chemicals may include:
A
Swallowing, inhalation, absorption
2
Q
Written instructions for handling of biohazardous materials, safe use of the product, and cleanup and disposal directions are called:
A
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
3
Q
Older patients should be scheduled:
A
As early in the day as possible
4
Q
Patients who have been NPO should be scheduled:
A
First
5
Q
Patients with diabetes should be scheduled:
A
As early in the day as possible
6
Q
Endoscopic procedures should be scheduled:
A
First in a serious of procedures
7
Q
What describes torts?
A
Violations of civil law that are part of personal injury law and provide compensation
8
Q
What may be considered battery?
A
Radiographing the wrong patient or body part
9
Q
Assault means:
A
Threatening the patient or causing that patient to be apprehensive
10
Q
Which is an example of invasion of privacy?
A
Improperly exposing the patients body
11
Q
Unintentional misconduct is also called:
A
Negligence
12
Q
The concept of the reasonably prudent person is interpreted as:
A
How a professional who has similar education, training, and experience would perform the act
13
Q
Respondeat superior means
A
Let the master answer
14
Q
Gross negligence is:
A
An act that shows reckless disregard for life or limb
15
Q
Which of the following conditions must be met to prove malpractice?
A
The standard of care was violated and the injury actually occurred
16
Q
A case involving obvious negligence would be defined by the doctrine of
A
Res ipsa loquitur
17
Q
What is required for valid consent?
A
Legal age, offered voluntarily, mentally competent
18
Q
Patient transfers from cart to X-ray table should be performed by
A
Two or more radiographers
19
Q
A patient history should be taken by the radiographer to:
A
Assist in understanding patients injury and assist radiologist with interpreting the images
20
Q
Direct contact allows an infectious organism to move:
A
From the infected person directly to susceptible host
21
Q
MSDS provide directions for:
A
All persons exposed to hazardous materials
22
Q
If the radiographer touches hazardous chemicals, what must be done first?
A
Rinse immediately with cool water for at least 5 minutes
23
Q
Vectors may be:
A
Animals or insects
24
Q
Common vehicle transmission involves
A
Food, water, medications, equipment
25
Airborne transmission of infection may occur as a result of contact with:
Droplets and dust
26
Indirect contact involves:
An object containing pathogenic organisms
27
A system that emphasizes the placement of barriers between the health care worker and the patient is called:
Standard precautions
28
The placement of barriers between the health care worker and the patient assumes that:
There is always a contagion present
29
The most effective method used to prevent the spread of infection is:
Hand washing
30
Because barium enemas increase the possibility of contact between body substances and clothing, the radiographer should always wear:
Disposable gowns or surgical scrubs
31
A radiographer should wear eye protection:
Any time there is a possibility of blood splashing
32
Needles should be recapped after use :
Never
33
Any area that is touched by bodily fluids:
Must be washed completely
34
Hands should be washed
Before and after contact with each patient and before touching equipment
35
The process of eliminating as many organisms as possible by the use of water and chemical disinfectants is called:
Medical asepsis
36
The process of eliminating all organisms from the environment by gas sterilization, use of germicides, or use of dry heat is called:
Surgical asepsis
37
When putting on gloves for a procedure, which of the following should occur first?
Wash hands
38
After a radiographer is gowned and gloved for a procedure, hands may not be placed:
Under the arms or on the sides or back of the gown
39
A radiographer who is assisting with a sterile procedure, but is not gowned and gloved:
May not have contact with the sterile field or anyone who is scrubbed in
40
What route of transmission involves touching a susceptible person with a contaminated object?
Indirect contact
41
Which of the following transmission-based precautions also require the use of standard precautions?
Droplet, contact, and airborne precautions
42
Which rules must be followed regardless or route of transmission of infection?
Hand washing must be performed
43
Which does not require the use of gloves?
Droplet
44
What requires that all equipment and personnel be carefully covered?
