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Radiography > Registry Review > Flashcards

Registry Review Flashcards

1
Q

Routes of entry of toxic chemicals may include:

A

Swallowing, inhalation, absorption

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2
Q

Written instructions for handling of biohazardous materials, safe use of the product, and cleanup and disposal directions are called:

A

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)

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3
Q

Older patients should be scheduled:

A

As early in the day as possible

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4
Q

Patients who have been NPO should be scheduled:

A

First

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5
Q

Patients with diabetes should be scheduled:

A

As early in the day as possible

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6
Q

Endoscopic procedures should be scheduled:

A

First in a serious of procedures

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7
Q

What describes torts?

A

Violations of civil law that are part of personal injury law and provide compensation

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8
Q

What may be considered battery?

A

Radiographing the wrong patient or body part

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9
Q

Assault means:

A

Threatening the patient or causing that patient to be apprehensive

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10
Q

Which is an example of invasion of privacy?

A

Improperly exposing the patients body

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11
Q

Unintentional misconduct is also called:

A

Negligence

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12
Q

The concept of the reasonably prudent person is interpreted as:

A

How a professional who has similar education, training, and experience would perform the act

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13
Q

Respondeat superior means

A

Let the master answer

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14
Q

Gross negligence is:

A

An act that shows reckless disregard for life or limb

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15
Q

Which of the following conditions must be met to prove malpractice?

A

The standard of care was violated and the injury actually occurred

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16
Q

A case involving obvious negligence would be defined by the doctrine of

A

Res ipsa loquitur

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17
Q

What is required for valid consent?

A

Legal age, offered voluntarily, mentally competent

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18
Q

Patient transfers from cart to X-ray table should be performed by

A

Two or more radiographers

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19
Q

A patient history should be taken by the radiographer to:

A

Assist in understanding patients injury and assist radiologist with interpreting the images

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20
Q

Direct contact allows an infectious organism to move:

A

From the infected person directly to susceptible host

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21
Q

MSDS provide directions for:

A

All persons exposed to hazardous materials

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22
Q

If the radiographer touches hazardous chemicals, what must be done first?

A

Rinse immediately with cool water for at least 5 minutes

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23
Q

Vectors may be:

A

Animals or insects

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24
Q

Common vehicle transmission involves

A

Food, water, medications, equipment

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25
Q

Airborne transmission of infection may occur as a result of contact with:

A

Droplets and dust

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26
Q

Indirect contact involves:

A

An object containing pathogenic organisms

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27
Q

A system that emphasizes the placement of barriers between the health care worker and the patient is called:

A

Standard precautions

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28
Q

The placement of barriers between the health care worker and the patient assumes that:

A

There is always a contagion present

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29
Q

The most effective method used to prevent the spread of infection is:

A

Hand washing

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30
Q

Because barium enemas increase the possibility of contact between body substances and clothing, the radiographer should always wear:

A

Disposable gowns or surgical scrubs

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31
Q

A radiographer should wear eye protection:

A

Any time there is a possibility of blood splashing

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32
Q

Needles should be recapped after use :

A

Never

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33
Q

Any area that is touched by bodily fluids:

A

Must be washed completely

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34
Q

Hands should be washed

A

Before and after contact with each patient and before touching equipment

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35
Q

The process of eliminating as many organisms as possible by the use of water and chemical disinfectants is called:

A

Medical asepsis

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36
Q

The process of eliminating all organisms from the environment by gas sterilization, use of germicides, or use of dry heat is called:

A

Surgical asepsis

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37
Q

When putting on gloves for a procedure, which of the following should occur first?

A

Wash hands

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38
Q

After a radiographer is gowned and gloved for a procedure, hands may not be placed:

A

Under the arms or on the sides or back of the gown

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39
Q

A radiographer who is assisting with a sterile procedure, but is not gowned and gloved:

A

May not have contact with the sterile field or anyone who is scrubbed in

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40
Q

What route of transmission involves touching a susceptible person with a contaminated object?

A

Indirect contact

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41
Q

Which of the following transmission-based precautions also require the use of standard precautions?

A

Droplet, contact, and airborne precautions

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42
Q

Which rules must be followed regardless or route of transmission of infection?

A

Hand washing must be performed

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43
Q

Which does not require the use of gloves?

A

Droplet

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44
Q

What requires that all equipment and personnel be carefully covered?

A

Patients with neutropenia

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45
Q

What is used for total protection of the health care worker from every method of transmission possible in the work setting?

