Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURS 5334 > RefinedModule2Pharm > Flashcards

RefinedModule2Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

What should be avoided with cephalosporins?

a) statins
b) alcohol
c) MAOIs
d) chelating agents

A

Answer: b) alcohol should be avoided

remember the “chef” who had too much to drink on the show

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which are side effects of cephalosporins?

a) bleeds
b) superinfections
c) Red man syndrome
d) long QT

A

Answer: a) bleeds

Remember the “chef” with his “ax”=ceftriaxone as well as cefazolin, cefotetan can cause bleeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or false, cephalosporin coverage becomes more broad with later generations?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What coverage type increases with generations of cephalosporins?

A

More gram negative coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would 2nd generation cephalosporins be used for?

a) surgery prophylaxis
b) pseudomonas
c) pneumonia
d) meningitis

A

answer c) pneumonia and URI

Gives Gram + coverage and some gram - coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which generation of cephalosprins penetrate the CSF?

A

3rd- can be used to treat gram - bacteria and meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which is not a use for 5th generation cephalosporins?

a) HAI
b) MRSA
c) enterobacteriaceae
d) pseudomonas

A

Answer: A)HAI (better treated with 4th gen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a side effect of cephalosporins?

a) long QT
b) hepatotoxicity
c) photosensitivity
d) renal impairment

A

Answer d)renal impairment

(remember the “dead” kidney on the “cooking show)

Most common SE is allergic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What drug can be used if a patient has a severe (anaphylactic) allergy to PCN?

a) cephalospoin
b) erythromycin
c) macrolide
d) none of these

A

Answer b&c

Erythromycin (a macrolide) can be used in patients with severe allergy to PCN. Avoid cephalosporin use as cross-allergy may exist (in severe allergies).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of these is a penicillinase-reistant PCN?

a) amoxicillin
b) piperacillin
c) naficillin
d) penicillin G

A

Answer c)naficillin

Others include oxicillin and dicloxicillin

They treat STAPHYLOCOCCI ONLY–> gram + narrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which penicillin is appropriate to treat staphylococci?

a) amoxicillin
b) piperacillin
c) oxicillin
d) penicillin V

A

Answer:

c) oxicillin

Others include naficillin and dicloxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following are broad-spectrum PCN?

a) amoxicillin
b) piperacillin
c) naficillin
d) penicillin G

A

Answer: a)amoxicillin

Ampicillin is the other. They cover mostly gram + and some gram -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does piperacillin cover?

a) gram -
b) gram +
c) both

A

Answer: a) gram -

Note: can be broad spectrum if combined with a Beta-lactamase inhibitor (sulbactam, tazobactam, clavulanic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If I use vancomycin, what am I treating?

A

MRSA or C.diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which is a side effect of PCN?

a) QT prolongation
b) bleeds
c) renal toxicity
d) hemolytic anemia

A

Answer:

d)hemolytic anemia (remember the anemone that the “pencil villain” stole along with the hypersensitive hiker)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which is not a beta-lactamase inhibitor?

a) sulbactam
b) sulfamethoxazole
c) clavulanic acid
d) none of the above

A

Answer b)sulfamethoxazole

It is used to treat UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MALT in reference to mechanism of action refers to what 4 antibiotics?

A

Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis
Macrolides: (azithromycin/erythromycin)
Aminoglycosides (streptomycin and gentamicin)
Lincosamides (Clindamycin)
Tetracyclines (tetracycline, doxycycline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the suffix for macrolides?

A

“____thromycin”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the suffix for tetracyclines?

A

“_____cycline”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the aminoglycoside names?

A

GNATS

gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What medication is a lincosamide? (think MALT)

A

Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are carbapenems used to treat?

a) skin
b) GI
c) STI
d) serious infections

A

Answer: d) serious infections

also used to treat urinary and GI infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are aminoglygosides used to treat?

a) bacteremia
b) Lyme disease
c) STIs
d) skin

A

Answer: a)bacteremia and abdominal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Acronym GLAM means what?