Patients with neutropenia
45
What is used for total protection of the health care worker from every method of transmission possible in the work setting?
Standard precautions
46
Used bandages and dressings must be placed:
Into red plastic biohazard bags and sealed
47
The winged infusion set used for venipuncture is also known as:
Butterfly
48
When performing mobile radiography on a patient in isolation, which two radiographers are designated?
Clean and contaminated
49
The most common site of healthcare acquired infections is:
Urinary catheter
50
The reservoir of infection is located:
Anywhere organisms can thrive
51
Assessment of changing patient conditions includes observing for:
Skin that becomes diaphoretic, lips and nails that become cyanotic, and patient dizziness or discomfort
52
The normal adult body temperature taken orally is:
98-99 F
53
Which may be ingested by a patient who has been placed on a clear liquid diet?
Bouillon, gelatin, tea
54
Barium sulfate is classified as a:
Inert inorganic salt
55
A sphygmomanometer is used to:
Measure blood pressure
56
A blood pressure of 120/80 mm hg reveals that:
The pressure is 80 mm when the heart is at rest
57
When oxygen is administered, the usual rate is:
3-5 L/minute
58
A mechanical method used to clear the patients air way is called the
Suctioning
59
Which contains all the instruments and medications necessary for dealing with cardiac arrest?
Crash cart
60
What condition is caused by loss of a large amount of blood or plasma?
Hypovolemic shock
61
What causes blood to pool in peripheral vessels?
Neurogenic shock
62
What follows an allergic reaction to foreign proteins?
Anaphylaxis
63
What is caused by an infection that results in extremely low blood pressure?
Septic shock
64
What condition occurs secondary to heart failure or interference with heart function?
Cardiogenic shock
65
What condition may occur after injection of an iodinated contrast agent?
Anaphylaxis
66
Which of the following is a symptom of shock?
Accelerated pulse, cool clammy pale skin, systolic pressure less than 30
67
What should the radiographer do first when it is suspected a patient is going into shock?
Place in trendelenburg position
68
What applies when radiography is performed on trauma patients?
Work quickly and efficiently, observe for changes, document in writing changes of patients condition
69
Which of the following is used to feed a patient or conduct gastric auction?
NG tube
70
Which is used to administer nutrition or long term chemotherapy?
Venous catheter
71
What is the site of most nosocomial(HAI) infections?
Urinary catheter
72
What is another name for a mechanical respirator?
Ventilator
73
The most frequently performed exam using a contrast medium is a:
Chest X-ray
74
What is true concerning positive contrast media?
Aqueous iodine compounds may be used, barium is an inert substance and surgical contaminant, aqueous iodine compounds may cause dehydration
75
What is a legit contraindication to the use of iodinated contrast media?
Allergy to any medications
76
A reaction at the site of injection of iodinated contrast media may be caused by:
Extravasation of contrast agent
77
What are symptoms of contrast agent reaction?
Hoarseness, sneezing, urticaria, vomiting
78
After injection of the iodinated contrast media, the radiographer should:
Remain with the patient and have a conversation, listening for signs of laryngeal swelling
79
At the first indication of a contrast agent reaction, the radiographer should:
Stop exam and obtain help. Don't alert patient
80
Hypodermic needles are described by their gauge, which is:
Diameter of needle opening. Larger gauge, smaller diameter
81
Air must not be injected when performing venipuncture because :
An air embolus would form and may be fatal
82
A small, easy to handle injection set that has plastic projections on both sides of the needle is called:
Butterfly
83
A venous catheter:
A unit with a needle inside a flexible plastic catheter. Needle is removed after injection.
84
Venipuncture steps:
Wash hands, put on gloves, secure tourniquet, select vein, cleanse skin, perform puncture, observe blood return, inject contrast, cover wound, check for swelling
85
Venipuncture may be performed by:
A radiographer where allowed by state law
86
A contrast medium overdose may occur:
In infants or adults who have renal, cardiac, or hepatic failure
87
If medication needs to be ordered for a patient in the radiology department, a physician always:
Chooses the drug, dosage, and route
88
A reaction that causes the patients skin to turn cyanotic means:
Skin is turning blue
89
What degree of contrast reaction is vomiting?