A

Standard precautions

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46
Q

Used bandages and dressings must be placed:

A

Into red plastic biohazard bags and sealed

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47
Q

The winged infusion set used for venipuncture is also known as:

A

Butterfly

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48
Q

When performing mobile radiography on a patient in isolation, which two radiographers are designated?

A

Clean and contaminated

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49
Q

The most common site of healthcare acquired infections is:

A

Urinary catheter

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50
Q

The reservoir of infection is located:

A

Anywhere organisms can thrive

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51
Q

Assessment of changing patient conditions includes observing for:

A

Skin that becomes diaphoretic, lips and nails that become cyanotic, and patient dizziness or discomfort

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52
Q

The normal adult body temperature taken orally is:

A

98-99 F

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53
Q

Which may be ingested by a patient who has been placed on a clear liquid diet?

A

Bouillon, gelatin, tea

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54
Q

Barium sulfate is classified as a:

A

Inert inorganic salt

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55
Q

A sphygmomanometer is used to:

A

Measure blood pressure

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56
Q

A blood pressure of 120/80 mm hg reveals that:

A

The pressure is 80 mm when the heart is at rest

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57
Q

When oxygen is administered, the usual rate is:

A

3-5 L/minute

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58
Q

A mechanical method used to clear the patients air way is called the

A

Suctioning

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59
Q

Which contains all the instruments and medications necessary for dealing with cardiac arrest?

A

Crash cart

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60
Q

What condition is caused by loss of a large amount of blood or plasma?

A

Hypovolemic shock

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61
Q

What causes blood to pool in peripheral vessels?

A

Neurogenic shock

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62
Q

What follows an allergic reaction to foreign proteins?

A

Anaphylaxis

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63
Q

What is caused by an infection that results in extremely low blood pressure?

A

Septic shock

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64
Q

What condition occurs secondary to heart failure or interference with heart function?

A

Cardiogenic shock

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65
Q

What condition may occur after injection of an iodinated contrast agent?

A

Anaphylaxis

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66
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of shock?

A

Accelerated pulse, cool clammy pale skin, systolic pressure less than 30

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67
Q

What should the radiographer do first when it is suspected a patient is going into shock?

A

Place in trendelenburg position

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68
Q

What applies when radiography is performed on trauma patients?

A

Work quickly and efficiently, observe for changes, document in writing changes of patients condition

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69
Q

Which of the following is used to feed a patient or conduct gastric auction?

A

NG tube

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70
Q

Which is used to administer nutrition or long term chemotherapy?

A

Venous catheter

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71
Q

What is the site of most nosocomial(HAI) infections?

A

Urinary catheter

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72
Q

What is another name for a mechanical respirator?

A

Ventilator

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73
Q

The most frequently performed exam using a contrast medium is a:

A

Chest X-ray

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74
Q

What is true concerning positive contrast media?

A

Aqueous iodine compounds may be used, barium is an inert substance and surgical contaminant, aqueous iodine compounds may cause dehydration

75
Q

What is a legit contraindication to the use of iodinated contrast media?

A

Allergy to any medications

76
Q

A reaction at the site of injection of iodinated contrast media may be caused by:

A

Extravasation of contrast agent

77
Q

What are symptoms of contrast agent reaction?

A

Hoarseness, sneezing, urticaria, vomiting

78
Q

After injection of the iodinated contrast media, the radiographer should:

A

Remain with the patient and have a conversation, listening for signs of laryngeal swelling

79
Q

At the first indication of a contrast agent reaction, the radiographer should:

A

Stop exam and obtain help. Don’t alert patient

80
Q

Hypodermic needles are described by their gauge, which is:

A

Diameter of needle opening. Larger gauge, smaller diameter

81
Q

Air must not be injected when performing venipuncture because :

A

An air embolus would form and may be fatal

82
Q

A small, easy to handle injection set that has plastic projections on both sides of the needle is called:

A

Butterfly

83
Q

A venous catheter:

A

A unit with a needle inside a flexible plastic catheter. Needle is removed after injection.

84
Q

Venipuncture steps:

A

Wash hands, put on gloves, secure tourniquet, select vein, cleanse skin, perform puncture, observe blood return, inject contrast, cover wound, check for swelling

85
Q

Venipuncture may be performed by:

A

A radiographer where allowed by state law

86
Q

A contrast medium overdose may occur:

A

In infants or adults who have renal, cardiac, or hepatic failure

87
Q

If medication needs to be ordered for a patient in the radiology department, a physician always:

A

Chooses the drug, dosage, and route

88
Q

A reaction that causes the patients skin to turn cyanotic means:

A

Skin is turning blue

89
Q

What degree of contrast reaction is vomiting?