A

Most antibiotics cover gram + and gram - except GLAM:

Glycopeptide (vanco)=gram positive
Lincosamide (clindamycin)=gram positive
AmiNOglycoside= gram negative
Macrolides=gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which is not a side effect of carbapenem?

a) renal toxicity
b) GI
c) decreases valproate
d) superinfections

A

Answer: a) renal toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which is not a side effect of vancomycin?

a) Red man syndrome
b) ototoxic
c) renal failure
d) QT prolongation
e) thrombocytopenia
f) blood dyscrasia

A

Answer d)QT prolongation f)blood dyscrasias

Remember: we do monitor trough levels to protect from renal damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Telavancin (synthetic vancomycin) has what side effect?

a) Red man syndrome
b) ototoxic
c) renal failure
d) QT prolongation

A

Answer: d)QT prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why would telvancin be used?

a) to treat organism resistant to MRSA
b) to treat organism resistant to piperacillin
c) to treat C.diff
d) to treat organism resistant to vancomycin

A

Answer: d) to treat organism resistant to vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Aztreonam uses include:

a) H. flu and pneumonia
b) E. coli and pneumonia
c) Klebsiella and H. pylori
d) H. flu and pseudomonas

A

Answer: d) H. flu and pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which is not a use for aztreonam:

a) enterobacteriaceae
b) E. coli
c) shigella
d) mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Answer d) mycoplasma pneumoniae

Treat that with tetracycline (doxycycline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which beta-lactam antibiotic is resistant to beta-lactamase?

a) PCN
b) cephalosporin
c) monobactam
d) carbapenem

A

Answer: d) carbapenem

remember beta-lactamase “fish” with the resistance band in the video with a “penny” lead character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What ABX can be given for a UTI during pregnancy?

a) trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
b) amoxicillin
c) nitrofurantoin
d) fosfomycin
e) one or more of the above

A

answer e) one or more of the above

Amoxicillin and Fosfomycin can both be given to pregnant patients. Fosfomycin is for uncomplicated UTIs and are a single dose. However, pregnancy itself is considered a complicated UTI which indicates use of amoxicillin?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

First line treatment in a complicated UTI/uncomplicated pyelo would be?

a) fluoroquinolones
b) SMP/TMZ
c) cephalosporins
d) nitrofurantoin
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer: e) one or more of the above.

The first line treatment for COMPLICATED UTI/uncomplicated pyelo would be SMP/TMZ and fluoroquinolones.

2nd line tx: cephalosporins and amoxicilin/clavulante

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Nitrofurantoin (lower UTI drug) carries what adverse reactions?

a) blood issues
b) renal toxic
c) hepatotoxic
d) pulmonary
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer: e) one or more of the above

Nitrofurantoin is associated with blood issues, hepatotoxicity, GI, pulmonary, and teratogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How long should a patient be treated for recurrent UTIs?

a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 1 year
d) none of the above

A

Answer: b) 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which organism is not associated with UTIs?

a) klebsiella
b) proteus
c) staph saphrophyticus
d) E. coli
e) one or more of the above
f) none of the above

A

Answer: f)none of the above

Note: they all are associated with UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most significant side effect of HIV medications?

a) bone marrow suppression
b) G6PD
c) immunosuppression
d) CYP450 metabolism

A

Answer: d) CYP450 metabolism

Thus, they have LOTS of drug interactions/adverse effects as a result.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Multidrug resistant TB (MDR TB) resists:

a) INH
b) rifampin
c) all fluoroquinolones
d) one or more 2nd line injectables
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer: e) one more more of the above

Multidrug resistant TB resists: INH & rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Extensively drug resistant TB (XDR TB) resists:

a) INH
b) rifampin
c) all fluoroquinolones
d) one or more 2nd line injectables
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer e) one or more of the the above

XDR TB resists:

INH, rifampin, all fluoroquinolones, one or more 2nd line injectables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Patients with HIV and TB:

a) require longer treatment but less aggressive
b) require shorter, more aggressive treatment
c) cannot be treated for both simultaneously
d) will be denied treatment for one infection
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer: d) will be denied treatment for one infection

Patients with simultaneous HIV&TB will require longer, more aggressive treatment (6 months). Rifampin (TB drug) can increase the metabolism of HIV drugs rendering them less effective. Note: Rifabutin does not increase metabolism of HIV drugs as much.