Mild to moderate reaction
90
What degree of reaction to contrast is dyspnea?
Severe reaction
91
Which is always a part of the radiographers scope of practice?
Patient education
92
What degree of reaction to contrast is cardiac arrest?
Severe reaction
93
A document that provides instructions regarding medical care that a patient may prepare is called:
Advance directive
94
The formal term for "no code" is:
DNR
95
What contains enforceable points?
ARRT rules of ethics
96
What served as a guide to professional conduct?
ARRT code of ethics
97
The study of contrast agents, their administration, and possible reactions fall under the category of:
Pharmacology
98
Natural background radiation represents what percentage of humans' radiation exposure?
50%
99
The greatest source of natural background radiation is:
Radon gas
100
Radon gas presents a danger when:
Undetected
101
X-rays and gamma rays used in diagnostic imaging are:
Artificial background radiation dose
102
A feature of fluoro that automatically adjusts kVp and mA to maintain image brightness for necessary quality is called:
Automatic brightness control (ABC)
103
What term describes the approximate skin dose where the X-ray beam is entering the patient?
Air kerma
104
Sievert is calculated by multiplying gray by:
WR
105
The total of air kerma over the exposed area of the patient is called:
Dose area product
106
What is also known as coherent scattering?
Classical scatter
107
What photon-tissue interaction does not occur in diagnostic radiography?
Pair production
108
What is responsible for creating the conditions for contrast on the image?
Photoelectric interaction
109
What produces scatter radiation and may fog the image?
Compton interaction
110
What produces scatter as a result of vibration of orbital electrons?
Coherent scatter
111
What results in total absorption of an incident X-ray photon?
Photoelectric interaction
112
What is the only photon-tissue interaction that does not result in ionization?
Coherent scatter
113
What involves interaction between an incident photon and an atomic nucleus?
Pair production
114
What photon-tissue interaction primarily involves k-shell electrons?
Photoelectric interaction
115
What involves loosely bound outer shell electrons?
Compton interaction
116
What results in the production of a photoelectron that is ejected from the atom?
Photoelectric interaction
117
What photon-tissue interaction requires use of grid?
Compton interaction
118
What may result in occupational exposure for a radiographer?
Compton interaction
119
What unit of measurement is used for absorbed dose in tissue?
Gyt
120
What unit of measurement is used for effective dose limits?
Sievert
121
What unit of measurement would be used to describe radiation present in the room?
Gya
122
The amount of energy deposited by radiation per unit length of tissue being traversed is:
LET, determines use of a Wr when equivalent dose is calculated
123
What agency publishes radiation protection standards based on scientific research?