A

Mild to moderate reaction

90
Q

What degree of reaction to contrast is dyspnea?

A

Severe reaction

91
Q

Which is always a part of the radiographers scope of practice?

A

Patient education

92
Q

What degree of reaction to contrast is cardiac arrest?

A

Severe reaction

93
Q

A document that provides instructions regarding medical care that a patient may prepare is called:

A

Advance directive

94
Q

The formal term for “no code” is:

A

DNR

95
Q

What contains enforceable points?

A

ARRT rules of ethics

96
Q

What served as a guide to professional conduct?

A

ARRT code of ethics

97
Q

The study of contrast agents, their administration, and possible reactions fall under the category of:

A

Pharmacology

98
Q

Natural background radiation represents what percentage of humans’ radiation exposure?

A

50%

99
Q

The greatest source of natural background radiation is:

A

Radon gas

100
Q

Radon gas presents a danger when:

A

Undetected

101
Q

X-rays and gamma rays used in diagnostic imaging are:

A

Artificial background radiation dose

102
Q

A feature of fluoro that automatically adjusts kVp and mA to maintain image brightness for necessary quality is called:

A

Automatic brightness control (ABC)

103
Q

What term describes the approximate skin dose where the X-ray beam is entering the patient?

A

Air kerma

104
Q

Sievert is calculated by multiplying gray by:

A

WR

105
Q

The total of air kerma over the exposed area of the patient is called:

A

Dose area product

106
Q

What is also known as coherent scattering?

A

Classical scatter

107
Q

What photon-tissue interaction does not occur in diagnostic radiography?

A

Pair production

108
Q

What is responsible for creating the conditions for contrast on the image?

A

Photoelectric interaction

109
Q

What produces scatter radiation and may fog the image?

A

Compton interaction

110
Q

What produces scatter as a result of vibration of orbital electrons?

A

Coherent scatter

111
Q

What results in total absorption of an incident X-ray photon?

A

Photoelectric interaction

112
Q

What is the only photon-tissue interaction that does not result in ionization?

A

Coherent scatter

113
Q

What involves interaction between an incident photon and an atomic nucleus?

A

Pair production

114
Q

What photon-tissue interaction primarily involves k-shell electrons?

A

Photoelectric interaction

115
Q

What involves loosely bound outer shell electrons?

A

Compton interaction

116
Q

What results in the production of a photoelectron that is ejected from the atom?

A

Photoelectric interaction

117
Q

What photon-tissue interaction requires use of grid?

A

Compton interaction

118
Q

What may result in occupational exposure for a radiographer?

A

Compton interaction

119
Q

What unit of measurement is used for absorbed dose in tissue?

A

Gyt

120
Q

What unit of measurement is used for effective dose limits?

A

Sievert

121
Q

What unit of measurement would be used to describe radiation present in the room?

A

Gya

122
Q

The amount of energy deposited by radiation per unit length of tissue being traversed is:

A

LET, determines use of a Wr when equivalent dose is calculated

123
Q

What agency publishes radiation protection standards based on scientific research?

A

National council on radiation protection and measurements

124
Q

The agency that enforces radiation protection standards relating to radioactive material at the federal level is the:

A

Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)

125
Q

Effective dose limit is defined as the upper boundary dose that:

A

Can be absorbed. With a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage

126
Q

ALARA is an acronym for

A

As low as reasonably achievable

127
Q

What are graphs called that show the relationship between dose of radiation received and incidence of effects

A

Dose response curves

128
Q

What is the basis for all radiation protection standards

A

Linear-nonthreshold effect

129
Q

What means there is no safe level of radiation and the response to the radiation is not directly proportional to the dose received

A

Nonlinear-nonthreshold effect

130
Q

What means there is no safe level of radiation and the response to the radiation is directly proportional to the dose received

A

Linear-nonthreshold effect

131
Q

What means there is a safe level of radiation for certain effects and those effects are directly proportional to the dose received when the safe level is exceeded

A

Linear-threshold effect

132
Q

What means there is a safe level of radiation for certain effects and those effects are NOT directly proportional to the dose received when the safe level is exceeded

A

Nonlinear-threshold effect

133
Q

Effects of radiation where the probability of occurrence, not severity, is proportional to the dose are called