41
Q

Which option would be better for a patient with simultaneous HIV and TB?

a) Rifapentine
b) Rifampin
c) Rifabutin
d) none of the above

A

Answer: c) Rifabutin

Rifampin and Rifabutin can increase the metabolism of HIV drugs rendering them less effective. Note: Rifabutin does not increase metabolism of HIV drugs as much.

42
Q

For drug sensitive TB, initial TB treatment lasts __ weeks and is designed to make sputum noninfectious. Whereas, continuation of TB treatment lasts ___ weeks and is designed to eliminate persistent organisms.

a) 3, 6+
b )6, 12+
c) 8, 18+
d) 10, 24+

A

Answer c) 8, 18+

Note: initial treatment requires the use of 4 drugs “RIPE” and continuation treatment requires the use of 2 “RI”

43
Q

Which is harder to treat, INH resistant TB or rifampin resistant?

A

Answer: rifampin

Treatment is 18-24 months with “IPE” drugs

44
Q

INH resistant TB requires ___ months of treatment with ____ drugs.

a) 3 months, 3 drugs
b) 6 months, 3 drugs
c) 8 months, 3 drugs
d) 10 months, 3 drugs

A

Answer: b) 6 months, 3 drugs “RPE”

45
Q

Treatment of MDR-TB and XDR-TB involves:

a) 24 months minimum
b) 28 months minimum
c) 5-7 drugs at once
d) 7-9 drugs at once
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer: e) one or more of the above

Treatment is 24 months minimum with 5-7 second line drugs used at once.

46
Q

TB drug acronym RIPE stands for what?

A

Rifampin, INH (isoniazid), Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

47
Q

What should be given if the patient is taking INH for TB?

a) B6
b) iron
c) calcium
d) pyridoxine
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer: e) one or more of the above

Answer: Give B6/pyridoxine to decrease neuropathy

48
Q

What is a side effect of Rifampin?

a) neuropathy
b) vision changes
c) muscle weakness in those with M. gravis
d) discoloration of body fluids

A

Answer: d) discoloration of body fluids

Harmless discoloration may occur.

Note: this may also occur with Rifabutin

49
Q

Latent TB treatment with rifampin is done daily for ___ months. Whereas latent TB treatment with INH is done daily/weekly for _____ months.

A

Answer :Latent TB treatment with rifampin is done daily for 4 months. Whereas latent TB treatment with INH is done daily/weekly for 6-9 months.

50
Q

When INH and Rifampin are used to treat latent TB weekly, the treatment duration should be:

a) 6-8 weeks
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 4 months

A

Answer: c) 3 months

Think of this combo as being the most “strong” and therefore less time is needed in the treatment of latent TB

51
Q

Which drug is the most toxic of all TB medications?

a) Rifabutin
b) Rifapentine
c) Pyrazinamide
d) Ethambutol

A

Answer: c) pyrazinamide

Works on Mycobacterium TB

52
Q

Vision changes can occur with which TB medication?

a) Rifabutin
b) Rifapentine
c) Pyrazinamide
d) Ethambutol

A

Answer: d) ethambutol

53
Q

What severe reaction can occur with mebendazole (an anthelmintic)?

a) muscle weakness in M. gravis patients
b) tendon rupture
c) cancer in rats (so it should be used carefully)
d) bone marrow suppression

A

Answer:

d) bone marrow suppression

Also true of albendazole*

54
Q

Metronidazole is useful in what infections?

a) aerobic organisms
b) anaerobic organisms
c) URI
d) GI
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer: e) one or more of the above

It is useful in ANaerobic bacteria found in the GI and vagina. (C. diff, H. pylori, trichomonas)

55
Q

What is a BBW for metronidazole?

a) cancer in rats (so it should be used carefully)
b) bone marrow suppression
c) tendon rupture
d) muscle weakness in M. gravis patients

A

Answer: a) cancer in rats

Other SE: neurotoxicity and a reaction with alcohol

56
Q

What labs should be monitored in a patient taking mebendazole or albendazole?

a) PT/INR
b) K+
c) CBC
d) LFT
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer: e) one or more of the above

As these medications can suppress bone marrow, the CBC and LFT should be monitored.