National council on radiation protection and measurements
124
The agency that enforces radiation protection standards relating to radioactive material at the federal level is the:
Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
125
Effective dose limit is defined as the upper boundary dose that:
Can be absorbed. With a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage
126
ALARA is an acronym for
As low as reasonably achievable
127
What are graphs called that show the relationship between dose of radiation received and incidence of effects
Dose response curves
128
What is the basis for all radiation protection standards
Linear-nonthreshold effect
129
What means there is no safe level of radiation and the response to the radiation is not directly proportional to the dose received
Nonlinear-nonthreshold effect
130
What means there is no safe level of radiation and the response to the radiation is directly proportional to the dose received
Linear-nonthreshold effect
131
What means there is a safe level of radiation for certain effects and those effects are directly proportional to the dose received when the safe level is exceeded
Linear-threshold effect
132
What means there is a safe level of radiation for certain effects and those effects are NOT directly proportional to the dose received when the safe level is exceeded
Nonlinear-threshold effect
133
Effects of radiation where the probability of occurrence, not severity, is proportional to the dose are called
Stochastic effects
134
Effects of radiation that become more severe as dose increases are called
Deterministic effects
135
According to NCRP, what is the fetus equivalent dose limit per month
0.5 mSv
136
According to NCRP, the occupational cumulative effective dose limit =age in years x what dose
10 mSv
137
According to NCRP, the annual occupational effective dose limit is
50 mSv
138
According to NCRP, what is the annual effective dose limit for radiography students older than age 18
50 mSv
139
According to NCRP, what is the annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming infrequent exposure
5 mSv
140
According to NCRP, what is the fetus equivalent dose limit for the entire gestation
5 mSv
141
According to NCRP, what is the annual effective dose limit for the general public assuming frequent exposure
1.0 mSv
142
According to NCRP, what is the annual effective occupational dose limit for the lens of the eye
150 mSv
143
The Wr used in calculating sievert takes into account what
LET (linear energy transfer)
144
Linear energy transfer and biological damage are:
Directly proportional
145
The ability of different types of radiation to produce the same biological response in an organism is called
RBE (relative biological effectiveness)
146
The phases of the cellular life in order are
Interphase (g1, s, g2), prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
147
The process of cell division for germ cells is called
Meiosis
148
What occurs when radiation transfers it’s energy to DNA
Direct effect
149
What states that each cell has a master molecule that directs all cellular activities and that if inactivated, results in cellular death
Target theory
150
What describes the amount of radiation required to increase the number of mutations in a population by a factor of 2
Doubling dose
151
What occurs when radiation transfers it’s energy to the cellular cytoplasm
Indirect effect
152
What induces radiolysis
Indirect effect
153
What is the name for changes in genetic code passed onto the next generation
Mutations
154
What is responsible for producing free radicals
Indirect effect
155
What occurs when the master molecule is struck by radiation
Direct effect
156
What poisons the cell with H2O2
Indirect effect
157
Most of the damage to a cell occurs as a result of
Indirect effect
158
Cell radiosensitivity is described by the:
Law of bergonie and tribondeau
159
The law that states that cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are nonspecialized and rapidly dividing is the:
Law of bergonie and tribondeau
160
Cells are more radiosensitive when:
Fully oxygenated
161
Blood count can be depressed with a whole body dose of:
.25 Sv
162
The most radiosensitive cells in the body are:
Lymphocytes
163
Cells that are least sensitive to radiation exposure include
Nerve and muscle cells
164
Compared with ova in younger and older women, ova in women of reproductive age are:
Less radiosensitive
165
Most somatic effects occur:
At doses beyond doses used during diagnostic radiography
166
Somatic effects manifest in:
The person who has been irradiated
167
What is considered a late somatic effect
Carcinogenesis
168
What is used to limit the area of the patient being irradiated
Collimator
169
Gonadal shields may reduce exposure to female gonads by:
50%
170
What set of exposure factors would result in the lowest dose to the patient
Low mas, high kvp
171
What is used as part of an effort to practice the ALARA concept
Collimation
172
Cardinal rules of radiation protection include
Shielding distance time
173
What is used to survey an area for radiation detection and measurement
Handheld ionization chamber
174
What is accurate as low as 100 uGya
Film badge
175
What includes filters for measurement of radiation energy
Film badge
176
What may be used to measure in-air exposures in a fluoroscopic room
Handheld ionization chamber
177
What detection device sounds an alarm to indicate the presence of radioactivity
Geiger mueller detector
178
What is accurate as low as 50 uGya
TLD
179
What is a digital monitor that may be used to measure dose in an area
Handheld ionization chamber
180
What may be used for three months at a time
TLD
181
What is sensitive to extremes in environment
Film badge
182
What is used to represent the mean marrow dose
MMD
183
The radiation dose that would cause the same genetic injury to the population as the sum of doses received by individuals actually being exposed is
GSD