A

Stochastic effects

134
Q

Effects of radiation that become more severe as dose increases are called

A

Deterministic effects

135
Q

According to NCRP, what is the fetus equivalent dose limit per month

A

0.5 mSv

136
Q

According to NCRP, the occupational cumulative effective dose limit =age in years x what dose

A

10 mSv

137
Q

According to NCRP, the annual occupational effective dose limit is

A

50 mSv

138
Q

According to NCRP, what is the annual effective dose limit for radiography students older than age 18

A

50 mSv

139
Q

According to NCRP, what is the annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming infrequent exposure

A

5 mSv

140
Q

According to NCRP, what is the fetus equivalent dose limit for the entire gestation

A

5 mSv

141
Q

According to NCRP, what is the annual effective dose limit for the general public assuming frequent exposure

A

1.0 mSv

142
Q

According to NCRP, what is the annual effective occupational dose limit for the lens of the eye

A

150 mSv

143
Q

The Wr used in calculating sievert takes into account what

A

LET (linear energy transfer)

144
Q

Linear energy transfer and biological damage are:

A

Directly proportional

145
Q

The ability of different types of radiation to produce the same biological response in an organism is called

A

RBE (relative biological effectiveness)

146
Q

The phases of the cellular life in order are

A

Interphase (g1, s, g2), prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

147
Q

The process of cell division for germ cells is called

A

Meiosis

148
Q

What occurs when radiation transfers it’s energy to DNA

A

Direct effect

149
Q

What states that each cell has a master molecule that directs all cellular activities and that if inactivated, results in cellular death

A

Target theory

150
Q

What describes the amount of radiation required to increase the number of mutations in a population by a factor of 2

A

Doubling dose

151
Q

What occurs when radiation transfers it’s energy to the cellular cytoplasm

A

Indirect effect

152
Q

What induces radiolysis

A

Indirect effect

153
Q

What is the name for changes in genetic code passed onto the next generation

A

Mutations

154
Q

What is responsible for producing free radicals

A

Indirect effect

155
Q

What occurs when the master molecule is struck by radiation

A

Direct effect

156
Q

What poisons the cell with H2O2

A

Indirect effect

157
Q

Most of the damage to a cell occurs as a result of

A

Indirect effect

158
Q

Cell radiosensitivity is described by the:

A

Law of bergonie and tribondeau

159
Q

The law that states that cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are nonspecialized and rapidly dividing is the:

A

Law of bergonie and tribondeau

160
Q

Cells are more radiosensitive when:

A

Fully oxygenated

161
Q

Blood count can be depressed with a whole body dose of:

A

.25 Sv

162
Q

The most radiosensitive cells in the body are:

A

Lymphocytes

163
Q

Cells that are least sensitive to radiation exposure include

A

Nerve and muscle cells

164
Q

Compared with ova in younger and older women, ova in women of reproductive age are:

A

Less radiosensitive

165
Q

Most somatic effects occur:

A

At doses beyond doses used during diagnostic radiography

166
Q

Somatic effects manifest in:

A

The person who has been irradiated

167
Q

What is considered a late somatic effect

A

Carcinogenesis

168
Q

What is used to limit the area of the patient being irradiated

A

Collimator

169
Q

Gonadal shields may reduce exposure to female gonads by:

A

50%

170
Q

What set of exposure factors would result in the lowest dose to the patient

A

Low mas, high kvp

171
Q

What is used as part of an effort to practice the ALARA concept

A

Collimation

172
Q

Cardinal rules of radiation protection include

A

Shielding distance time

173
Q

What is used to survey an area for radiation detection and measurement

A

Handheld ionization chamber

174
Q

What is accurate as low as 100 uGya

A

Film badge

175
Q

What includes filters for measurement of radiation energy

A

Film badge

176
Q

What may be used to measure in-air exposures in a fluoroscopic room

A

Handheld ionization chamber

177
Q

What detection device sounds an alarm to indicate the presence of radioactivity

A

Geiger mueller detector

178
Q

What is accurate as low as 50 uGya

A

TLD

179
Q

What is a digital monitor that may be used to measure dose in an area

A

Handheld ionization chamber

180
Q

What may be used for three months at a time

A

TLD

181
Q

What is sensitive to extremes in environment

A

Film badge

182
Q

What is used to represent the mean marrow dose

A

MMD

183
Q

The radiation dose that would cause the same genetic injury to the population as the sum of doses received by individuals actually being exposed is

A

GSD

Radiography (11 decks)

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