57
Q

Amphotericin B side effects:

a) nephrotoxic
b) hepatotoxic
c) bone marrow suppression
d) muscle weakness in M. gravis
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer e) one or more of above
nephrotoxic, hepatotoxic, bone marrow suppression, phlebitis

Amphotericin B will terrorize your body.

Used only for LIFE THREATENING FUNGAL INFECTIONS

58
Q

What can cause blood issues in those with G6PD?

A)TMP/SMZ
B) fluoroquinolones
C) doxycycline
D)valacylovir

A

Answer: a)TMP/SMZ

59
Q

Match the letters to the generation for cephalosporins:

first gen= \_\_\_\_\_
second gen=\_\_\_\_\_\_
third gen=\_\_\_\_\_\_
fourth gen=\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
fifth gen=\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Answer:

1st: FA/PHA (ceFAzolin, cePHalexin)
2nd: all others
3rd: ONE/TEN/IME (ceftriaxONE, cefibuTEN, cefixIME)
4th: Pi (CefePime)
5th: ROL (CeftaROLine)

60
Q

Which of the following is not a beta-lactam antibiotic?

a) penicillin
b) cefepime
c) carbapenem
d) ciprofloxacin
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer: d) ciprofloxacin

Beta-lactam antibiotics are: PCN, cephalosporins, carbapenems, aztreonam

61
Q

Which medication can cause muscle breakdown when combined with a statin?

a) fluoroquinolone
b) SMZ/TMP
c) Tetracycline
d) Macrolide

A

Answer: d)macrolide

Other SE: QT, (erythromycin can increase warfarin, and clindamycin has a BBW for C. Diff)

62
Q

Which antibiotic has a BBW for C. Diff?

a) carbapenem
b) vancomycin
c) aztreonam
d) clindamycin

A

Answer: d) clindamycin

This can occur even after medication cessation.

63
Q

Amphotericin B should be used:

a) to treat MRSA
b) to treat HCAI
c) to treat pseudomonas
d) to treat serious fungal infections

A

Answer: d) to treat serious fungal infections

It is a broad spectrum antifungal with SERIOUS SE.

64
Q

What is the MOA for amphotericin B?

a) disrupts cell wall
b) disrupts protein synthesis
c) increases cell membrane permeability
d) inhibits ergosterol

A

Answer: c) increases cell membrane permeability so “stuff” leaks out via a “sterol” which is not found in human cells

65
Q

What is a BBW found on amphotericin B?

a) blood dyscracia
b) bone marrow suppression
c) muscle weakness in M. gravis
d) cancer in lab rats
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer: b) bone marrow suppression

Other BBW: use only in life threatening FUNGAL infections

66
Q

Which of the following is not a SE of amphotericin B?

a) renal toxicity
b) hepatotoxicity
c) IV infusion reactions
d) cardiac suppression

A

Answer: d) cardiac suppression

This can occur with fungal azoles such as Itraconazole.

67
Q

What medications should be avoided with amphotericin B?

a) statins
b) aminoglycosides
c) warfarin
d) NSAIDs
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer: e) one or more of the above

Avoid nephrotoxic drugs concurrently with amphotericin B such as NSAIDs and aminoglycosides (ototoxic and nephrotoxic).

68
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate match:

a) azoles- ringworm and onychomycosis
b) griseofulvin-candida and tinea capitis
c) griseofulvin- tinea capitis only
d) azoles-all

A

Answer: d) azoles-all

Azoles cover all; allylamine covers ringworm and onychomycosis (nails); Griseofulvin won’t cover candida but it is the drug of choice for tinea capitis

69
Q

What is fidaxomicin used for?

a) GI/GU infections
b) serious infections
c) M. pneumoniae
d) CDAD

A

Answer: d) CDAD

Fidaxomicin covers C. Diff associated diarrhea.

70
Q

True or false, polymyxin B has been recently used for treating multi-drug resistant organisms?

A

True.

71
Q

Which is not a side effect of fungal azoles (Itraconazole)?

a) increase CPY450
b) liver failure
c) cardiac suppression (negative inotrope)
d) GI
e) one or more of the above

A

Answer: a) increase CYP450

Fungal azoles can inhibit (DECREASE) the activity of CYP450. The other options are true side effects of azoles.

72
Q

What is the MOA for echinocandins?

a) inhibit ergosterol
b) disrupt DNA/RNA synthesis
c) increase cell membrane permeability
d) disrupt cell wall

A

Answer: d) disrupt cell wall

This is unique, as many antifungals affect the cell membrane.

73
Q

What is the MOA for flucytosine?

a) inhibit ergosterol
b) disrupt DNA/RNA synthesis
c) increase cell membrane permeability
d) disrupt cell wall

A

Answer: b) disrupt DNA/RNA synthesis in fungi

74
Q

What is a side effect of echinocandins?

a) hyperkalemia
b) cardiac suppression
c) histamine release
d) inhibit CYP450

A

Answer: c) histamine release

Other SE: hypokalemia, headache, N/V

75
Q

True or false, caspofungin (an echinocandin) is just as effective as highly toxic amphotericin B?

A

True, and caspofungin is better tolerated.

76
Q

What drug is often combined with amphotericin B?

a) flucytosine
b) echinocandin (caspofungin)
c) itraconazole (azole)
d) triclabendazole

A

Answer: a) flucytosine

The combo is used to treat serious infections of candida and cryptococcus neoformans.

77
Q

What is the use of flucytosine?

a) onychomycosis
b) candida and dermatophytes
c) candida
d) C. Diff associated diarrhea (CDAD)

A

Answer: c) candida

Also treats cyrptococcus neoformans.

Used often with amphotericin B

78
Q

True or false, ciclopirox works on candida only?

A

False, it also works on dermatophytes

79
Q

What is a side effect of flucytosine?

a) increased half life in renal impaired
b) renal toxicity
c) bone marrow suppression
d) teratogen
e) two of the above
f) three of the above

A

Answer: e) two of the above

Flucytosine: increased half life in renal-impaired patients, liver toxicity, inhibit liver metabolizing enzymes

BBW: bone marrow suppression

80
Q

Side effect of mebendazole and albendazole?

a) none- anthelmintics are generally well tolerated
b) muscle weakness in M. gravis
c) bone marrow suppression
d) QT prolongation

A

Answer: c) bone marrow suppression

Also side effect of liver toxicity. We need to monitor LFT and CBC.

81
Q

Chlamydia treatment is:

a) 100 mg azithromycin once
b) 100 mg doxycycline once
c) 1 g azithromycin once
d) 1 g doxycycine B.I.D. for 7 days
e) 100 mg azithromycin B.I.D for 7 days

A

Answer: c) 1 g azithromycin PO once

OR… 100 mg doxycycline PO BID Q7D

82
Q

Gonorrhea treatment is:

a) 100 mg azithromycin PO BID Q7D
b) 1 gram azithromycin PO once
c) 250 mg azithromycin IM once
d) 1 gram ceftriaxone IM once

A

Answer: b) 1 gram azithromycin PO once

The combo is: 250 mg ceftriaxone IM once plus 1 g azithromycin PO once

83
Q

Syphilis is treated with how much Pen G?

a) 1.4 million units PO once
b) 2.4 million units PO once
c) 2.4 million units IM once
d) 1.4 million units IM once

A

Answer: c) 2.4 million units IM once

84
Q

What drugs are used for treating genital herpes?

A

Remember: No cure but we can use acycylovir, famciclovir, and valacyclovir.

85
Q

Bacterial vaginosis can be treated with what dosage?

a) ciprofloxacin 500 mg PO BID Q7D
b) metronidazole 500 mg PO BID Q7D
c) clindamycin 5g vaginally at bedtime Q7D
d) metronidazole 5g vaginally at bedtime Q7D

A

Answer: b) metronidazole 500 mg PO BID Q7D

Other choices are metronidazole 5g vaginally Q5D or clindamycin 5g vaginally Q7D

86
Q

Trichimoniasis treatment is:

a) ciprofloxacin 500 mg PO BID Q7D
b) metronidazole 500 mg PO BID Q7D
c) metronidazole 2 g PO once
d) metronidazle 5 g PO once

A

Answer: c) metronidazole 2 grams once PO

87
Q

Which antivirals are safest and used for most:

a) famciclovir, cidofovir, acyclovir
b) acyclovir, vangancicovir, famciclovir
c) acyclovir, ganciclovir, valacyclovir
d) acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir

A

Answer: D) acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir

88
Q

Which non-HIV antiviral carries the side effect of TTP/HUS?

a) acyclovir
b) famciclovir
c) ganciclovir
d) valacyclovir

A

Answer: d) valacyclovir

TTP/HUS can occur in immune compromised patients.

89
Q

Which is a prodrug of acyclovir?

a) vanganciclovir
b) cidofovir
c) valacyclovir
d) famacyclovir

A

Answer: c) valacyclovir

It has greater bioavailability than acyclovir.

90
Q

Which is not a side effect of ganciclovir (used to treat herpes and CMV in immunocompromised only)?

a) Bone marrow suppression
b) TTP/HUS
c) decreased sperm
d) cancer

A

Answer: b)TTP/HUS

TTP/HUS is seen with valacyclovir in immune compromised patients.

SE of ganciclovir and vanganciclovir are: bone marrow suppression, decreased sperm, cancer, and teratogen

91
Q

Cidofovir uses include:

a) CMV retinitis in AIDS
b) resistant HSV and VSV in immunocompromised
c) CMV prevention
d) resistant VZV in AIDS

A

Answer: a) CMV retinitis in AIDS patients who have not responded to other drugs

92
Q

What drug would be used to treat CMV retinitis in AIDS patients, and/or resistant HSV and VZV in immunocompromised patients?

a) vanganciclovir
b) foscarnet
c) cidofovir
d) ganciclovir

A

Answer: b) foscarnet

93
Q

Which drug for Hep B can lead to resistant HIV?

a) lamivudine
b) tenofovir
c) entecavir
d) adefovir

A

Answer: b) tenofovir

94
Q

Which drug for Hepatitis B will exacerbate hepatitis when discontinued?

a) sofobuvir
b) dasabuvir
c) tenofovir
d) entecavir

A

Answer: d) entecavir

95
Q

Treatment for an 18 year old non pregnant female with uncomplicated cervix infection with gonorrhea and chlamydial infection has not been excluded is:

a) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once
b) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM plus Doxycycline 100 mg po twice daily for 7 days
c) Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM plus Azithromycin 1 gm PO orally
d) Azithromycin 1 gram by mouth once

A

Answer: b) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM plus Doxycycline 100 mg po twice daily for 7 days

96
Q

Jade comes in with vaginal Candidiasis. What is the NP going to prescribe?

a) Metronidazole 150 mg by mouth for 7 days
b) Metronidazole 150 mg by mouth once
c) Fluconazole 150 mg by month once
d) Fluconazole 150 mg by mouth daily for 5 days

A

Answer: Fluconazole 150 mg by month once

97
Q

Lauren a 22 year old female comes into the clinic and is diagnosed with Trichomoniasis. The NP can prescribe: Check all that apply.

a) Tinidazole 2 gram by mouth in a single dose for men and women
b) Metronidazole 2 gram by mouth in a single dose for men
c) Metronidazole 500 by mouth twice daily for 7 days

A

A,B,C all correct.

98
Q

Which of the following statements regarding antiretroviral treatment are true? Check all that apply

a) Antiretroviral treatment is started immediately upon diagnosis
b) All regimens must include 2 NRTIs and another drug class
c) Protease inhibitors cause fat redistribution

A

A,B,C all correct.

99
Q

Vancomycin works:

a) inhibiting cell wall synthesis
b) weakening the cell wall
c) interfering with protein synthesis
d) interfering with DNA/RNA

A

Answer: a) inhibiting cell wall synthesis

NURS 5334 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions